Search Results

Search found 20383 results on 816 pages for 'hello all'.

Page 683/816 | < Previous Page | 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 | Next Page >

What's wrong with debugging in Eclipse on Android?

- by Sebastian Dwornik

I've obviously been spoiled by Visual Studio, because although I'm just learning Android and the Eclipse environment, debugging apps in Eclipse is becoming a serious detriment to further development. For example, Eclipse will compile this divide by zero just fine: public class Lesson2Main extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate (savedInstanceState); int i = 1 / 0; TextView tv = new TextView (this); tv.setText ("Hello, Android!"); setContentView (tv); } } And then, when it executes it under the debugger, I will get a full screen of useless debug info, non of which actually points me to the specific line containing the error. The stackTrace is null within the exception ('e') info tree, and it simply states a message stating 'ArithmeticException'. (that's nice, how about you point me in the direction of where you found it!?) I've looked all over the screen and am baffled that this IDE can't get this right. Does developing with Eclipse resort everyone back to 1991 with printf() like logging at every interval then to track down bugs? Seriously. Is there a configuration or plug-in that I'm missing to help with this? I haven't tested this case with XCode, but if the iPhone dev. IDE handles this more like Visual Studio, then no wonder the Android marketplace has so few apps. I'm excited about Android, but it seems that Eclipse is getting in the way.

Read the article
JS Object this.method() breaks via jQuery

- by Peter Boughton

I'm sure there's a simple answer to this, but it's Friday afternoon and I'm tired. :( Not sure how to explain it, so I'll just go ahead and post example code... Here is a simple object: var Bob = { Stuff : '' , init : function() { this.Stuff = arguments[0] } , doSomething : function() { console.log( this.Stuff ); } } And here it is being used: $j = jQuery.noConflict(); $j(document).ready( init ); function init() { Bob.init('hello'); Bob.doSomething(); $j('#MyButton').click( Bob.doSomething ); } Everything works, except for the last line. When jQuery calls the doSomething method it is overriding 'this' and stopping it from working. Trying to use just Stuff doesn't work either. So how do I refer to an object's own properties in a way that allows jQuery to call it, and also allows the object to work with the calling jQuery object? i.e. I would like to be able to do things like this: doSomething : function() { console.log( <CurrentObject>.Stuff + $j(<CallerElement>).attr('id') ); } (Where <CurrentObject> and <CallerElement> are replaced with appropriate names.)

Read the article
Calling a method on an unitialized object (null pointer)

- by Florin

What is the normal behavior in Objective-C if you call a method on an object (pointer) that is nil (maybe because someone forgot to initialize it)? Shouldn't it generate some kind of an error (segmentation fault, null pointer exception...)? If this is normal behavior, is there a way of changing this behavior (by configuring the compiler) so that the program raises some kind of error / exception at runtime? To make it more clear what I am talking about, here's an example. Having this class: @interface Person : NSObject { NSString *name; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *name; - (void)sayHi; @end with this implementation: @implementation Person @synthesize name; - (void)dealloc { [name release]; [super dealloc]; } - (void)sayHi { NSLog(@"Hello"); NSLog(@"My name is %@.", name); } @end Somewhere in the program I do this: Person *person = nil; //person = [[Person alloc] init]; // let's say I comment this line person.name = @"Mike"; // shouldn't I get an error here? [person sayHi]; // and here [person release]; // and here

Read the article
How can I optimize this or is there a better way to do it?(HTML Syntax Highlighter)

- by Tanner

Hello every one, I have made a HTML syntax highlighter in C# and it works great, but there's one problem. First off It runs pretty fast because it syntax highlights line by line, but when I paste more than one line of code or open a file I have to highlight the whole file which can take up to a minute for a file with only 150 lines of code. I tried just highlighting visible lines in the richtextbox but then when I try to scroll I can't it to highlight the new visible text. Here is my code:(note: I need to use regex so I can get the stuff in between < & characters) Highlight Whole File: public void AllMarkup() { int selectionstart = richTextBox1.SelectionStart; Regex rex = new Regex("<html>|</html>|<head.*?>|</head>|<body.*?>|</body>|<div.*?>|</div>|<span.*?>|</span>|<title.*?>|</title>|<style.*?>|</style>|<script.*?>|</script>|<link.*?/>|<meta.*?/>|<base.*?/>|<center.*?>|</center>|<a.*?>|</a>"); foreach (Match m in rex.Matches(richTextBox1.Text)) { richTextBox1.Select(m.Index, m.Value.Length); richTextBox1.SelectionColor = Color.Blue; richTextBox1.Select(selectionstart, -1); richTextBox1.SelectionColor = Color.Black; } richTextBox1.SelectionStart = selectionstart; } private void pasteToolStripMenuItem_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { LockWindowUpdate(richTextBox1.Handle);//Stops text from flashing flashing richTextBox1.Paste(); AllMarkup(); }finally { LockWindowUpdate(IntPtr.Zero); } } I want to know if there's a better way to highlight this and make it faster or if someone can help me make it highlight only the visible text. Please help. :) Thanks, Tanner.

Read the article
Querying a database using Cocoa.

- by S1syphus

Hello everybody. Before I start a disclaimer, I should add a little disclaimer, that I am relatively new to Cocoa development and C in general. However I do have a copy of 'Cocoa Programming for Mac OS X 3rd edition' by Aaron Hillegass, which I am working through and using as a base, if anybody has a copy I am using the 'AmaZone' example on page 346 as a template and base. I trying to develop a small client app that takes a search string then displays results from a database accordingly. The database will contain a: list of files, their location, description & creation date, so for the moment the field number and types will remain the same. After looking around on SO, I saw something like: NSURL *myURL = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.myserver.com/results.php"]; NSArray *sqlResults = [[NSArray alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:myURL]; I've worked with php before, so my current thinking after seeing this is create a php script on the server that queries the database, and creates an XML output. And with the XML response, just parse it. Would this be ok? as is there any major pitfalls anybody can see, that I can't. I know there are some database bundles, I've had a look at BaseTen for Postgres, but being relatively new to this, didn't want to get in over my head. Or if anybody else has any other suggestions and ideas, they would be greatly appreciated.

Read the article
passing an array of structures (containing two mpz_t numbers) to a function

- by jerome

Hello, I'm working on some project where I use the type mpz_t from the GMP C library. I have some problems passing an array of structures (containing mpz_ts) adress to a function : I wille try to explain my problem with some code. So here is the structure : struct mpz_t2{ mpz_t a; mpz_t b; }; typedef struct mpz_t2 *mpz_t2; void petit_test(mpz_t2 *test[]) { printf("entering petit test function\n"); for (int i=0; i < 4; i++) { gmp_printf("test[%d]->a = %Zd and test[%d]->b = %Zd\n", test[i]->a, test[i]->b); } } /* IN MAIN FUNCTION */ mpz_t2 *test = malloc(4 * sizeof(mpz_t2 *)); for (int i=0; i < 4; i++) { mpz_t2_init(&test[i]); // if I pass test[i] : compiler error mpz_set_ui(test[i].a, i); //if test[i]->a compiler error mpz_set_ui(test[i].b, i*10); //same problem gmp_printf("%Zd\n", test[i].b); //prints correct result } petit_test(test); The programm prints the expected result (in main) but after entering the petit_test function produces a segmentation fault error. I would need to edit the mpz_t2 structure array in petit_test. I tried some other ways allocating and passing the array to the function but I didn't manage to get this right. If someone has a solution to this problem, I would be very thankfull! Regards, jérôme.

Read the article
Problem draw line by Quartz 2D with alpha property < 1.0 on iPhone

- by The Khanh

Hello Everybody ! This code i use to draw in my app. So i have problem, if i draw with alpha property = 1. It is very good but if i change alpha property = 0.2 then my paint is not good. How do i make for better with alpha property = 0.2. http://www.flickr.com/photos/9601621@N05/page1/ Draw with alpha = 1: It is good Draw with alpha = 0.2: It is bad - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if ([self.view superview] && (headerView.frame.origin.y == -30)) { mouseSwiped = YES; UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; CGPoint currentPoint = [touch locationInView:self.view]; currentPoint.y -= 20; UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(self.view.frame.size); CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); [drawImage.image drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, self.view.frame.size.width, self.view.frame.size.height)]; CGContextSetLineCap(context, kCGLineCapRound); CGContextSetLineWidth(context, currentBrushProperty.brushSize); CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(context, [self red], [self green], [self blue], currentBrushProperty.brushTransparency); CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(context, 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); CGContextBeginPath(context); CGContextMoveToPoint(context, lastPoint.x, lastPoint.y); CGContextAddLineToPoint(context, currentPoint.x, currentPoint.y); CGContextStrokePath(context); drawImage.image = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); lastPoint = currentPoint; }} Help me, please.

Read the article
scrolling and css align with "right: 0px"

- by Gabi

Hello, In an HTML page, if I align some <div>s with "right: 0px", they all look very nice, as I expect. However, if I make the browser window smaller and the horizontal scroll bar appears, when I scroll the page to the right, I see an unexpected white space (instead of the background colors of my <div>s). It seems that my <div>s are aligned relative to the visible area of the page. See the sample code below: <html> <head> <style>  </style> </head> <body> <div id="parent"><div id="child">some text here</div></div> </body> </html> Is there any way to make the "right: 0px" property align the controls relative to the size of the entire page, not only the visible area? Thanks.

Read the article
Google Maps, marker info window won't show up ?

- by user296516

Hi guys, I have written this code that loops through an array of lat/long coordinates and places a marker at each of the coordinate. Everything forks fine, exempt the info window won't appear once the marker is clicked. var ExpTowerIcon = new GIcon(); ExpTowerIcon.image = "tower.png"; ExpTowerIcon.iconSize = new GSize(75, 75); ExpTowerIcon.iconAnchor = new GPoint(37, 65); ExpTowerIcon.infoWindowAnchor = new GPoint(37, 20); var marker=new Array(); for ( i=0 ; i < lat.length ; i++ ) { var MarkerPoint = new GLatLng(lat[i],long[i]); marker[i] = new GMarker(MarkerPoint,{icon:ExpTowerIcon}) map.addOverlay( marker[i] ); GEvent.addListener( marker[i] , 'click', function() { marker[i].openInfoWindowHtml('Hello!') ; }); var polyline = new GPolyline([ new GLatLng(lat[i],long[i]) , new GLatLng(lat[i+1],long[i+1]) ], "#ff0000", 5); map.addOverlay(polyline); } Any ideas? Thanks!

Read the article
Error of iterator in mys JSP

- by Mercer

Hello, in my jsp i do this <table> <tr> <th>TITLLE</th> </tr> <tr class="row0"> <logic:iterate id="listClient" name="Client"> <td> [...] </td> </logic:iterate> </tr> </table> <logic:iterate id="listClient" name="Client"> <table> <tr> <td> [...] </td> </tr> </table> </logic:iterate> But i have this error for my second iterate javax.servlet.jsp.JspException: Cannot create iterator for this collection

Read the article
Can't Compile Correct Mapping File

- by NoOne

Hello, Im now developping one application in C# with Remoting objects and NHibernate. So here is a image explaining how my projects are divided. Views Layer This layer will be responsible for the users interface. This layer will always use the Controls Layer to create and edit objects; Control Layer This is my persistence layer, here Ill have all the NHibernate configuration. This is my critic point, because ListSingleton Project will have only my RemoteObject. (Here I have the App.config file) Models Layer Entity layer. Here I only have the entities classes and their respective mapping. I’ve done a test solution with no remoting and only with the projects of the Control and Model Layers. It was all working ok. Now that I added the Views Layer and set the solution to start with projects Client and Server (Client calls the Control Layer and this would do a try to persist a object) I’m getting a error at : Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); cfg.AddXmlFile("mapping/User.hbm.xml"); InnerException: {"Could not compile the mapping document: mapping/User.hbm.xml"} InnerException.InnerException: {"Could not find the dialect in the configuration"} StackTrace in the InnerException.InnerException " em NHibernate.Dialect.Dialect.GetDialect(IDictionary`2 props)\r\n em NHibernate.Cfg.Configuration.AddValidatedDocument(NamedXmlDocument doc)" But I know that there is no error in the mapping file because I used in my test application.

Read the article
XPATH Query: How to get two elements?

- by Damiano

Hello My HTML code is: <table> <tr> <td class="data1"><p>1</td></td> <td class="data1"><p>2</td></td> <td class="data1"><p>3</td></td> <td class="data1"><p>4</td></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="data1"><p>5</td></td> <td class="data1"><p>6</td></td> <td class="data1"><p>7</td></td> <td class="data1"><p>8</td></td> </tr> </table> My query is: xpath='//tr//td[@class="data1"][4]/p' The results is: <p>4</p> <p>8</p> The results is correct! but, if I want to get example: <p>3</p> <p>4</p> <p>7</p> <p>8</p> So [3]/p and [4]/p How to get these two elements each <tr> ? Thank you so much!

Read the article
Javascript parentNode and innerHTML do not work properly in FireFox

- by Uda

Hello, I have a problem when using javascript in Firefox, here is the html: <HTML> <BODY> <TABLE align="center"> <TR><td><input type=button name=submit onclick="javascript:submitIt()" value="submit" align="center"></td></TR> <TD> <TABLE> <DIV STYLE="display:none position:relative;"> <FORM ID="formA" NAME="formA" METHOD="post" ACTION="b.html" TARGET="_blank"> <INPUT TYPE="hidden" NAME=aInput VALUE="1294457296"> </FORM> </DIV> </TABLE> </TD> </TABLE></BODY></HTML> and here's the javascript: <script language="Javascript"> function submitIt() { oForm = document.getElementById("formA"); strRequest = "<HTML><BODY>" + oForm.parentNode.innerHTML + "</BODY></HTML>"; newDoc = window.open("", "", ""); newDoc.document.write(strRequest); } Problem is when you click submit button in this html page, you'll get a new html with source: <HTML><BODY><form id="formA" name="formA" method="post" action="b.html" target="_blank"></form> <input name="aInput" value="1294457296" type="hidden"> </BODY></HTML> but it's supposed to be <HTML><BODY><form id="formA" name="formA" method="post" action="b.html" target="_blank"> <input name="aInput" value="1294457296" type="hidden"></form> </BODY></HTML> Could anyone please help please? it will be really appreciated. Thanks!

Read the article
VB.net httpwebrequest For loop hangs every 10 or so iterations

- by user574632

Hello, I am trying to loop through an array and perform an httpwebrequest in each iteration. The code seems to work, however it pauses for a while (eg alot longer than the set timeout. Tried setting that to 100 to check and it still pauses) after every 10 or so iterations, then carries on working. Here is what i have so far: For i As Integer = 0 To numberOfProxies - 1 Try 'create request to a proxyJudge php page using proxy Dim request As HttpWebRequest = HttpWebRequest.Create("http://www.pr0.net/deny/azenv.php") request.Proxy = New Net.WebProxy(proxies(i)) 'select the current proxie from the proxies array request.Timeout = 10000 'set timeout Dim response As HttpWebResponse = request.GetResponse() Dim sr As StreamReader = New StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()) Dim pageSourceCode As String = sr.ReadToEnd() 'check the downloaded source for certain phrases, each identifies a type of proxy 'HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR identifies a transparent proxy If pageSourceCode.Contains("HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR") Then 'delegate method for cross thread safe UpdateListbox(ListBox3, proxies(i)) ElseIf pageSourceCode.Contains("HTTP_VIA") Then UpdateListbox(ListBox2, proxies(i)) Else UpdateListbox(ListBox1, proxies(i)) End If Catch ex As Exception 'MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString) used in testing UpdateListbox(ListBox4, proxies(i)) End Try completedProxyCheck += 1 lblTotalProxiesChecked.CustomInvoke(Sub(l) l.Text = completedProxyCheck) Next I have searched all over this site and via google, and most responses to this type of question say the response must be closed. I have tried a using block, eg: Using response As HttpWebResponse = request.GetResponse() Using sr As StreamReader = New StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()) Dim pageSourceCode As String = sr.ReadToEnd() 'check the downloaded source for certain phrases, each identifies a type of proxy 'HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR identifies a transparent proxy If pageSourceCode.Contains("HTTP_X_FORWARDED_FOR") Then 'delegate method for cross thread safe UpdateListbox(ListBox3, proxies(i)) ElseIf pageSourceCode.Contains("HTTP_VIA") Then UpdateListbox(ListBox2, proxies(i)) Else UpdateListbox(ListBox1, proxies(i)) End If End Using End Using And it makes no difference (though i may have implemented it wrong) As you can tell im very new to VB or any OOP so its probably a simple problem but i cant work it out. Any suggestions or just tips on how to diagnose these types of problems would be really appreciated.

Read the article
Password Confirmation Overlay

- by Alasdair

Hello, I'm creating a J2EE web application that uses jQuery and Ajax to help with some of the presentation for a user-friendly interface. I've done a lot of work ensuring security around persistant login cookies, and I've decided to request the password from any user that logged in using a persistant login cookie before being allowed to make any changes that could be malicious. This request would only happen once to confirm the user is who they say they are and will last throughout the session. At present, any requests that meet this criteria has their request information stored in session and then the user is forwarded to a page to confirm their password. Once confirmed, the user's original request is then performed and the requestion information removed from session. What I would like to do is avoid all this redirection and minimize what's held in session (even if it's just for a small time), thus improving usability and convenience for the user. I believe that a jQuery overlay could allow me to prompt the user for their password (if required) and then continue to submit the request if successful. I would of originally used ThickBox, but since that's now deprecated I don't see the benefit in implementing it in an application at this development stage. However, I have tried to create an overlay using jQuery but I've scrapped every attempt as I can't seem to make it all come together. My main problem is preventing the submission when the user incorrectly types a password or cancels the overlay. Desired Flow Persistant Login Sensitive Page Submit Password Confirmation Overlay [Continue Submit | (Cancel | Incorrect] I have already created JavaScript code to encrypt the password to be sent in a parameter, but all I need now is a method of controlling the overlay and how best to use Ajax for this purpose. Please ignore the fact that this is a J2EE web application when answering as it is irrelevant really. Thanks in advance, Alasdair

Read the article
PHP and curl for fetching currency rate from Yahoo Finance

- by gregj

Hello, I wrote the following php snippet to fetch the currency conversion rate from Yahoo Finance.Im using curl to fetch the data. Suppose, i want to convert from US dollars (USD) to Indian National Rupee (INR),then the url is http://in.finance.yahoo.com/currency/convert?amt=1&from=USD&to=INR&submit= and the Indian Rupee value is shown as 45.225. However,if i run my code, the value im getting is 452.25. Why this discrepancy ? <?php $amount = $_GET['amount']; $from = $_GET['from']; $to = $_GET['to']; $url = "http://in.finance.yahoo.com/currency/convert?amt=".$amount."&from=".$from."&to=".$to; $handle = curl_init($url); curl_setopt ($handle, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $data = curl_exec($handle); if(preg_match_all('/<td class="yfnc_tabledata1"><b>(?:[1-9]\d+|\d)(?:\.\d\d)?/',$data,$matches)) { print_r($matches[0][1]); } else { echo "Not found !"; } curl_close($handle); ?> Is there something wrong with my regex ? Please help. Thank You.

Read the article
SharePoint extensions for VS - which version have I got?

- by Javaman59

I'm using Visual Studio 2008, and have downloaded VSeWSS.exe 1.2, to enable Web Part development. I am new to SP development, and am already bewildered by the number of different versions of SP, and the VS add-ons. This particular problem has come up, which highlights my confusion. I selected Add - New Project - Visual C# - SharePoint- Web Part, accepted the defaults, and VS created a project, with the main file WebPart1.cs using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Xml.Serialization; using Microsoft.SharePoint; using Microsoft.SharePoint.WebControls; using Microsoft.SharePoint.WebPartPages; namespace WebPart1 { [Guid("9bd7e74c-280b-44d4-baa1-9271679657a0")] public class WebPart1 : System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts.WebPart { public WebPart1() { } protected override void CreateChildControls() // <-- This line { base.CreateChildControls(); // TODO: add custom rendering code here. // Label label = new Label(); // label.Text = "Hello World"; // this.Controls.Add(label); } } } The book I'm following, Essential SharePoint 2007, by Jeff Webb, has the following for the default project - using System; <...as previously> namespace WebPart1 { [Guid("9bd7e74c-280b-44d4-baa1-9271679657a0")] public class WebPart1 : System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts.WebPart { // ^ this is a new style (ASP.NET) web part! [author's comment] protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) // <-- This line { // This method draws the web part // TODO: add custom rendering code here. // Label label = new Label(); // writer.Write("Output HTML"); } } } The real reason for my concern is that in this chapter of the book the author frequently mentions the distinction between "old style" web parts, and "new style" web parts, as noted in his comment on the Render method. What's happened? Why has my default Web Part got a different signature to the authors?

Read the article
C# Uploading files to file server

- by JustFoo

Hello All, Currently I have an application that receives an uploaded file from my web application. I now need to transfer that file to a file server which happens to be located on the same network (however this might not always be the case). I was attempting to use the webclient class in C# .NET. string filePath = "C:\\test\\564.flv"; try { WebClient client = new WebClient(); NetworkCredential nc = new NetworkCredential(uName, password); Uri addy = new Uri("\\\\192.168.1.28\\Files\\test.flv"); client.Credentials = nc; byte[] arrReturn = client.UploadFile(addy, filePath); Console.WriteLine(arrReturn.ToString()); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } The machine located at 192.168.1.28 is a file server and has a share c:\Files. As of right now I am receiving an error of Login failed bad user name or password, but I can open explorer and type in that path login successfully. I can also login using remote desktop, so I know the user account works. Any ideas on this error? Is it possible to transfer a file directly like that? With the webclient class or maybe some other class? Thanks

Read the article
Sending items in a LINQ sequence to a method that returns void

- by generalt

Hello all. Often while I'm dealing with LINQ sequences, I want to send each item to a method returning void, avoiding a foreach loop. However, I haven't found an elegant way to do this. Today, I wrote the following code: private StreamWriter _sw; private void streamToFile(List<ErrorEntry> errors) { if (_sw == null) { _sw = new StreamWriter(Path.Combine (Path.GetDirectoryName(_targetDatabasePath), "errors.txt")); } Func<ErrorEntry, bool> writeSelector = (e) => { _sw.WriteLine(getTabDelimititedLine(e)); return true; }; errors.Select(writeSelector); _sw.Flush(); } As you can see, I write a lambda function that just returns true, and I realize that the Select method will return a sequence of booleans- I'll just ignore that sequence. However, this seems a little bit noobish and jank. Is there any elegant way to do this? Or am I just misapplying LINQ? Thanks.

Read the article
Odd DOM Problem with Firefox

- by Bob

Hello. I'm experiencing an odd problem when trying to navigate through a table's rows and cells in a while loop using javascript. I'm using Firefox 3.5.7 on Win7 with Firebug enabled. I have this markup: <table> <tbody> <tr id='firstRow'><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> <tr><td>a</td><td>b</td><td>c</td></tr> </tbody> </table> And this javascript: var row = document.getElementById('firstRow'); console.log(row); // Row call 1 while (row) { console.log(row); // Row call 2 row = row.nextSibling; } The problem I'm having is that on the line commented "Row call 1", Firebug is outputting <tr id='firstRow'> as expected. However, in the while loop, Firebug is giving me <tr id='firstRow'> <TextNode textContent="\n"> It is giving me different output for the exact same row, even immediately after the while loop begins executing and nothing else touched the row. For subsequent rows, it of course does not have id='firstRow' as an attribute. The bigger problem this is giving me is that if I'm in the while loop, and I want to access a particular cell of the current row using row.cells[0], Firebug will give me an error that row.cells is undefined. I want to know if someone could shed some light on this situation I am experiencing.

Read the article
Mysql InnoDB performance optimization and indexing

- by Davide C

Hello everybody, I have 2 databases and I need to link information between two big tables (more than 3M entries each, continuously growing). The 1st database has a table 'pages' that stores various information about web pages, and includes the URL of each one. The column 'URL' is a varchar(512) and has no index. The 2nd database has a table 'urlHops' defined as: CREATE TABLE urlHops ( dest varchar(512) NOT NULL, src varchar(512) DEFAULT NULL, timestamp timestamp NOT NULL DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, KEY dest_key (dest), KEY src_key (src) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 Now, I need basically to issue (efficiently) queries like this: select p.id,p.URL from db1.pages p, db2.urlHops u where u.src=p.URL and u.dest=? At first, I thought to add an index on pages(URL). But it's a very long column, and I already issue a lot of INSERTs and UPDATEs on the same table (way more than the number of SELECTs I would do using this index). Other possible solutions I thought are: -adding a column to pages, storing the md5 hash of the URL and indexing it; this way I could do queries using the md5 of the URL, with the advantage of an index on a smaller column. -adding another table that contains only page id and page URL, indexing both columns. But this is maybe a waste of space, having only the advantage of not slowing down the inserts and updates I execute on 'pages'. I don't want to slow down the inserts and updates, but at the same time I would be able to do the queries on the URL efficiently. Any advice? My primary concern is performance; if needed, wasting some disk space is not a problem. Thank you, regards Davide

Read the article
Yahoo BOSS Question

- by Fincha

Hello everyone, I wonna to echo totalresults but somethink is wrong. // Get search results from Yahoo BOSS as an XML* $API = 'http://boss.yahooapis.com/ysearch/web/v1/'; $request = $API . $query .'?format=xml&appid='. APP_ID.'&start='.$start."0"; $ch = curl_init($request); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); $xml = simplexml_load_string(curl_exec($ch)); echo $xml->resultset_web->totalhits; // Display search results - Title, Date and URL. foreach ($xml->resultset_web->result as $result) { $ausgabe .= '<a href="'.$result->clickurl.'">'.$result->title.'</a><br />'; $ausgabe .= $result->abstract."<br>"; $ausgabe .= '<a href="'.$result->clickurl.'">'.$result->url."</a> - ".round(($result->size/1024), 2)." Kb<br><br>"; } Can someone help me

Read the article
How should I avoid memoization causing bugs in Ruby?

- by Andrew Grimm

Is there a consensus on how to avoid memoization causing bugs due to mutable state? In this example, a cached result had its state mutated, and therefore gave the wrong result the second time it was called. class Greeter def initialize @greeting_cache = {} end def expensive_greeting_calculation(formality) case formality when :casual then "Hi" when :formal then "Hello" end end def greeting(formality) unless @greeting_cache.has_key?(formality) @greeting_cache[formality] = expensive_greeting_calculation(formality) end @greeting_cache[formality] end end def memoization_mutator greeter = Greeter.new first_person = "Bob" # Mildly contrived in this case, # but you could encounter this in more complex scenarios puts(greeter.greeting(:casual) << " " << first_person) # => Hi Bob second_person = "Sue" puts(greeter.greeting(:casual) << " " << second_person) # => Hi Bob Sue end memoization_mutator Approaches I can see to avoid this are: greeting could return a dup or clone of @greeting_cache[formality] greeting could freeze the result of @greeting_cache[formality]. That'd cause an exception to be raised when memoization_mutator appends strings to it. Check all code that uses the result of greeting to ensure none of it does any mutating of the string. Is there a consensus on the best approach? Is the only disadvantage of doing (1) or (2) decreased performance? (I also suspect freezing an object may not work fully if it has references to other objects) Side note: this problem doesn't affect the main application of memoization: as Fixnums are immutable, calculating Fibonacci sequences doesn't have problems with mutable state. :)

Read the article
Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

- by evanmortland

Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

Read the article
Spring - Transaction Readonly

- by AAK

Hello Gurus! Just wanted your expert opinions on declarative transaction management for Spring. Here is my setup - A. DAO Layer is Plain old JDBC using jdbcTemplete (No hibernate etc) B. Service Layer is POJO with declarative trasnactions as follows - save*, readonly=false, rollback for Throwable Things work fine with above setup. However when I say get*, readonly=true I see errors in my log file saying - Database connection cannot be marked as readonly. This happens for all get* methods in Service Layer. Now my questions - A. Do I have to say get* as readonly? All my get* methods are pure read DB operations. I do not wish to run them in any transaction context. How serious is the above error? B. When I remove the get* confiiguration, I do not see the errors, morever all my simple get* operations are performed without transactions. Is this the way to go? C. Why would anyone want to have transactional methods where readonly = true? Is there any practical significance of this configuration? Thank you! As always your resposes are much appreciated!

Read the article

< Previous Page | 679 680 681 682 683 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 | Next Page >