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  • How do you unit test a unit test?

    - by FlySwat
    I was watching Rob Connerys webcasts on the MVCStoreFront App, and I noticed he was unit testing even the most mundane things, things like: public Decimal DiscountPrice { get { return this.Price - this.Discount; } } Would have a test like: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,80); } While, I am all for unit testing, I sometimes wonder if this form of test first development is really beneficial, for example, in a real process, you have 3-4 layers above your code (Business Request, Requirements Document, Architecture Document), where the actual defined business rule (Discount Price is Price - Discount) could be misdefined. If that's the situation, your unit test means nothing to you. Additionally, your unit test is another point of failure: [TestMethod] public void Test_DiscountPrice { Product p = new Product(); p.Price = 100; p.Discount = 20; Assert.IsEqual(p.DiscountPrice,90); } Now the test is flawed. Obviously in a simple test, it's no big deal, but say we were testing a complicated business rule. What do we gain here? Fast forward two years into the application's life, when maintenance developers are maintaining it. Now the business changes its rule, and the test breaks again, some rookie developer then fixes the test incorrectly...we now have another point of failure. All I see is more possible points of failure, with no real beneficial return, if the discount price is wrong, the test team will still find the issue, how did unit testing save any work? What am I missing here? Please teach me to love TDD, as I'm having a hard time accepting it as useful so far. I want too, because I want to stay progressive, but it just doesn't make sense to me. EDIT: A couple people keep mentioned that testing helps enforce the spec. It has been my experience that the spec has been wrong as well, more often than not, but maybe I'm doomed to work in an organization where the specs are written by people who shouldn't be writing specs.

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  • Using OpenID as the only authentication method

    - by iconiK
    I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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  • DoubleAnimation in ScaleTransform

    - by Adam S
    I'm trying, as an exhibition, to use a DoubleAnimation on the ScaleX and ScaleY properties of a ScaleTransform. I have a rectangle (144x144) which I want to make rectangular over five seconds. My XAML: <Window x:Class="ScaleTransformTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <Rectangle Name="rect1" Width="144" Height="144" Fill="Aqua"> <Rectangle.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="1" /> </Rectangle.RenderTransform> </Rectangle> </Grid> </Window> My C#: private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ScaleTransform scaly = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); rect1.RenderTransform = scaly; Duration mytime = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5)); Storyboard sb = new Storyboard(); DoubleAnimation danim1 = new DoubleAnimation(1, 1.5, mytime); DoubleAnimation danim2 = new DoubleAnimation(1, 0.5, mytime); sb.Children.Add(danim1); sb.Children.Add(danim2); Storyboard.SetTarget(danim1, scaly); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(danim1, new PropertyPath(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty)); Storyboard.SetTarget(danim2, scaly); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(danim2, new PropertyPath(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty)); sb.Begin(); } Unfortunately, when I run this program, it does nothing. The rectangle stays at 144x144. If I do away with the animation, and just ScaleTransform scaly = new ScaleTransform(1.5, 0.5); rect1.RenderTransform = scaly; it will elongate it instantly, no problem. There is a problem elsewhere. Any suggestions? I have read the discussion at http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/29220878/how-to-animate-tofrom-an.aspx in which someone seems to have gotten a pure-XAML version working, but the code is not shown there. EDIT: At http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2131797/applying-animated-scaletransform-in-code-problem it seems someone had a very similar problem, I am fine with using his method that worked, but what the heck is that string thePath = "(0).(1)[0].(2)"; all about? What are those numbers representing?

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  • Adding simple marker clusterer to google map

    - by take2
    Hi, I'm having problems with adding marker clusterer functionality to my map. What I want is to use custom icon for my markers and every marker has its own info window which I want to be able to edit. I did accomplish that, but now I have problems adding marker clusterer library functionality. I read something about adding markers to array, but I'm not sure what would it exactly mean. Besides, all of the examples with array I have found, don't have info windows and searching through the code I didn't find appropriate way to add them. Here is my code (mostly from Geocodezip.com): <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://google-maps-utility-library-v3.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/markerclusterer/src/markerclusterer.js"></script> <style type="text/css"> html, body { height: 100%; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ var map = null; function initialize() { var myOptions = { zoom: 8, center: new google.maps.LatLng(43.907787,-79.359741), mapTypeControl: true, mapTypeControlOptions: {style: google.maps.MapTypeControlStyle.DROPDOWN_MENU}, navigationControl: true, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); var mcOptions = {gridSize: 50, maxZoom: 15}; var mc = new MarkerClusterer(map, [], mcOptions); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function() { infowindow.close(); }); // Add markers to the map // Set up three markers with info windows var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.65654,-79.90138); var marker1 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.91892,-78.89231); var marker2 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var point = new google.maps.LatLng(43.82589,-79.10040); var marker3 = createMarker(point,'Abc'); var markerArray = new Array(marker1, marker2, marker3); mc.addMarkers(markerArray, true); } var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow( { size: new google.maps.Size(150,50) }); function createMarker(latlng, html) { var image = '/321.png'; var contentString = html; var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: latlng, map: map, icon: image, zIndex: Math.round(latlng.lat()*-100000)<<5 }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.setContent(contentString); infowindow.open(map,marker); }); } //]]> </script>

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 Custom Membership Provider - The membership provider name specified is invalid.

    - by David Lively
    I'm implementing a custom membership provider, and everything seems to go swimmingly until I create a MembershipUser object. At that point, I receive the error: The membership provider name specified is invalid. Parameter name: providerName In web.config the membership key is <membership defaultProvider="MembersProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="MembersProvider" type="Members.Providers.MembersProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="false" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="6" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" passwordAttemptWindow="10" applicationName="DeviceDatabase" /> </providers> </membership> When creating the MembershipUser object from my custom User class: public static MembershipUser ToMembershipUser(User user) { MembershipUser member = new MembershipUser ("MembersProvider" , user.Name , user.Id , user.EmailAddress , user.PasswordQuestion , user.Comment , user.IsApproved , user.IsLockedOut , user.DateCreated , user.LastLoginDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastActivityDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastPasswordChangedDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastLockoutDate ?? DateTime.MinValue ); return member; } (I realize I could probably just inherit my User class from MembershipUser, but it's already part of an existing class hierarchy. I honestly think this is the first time I've encountered a legitimate need for for multiple inheritance!) My feeling is that the new MembershipUser(...) providerName parameter is supposed to match what's set in web.config, but, since they match already, I'm at a loss as to how to proceed. Is there a convenient way to get the name of the active membership provider in code? I'm starting to think that using the built-in membership system is overkill and more trouble than it's worth. Edit Not sure if it's relevant, but the custom membership provider class is in a class library, not the main WAP project. Update Here's the contents of the System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider object as show in the VS2010 command window: >eval System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} [Members.Providers.MembersProvider]: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} base {System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderBase}: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} ApplicationName: null EnablePasswordReset: true EnablePasswordRetrieval: false MaxInvalidPasswordAttempts: 5 MinRequiredNonAlphanumericCharacters: 0 MinRequiredPasswordLength: 6 PasswordAttemptWindow: 10 PasswordFormat: Function evaluation was aborted. PasswordStrengthRegularExpression: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresQuestionAndAnswer: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresUniqueEmail: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away .

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  • Best practices for developing simple ASP.NET sites (built in controls or JQuery + scripts)

    - by Nix
    I was recently reviewing some code written by two different contractors, both were basic ASP.NET management sites. The sites allowed the user to view and edit data. Pretty much simple CRUD gateways. One group did their best to use built in ASP + AJAX Toolkit controls and did their best to use as many built in controls as possible. I found the code much easier to read and maintain. The other used jQuery and the code is heavily marked up with script blocks which are then used to build pages from javascript files. Which one is more common? The one that basically leveraged embedded HTML markup in scripts controled by javascript files screams readability and maintenance issues? Is this just the way of doing asp dev with jQuery? Assuming the second example happens a lot, are there tools that help facilitate jQuery development with visual studio? Do you think they generated the html somewhere else and just copied it in? Example Script block: <script id="HRPanel" type="text/html"> <table cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0' class="atable"><thead class="mHeader"><tr><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Other</th></thead><tbody> <# for(var i=0; i < hrRows.length; i++) { var r = HRRows[i]; #> <tr><td><#=r.Name#></td><td><#=r.Description#></td><td class="taRight"><#=r.Other#></td></tr> <#}#> </tbody><tfoot><th></th><th></th><th></th></tfoot></table> </script> Then in a separate location (js file) you would see something like this. $("#HRPanel").html($("#HRPanel").parseTemplate({ HRRows: response.something.bah.bah }));

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  • Miller-rabin exception number?

    - by nightcracker
    Hey everyone. This question is about the number 169716931325235658326303. According to http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM it is prime. According to my miller-rabin implementation in python with 7 repetitions is is composite. With 50 repetitions it is still composite. With 5000 repetitions it is STILL composite. I thought, this might be a problem of my implementation. So I tried GNU MP bignum library, which has a miller-rabin primality test built-in. I tested with 1000000 repetitions. Still composite. This is my implementation of the miller-rabin primality test: def isprime(n, precision=7): if n == 1 or n % 2 == 0: return False elif n < 1: raise ValueError("Out of bounds, first argument must be > 0") d = n - 1 s = 0 while d % 2 == 0: d //= 2 s += 1 for repeat in range(precision): a = random.randrange(2, n - 2) x = pow(a, d, n) if x == 1 or x == n - 1: continue for r in range(s - 1): x = pow(x, 2, n) if x == 1: return False if x == n - 1: break else: return False return True And the code for the GMP test: #include <gmp.h> #include <stdio.h> int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { mpz_t test; mpz_init_set_str(test, "169716931325235658326303", 10); printf("%d\n", mpz_probab_prime_p(test, 1000000)); mpz_clear(test); return 0; } As far as I know there are no "exceptions" (which return false positives for any amount of repetitions) to the miller-rabin primality test. Have I stumpled upon one? Is my computer broken? Is the Elliptic Curve Method wrong? What is happening here? EDIT I found the issue, which is http://www.alpertron.com.ar/ECM.HTM. I trusted this applet, I'll contact the author his applet's implementation of the ECM is faulty for this number. Thanks. EDIT2 Hah, the shame! In the end it was something that went wrong with copy/pasting on my side. NOR the applet NOR the miller-rabin algorithm NOR my implementation NOR gmp's implementation of it is wrong, the only thing that's wrong is me. I'm sorry.

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  • Use a subdirectory as root with htaccess in Apache 1.3

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to deploy a site generated with Jekyll and would like to keep the site in its own subfolder on my server to keep everything more organized. Essentially, I'd like to use the contents of /jekyll as the root unless a file similarly named exists in the actual web root. So something like /jekyll/sample-page/ would show as http://www.example.com/sample-page/, while something like /other-folder/ would display as http://www.example.com/other-folder. My test server runs Apache 2.2 and the following .htaccess (adapted from http://gist.github.com/97822) works flawlessly: RewriteEngine On # Map http://www.example.com to /jekyll. RewriteRule ^$ /jekyll/ [L] # Map http://www.example.com/x to /jekyll/x unless there is a x in the web root. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/jekyll/ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /jekyll/$1 # Add trailing slash to directories without them so DirectoryIndex works. # This does not expose the internal URL. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ # Disable auto-adding slashes to directories without them, since this happens # after mod_rewrite and exposes the rewritten internal URL, e.g. turning # http://www.example.com/about into http://www.example.com/jekyll/about. DirectorySlash off However, my production server runs Apache 1.3, which doesn't allow DirectorySlash. If I disable it, the server gives a 500 error because of internal redirect overload. If I comment out the last section of ReWriteConds and rules: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !/$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1/ …everything mostly works: http://www.example.com/sample-page/ displays the correct content. However, if I omit the trailing slash, the URL in the address bar exposes the real internal URL structure: http://www.example.com/jekyll/sample-page/ What is the best way to account for directory slashes in Apache 1.3, where useful tools like DirectorySlash don't exist? How can I use the /jekyll/ directory as the site root without revealing the actual URL structure? Edit: After a ton of research into Apache 1.3, I've found that this problem is essentially a combination of two different issues listed at the Apache 1.3 URL Rewriting Guide. I have a (partially) moved DocumentRoot, which in theory would be taken care of with something like this: RewriteRule ^/$ /e/www/ [R] I also have the infamous "Trailing Slash Problem," which is solved by setting the RewriteBase (as was suggested in one of the responses below): RewriteBase /~quux/ RewriteRule ^foo$ foo/ [R] The problem is combining the two. Moving the document root doesn't (can't?) use RewriteBase—fixing trailing slashes requires(?) it… Hmm…

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  • Dropdown OnSelectedIndexChanged not firing

    - by Jim
    The OnSelectedIndexChanged event is not firing for my dropdown box. All forums I have looked at told me to add the AutoPostBack="true", but that didn't change the results. HTML: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Current Time: " /> <br /> <asp:Label ID="lblCurrent" runat="server" Text="Label" /><br /><br /> <asp:DropDownList ID="cboSelectedLocation" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="cboSelectedLocation_SelectedIndexChanged" /><br /><br /> <asp:Label ID="lblSelectedTime" runat="server" Text="Label" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind: public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { string _sLocation = string.Empty; string _sCurrentLoc = string.Empty; TimeSpan _tsSelectedTime; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { AddTimeZones(); cboSelectedLocation.Focus(); lblCurrent.Text = "Currently in " + _sCurrentLoc + Environment.NewLine + DateTime.Now; lblSelectedTime.Text = _sLocation + ":" + Environment.NewLine + DateTime.UtcNow.Add(_tsSelectedTime); } //adds all timezone displaynames to combobox //defaults combo location to seoul, South Korea //defaults current location to current location private void AddTimeZones() { foreach(TimeZoneInfo tz in System.TimeZoneInfo.GetSystemTimeZones()) { string s = tz.DisplayName; cboSelectedLocation.Items.Add(s); if (tz.StandardName == "Korea Standard Time") cboSelectedLocation.Text = s; if (tz.StandardName == System.TimeZone.CurrentTimeZone.StandardName) _sCurrentLoc = tz.StandardName; } } //changes timezone name and time depending on what is selected in the cbobox. protected void cboSelectedLocation_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (TimeZoneInfo tz in System.TimeZoneInfo.GetSystemTimeZones()) { if (cboSelectedLocation.Text == tz.DisplayName) { _sLocation = tz.StandardName; _tsSelectedTime = tz.GetUtcOffset(DateTime.UtcNow); } } } } Any advice into what to look at for a rookie asp coder? EDIT: added more code behind

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  • Determine the 'Overtype' mode using Javascript

    - by Snorkpete
    We are creating a web app to replace an old-school green-screen application. In the green-screen app, as the user presses the Insert key to switch between overtype and insert modes, the cursor changes to indicate which input mode the user is currently in. In IE (which is the official browser of the company), overtype mode also works, but there's no visual indication as to whether overtype mode is on or not, until the user starts typing and possibly over-writes existing information unexpectedly. I'd like to put some sort of visual indicator on the screen if in overtype mode. How can you determine if the browser is in 'overtype mode' from Javascript? Is there some property or function i can query to determine if the browser is in overtype mode? Even an IE-specific solution would be helpful, since our corporate policy dictates the browser to use as IE7 (pure torture, btw). (I do know that one solution is to do check for key presses of the Insert key. However, it's a solution that I'd prefer to avoid since that method seems a bit flaky & error-prone because I can't guarantee what mode the user would be in BEFORE he/she hits my page. ) The reasoning behind this question: The functionality of this portion of the green-screen app is such that the user can select from a list of 'preformatted bodies of text'. crude eg. The excess for this policy is: $xxxxxx and max limit is:$xxxxxx Date of policy is: xx/xx/xxxx and expires : xx/xx/xxxx Some other irrelevant text After selecting this 'preformatted text', the user would then use overtype to replace the x's with actual values, without disturbing the alignment of the rest of the text. (To be clear, they can still edit any part of the 'preformatted text' if they so wished. It's just that usually, they just wish to replace specific portions of the text. Keeping the alignment is important since these sections of text can end up on printed documents.) Of course, the same effect can be achieved by just selecting the x's to replace first, but it would be helpful (with respect to easing the transition to the web app) to allow old methods of doing things to continue to work, while still allowing 'web methods' to be used by the more tech-savvy users. Essentially, we're trying to make the initial transition from the green-screen app to the web app be as seemless as possible to minimise the resistance from the long-time green-screeners.

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  • Which StackOverflow-style MarkDown (WMD) javascript editor should I use?

    - by Edan Maor
    Background I'm working on an application which requires user-entered content, and I've decided to use a StackOverflow-style MarkDown editor. After researching this topic for the last few days, I realize there are numerous forks of the base WMD editor, some with a few basic enhancements and some with serious differences from the StackOverflow one. Since this will be the heart of the application, I'd like to start with the best code base I can. I'd be happy if anyone can recommend which one of the many solutions out there best fits my needs. Below is requirements, plus what I've managed to find already. I'm hoping this question will help me decide which version to go with, and maybe help me discover a port out there that's an even better fit for my needs. The requirements for my project Live Preview Multiple editors on the same page (not know how many in advance, since the user can dynamically add another editing box). Ability to extend with extra buttons (I'd like a button to upload a picture, instead of just adding an img url). Ability to dynamically show/hide the edit box (and only see the preview box). Not an absolute must, but I'd prefer to stick as close to StackOverflow's look and feel, since it's well known. Don't know if this matters, but the backend is written in Django. Editors I've looked at Here are a few of the code bases I've looked at, with thoughts. Obviously, I might be missing another solution out there. The derobins version. From what I can tell, this is the official StackOverflow version. Seems like it doesn't support multiple editors on one page. JQuery.MarkEdit. Looks very good, but is pretty different from the StackOverflow version. MooWMD. Looks like the winner right now, but I'm a little concerned since it looks less active/hackable than MarkEdit. The wmd-new version. Not sure, looks like an old codebase without much use. The SocialSite branch. Seems like it's not for public use.

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  • NSZombieEnabled breaking working code?

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I have the following method in UIImageManipulation.m: +(UIImage *)scaleImage:(UIImage *)source toSize:(CGSize)size { UIImage *scaledImage = nil; if (source != nil) { UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(size); [source drawInRect:CGRectMake(0, 0, size.width, size.height)]; scaledImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); } return scaledImage; } I am calling it in a different view with: imageFromFile = [UIImageManipulator scaleImage:imageFromFile toSize:imageView.frame.size]; (imageView is a UIImageView allocated earlier) This is working great in my code. I resizes the image perfectly, and throws zero errors. I also don't have anything pop up under build - analyze. But the second I turn on NSZombieEnabled to debug a different EXC_BAD_ACCESS issue, the code breaks. Every single time. I can turn NSZombieEnabled off, code runs great. I turn it on, and boom. Broken. I comment out the call, and it works again. Every single time, it gives me an error in the console: -[UIImage release]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b1d600. This error doesn't appear if `NSZombieEnabled is turned off. Any ideas? --EDIT-- Ok, This is killing me. I have stuck breakpoints everywhere I can, and I still cannot get a hold of this thing. Here is the full code when I call the scaleImage method: -(void)setupImageButton { UIImage *imageFromFile; if (object.imageAttribute == nil) { imageFromFile = [UIImage imageNamed:@"no-image.png"]; } else { imageFromFile = object.imageAttribute; } UIImage *scaledImage = [UIImageManipulator scaleImage:imageFromFile toSize:imageButton.frame.size]; UIImage *roundedImage = [UIImageManipulator makeRoundCornerImage:scaledImage :10 :10 withBorder:YES]; [imageButton setBackgroundImage:roundedImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } The other UIImageManipulator method (makeRoundCornerImage) shouldn't be causing the error, but just in case I'm overlooking something, I threw the entire file up on github here. It's something about this method though. Has to be. If I comment it out, it works great. If I leave it in, Error. But it doesn't throw errors with NSZombieEnabled turned off ever.

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  • UpdateProgress with UpdatePanel not showing up in User control when page is loading

    - by Carter
    Is this typical behavior of the UpdateProgress for an ASP.Net UpdatePanel? I have an update panel with the UpdateProgress control inside of a user control window on a page. If I then make the page in the background do some loading and click a button in the user control update panel the UpdateProgress does not show up at all. It's like the UpdatePanels refresh request is not even registered until after the actual page is done doing it's business. It's worth noting that it will show up if nothing is happening in the background. The functionality I want is what you would expect. I want to loader to show up if it has to wait for anything to get it's refresh done when after the button is clicked. I know I can get this functionality if I just use jquery ajax with a static web method, but you can't have static web methods inside of a user control. I could have it in the page but it really doesn't belong there. A full-blown wcf wouldn't really be worth it in this case either. I'm trying to compromise with an UpdatePanel but these things always seem to cause me some kind of trouble. Maybe this is just the way it works? Edit:So I'll clarify a bit what I'm doing. What's happening is I have a page and all it has on it are some tools on the side and a big map. When the page initially loads it takes some time to load the map. Now if while it's loading I open up the tool (a user control) that has the update panel in question in it and click the button on this user control that should refresh the update panel with new data and show the loading sign (in the updateprogress) then the UpdateProgress loading image does not show up. However, the code run by the button click does run after the page is done loading (as expected) and The UpdateProgress will show up if nothing on the page containing the user control is loading. I just want the loader to show up while the page is loading. I thought my problem was that perhaps the map loading is in an update panel and my UpdateProgress was only being associated with the update panel for the user control's update panel. Hence, I would get no loading icon when the map was loading. This is not the case though.

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  • T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

    - by Greg Potter
    I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

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  • EJB client can't find a DataSource that tests successfully in WebLogic admin console

    - by suszterpatt
    Disclaimer: I'm completely new to JEE/EJB and all that, so bear with me. I have a simple EJB that I can successfully deploy using JDeveloper 11g's integrated WebLogic server and a remote database connection (JDBC). I have a DataSource named "PGY2" defined in WebLogic, and I can test it successfully from the admin console. Here's the code of the client I'm trying to test it with (generated entirely by JDev except for the three method calls on adminManager): public class AdminManagerClient { public static void main(String [] args) { try { final Context context = getInitialContext(); AdminManager adminManager = (AdminManager)context.lookup("Uran-AdminManager#hu.elte.pgy2.BACNAAI.UranEJB.AdminManager"); adminManager.addAdmin("root", "root", "Kovács Isten"); adminManager.addStudent("BACNAAI", "matt", "B Cs", 2005); adminManager.addTeacher("SIPKABT", "patt", "S P", "numanal", "Dr."); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } private static Context getInitialContext() throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); // WebLogic Server 10.x connection details env.put( Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY, "weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory" ); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL, "t3://127.0.0.1:7101"); return new InitialContext( env ); } } But when I try to run this, I get the following error on the line with adminManager.addAdmin (that is, after the lookup): javax.ejb.EJBException: EJB Exception: ; nested exception is: Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 1.0.2 (Build 20081024)): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: java.sql.SQLException: Internal error: Cannot obtain XAConnection Creation of XAConnection for pool PGY2 failed after waitSecs:30 : java.sql.SQLException: Data Source PGY2 does not exist. Why can't the client find the data source, and how do I make it find it? EDIT: I took a closer look at WebLogic's output during deployment, and I found this. I have no idea what it means, but it may be relevant: <2010.05.20. 0:50:43 CEST> <Error> <Deployer> <BEA-149231> <Unable to set the activation state to true for the application 'PGY2'. weblogic.application.ModuleException: at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:349) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow$2.next(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:411) at weblogic.application.utils.StateMachineDriver.nextState(StateMachineDriver.java:37) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.DeploymentCallbackFlow.activate(DeploymentCallbackFlow.java:74) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace weblogic.common.ResourceException: is already bound at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.RmiDataSource.start(RmiDataSource.java:387) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:136) at weblogic.jdbc.common.internal.DataSourceManager.createAndStartDataSource(DataSourceManager.java:97) at weblogic.jdbc.module.JDBCModule.activate(JDBCModule.java:346) at weblogic.application.internal.flow.ModuleListenerInvoker.activate(ModuleListenerInvoker.java:107) Truncated. see log file for complete stacktrace >

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  • WPF binding not updating until after another action

    - by Matthew Stanford
    I have an observable collection bound to a listbox in WPF. One of the options in the window is to use an OpenFileDialog to add an item to the listbox with certain properties. When I use the OpenFileDialog it immeditaely sets two of the properties of the new item in the observable collection. I am using INotifyPropertyChanged to update the listbox. These two new properties are set correctly and now the listbox should display the title contained in the new title property and the title textbox which is bound to the listbox should display the new title as well. However, neither displays the new title upon the closing of the OpenFileDialog and when I click on another item in the listbox and come back to the item I have just changed it updates the title textbox but the title displayed in the list box is not changed until i move the item in the list box that I want to change. Here is the Binding code. ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyData, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" And here is the implementation of the browse button that is not working (L1 being the listbox) private void browse_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { OpenFileDialog opf = new OpenFileDialog(); opf.ShowDialog(); MyData[L1.SelectedIndex].Title = System.IO.Path.GetFileNameWithoutExtension(opf.FileName); MyData[L1.SelectedIndex].Command = opf.FileName; } When I simply type in the text boxes and click out of them it updates the list box immediately with the new information I have put in. I also have a create new button and upon clicking it, it immediately adds a new item to the list box and updates its' properties. The only one that is not updating correctly is this peice of code I have given you. Thanks for your help. EDIT: Here is my implementation of INotifyPropertyChanged private OCLB _MyData; public OCLB MyData { get { return _MyData; } set { _MyData= value; FirePropertyNotifyChanged("MyData"); } } OCLB is the obserable collection. Here is the function FirePropertyNotifyChanged public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void FirePropertyNotifyChanged(string propertyName) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } Each of these are in the partial class MainWindow for the wpf form. I also have a class for the MyData files (with 4 get/set functions) that are stored in the OCLB(observable collection). There is also a class with functions for the OCLB.

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  • List all possible combinations of k integers between 1...n (n choose k)

    - by Asaf R
    Hi, Out of no particular reason I decided to look for an algorithm that produces all possible choices of k integers between 1...n, where the order amongst the k integer doesn't matter (the n choose k thingy). From the exact same reason, which is no reason at all, I also implemented it in C#. My question is: Do you see any mistake in my algorithm or code? And, more importantly, can you suggest a better algorithm? Please pay more attention to the algorithm than the code itself. It's not the prettiest code I've ever written, although do tell if you see an error. EDIT: Alogirthm explained - We hold k indices. This creates k nested for loops, where loop i's index is indices[i]. It simulates k for loops where indices[i+1] belongs to a loop nested within the loop of indices[i]. indices[i] runs from indices[i - 1] + 1 to n - k + i + 1. CODE: public class AllPossibleCombination { int n, k; int[] indices; List<int[]> combinations = null; public AllPossibleCombination(int n_, int k_) { if (n_ <= 0) { throw new ArgumentException("n_ must be in N+"); } if (k_ <= 0) { throw new ArgumentException("k_ must be in N+"); } if (k_ > n_) { throw new ArgumentException("k_ can be at most n_"); } n = n_; k = k_; indices = new int[k]; indices[0] = 1; } /// <summary> /// Returns all possible k combination of 0..n-1 /// </summary> /// <returns></returns> public List<int[]> GetCombinations() { if (combinations == null) { combinations = new List<int[]>(); Iterate(0); } return combinations; } private void Iterate(int ii) { // // Initialize // if (ii > 0) { indices[ii] = indices[ii - 1] + 1; } for (; indices[ii] <= (n - k + ii + 1); indices[ii]++) { if (ii < k - 1) { Iterate(ii + 1); } else { int[] combination = new int[k]; indices.CopyTo(combination, 0); combinations.Add(combination); } } } } I apologize for the long question, it might be fit for a blog post, but I do want the community's opinion here. Thanks, Asaf

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  • Looking for efficient scaling patterns for Silverlight application with distributed text-file data s

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I'm designing a Silverlight software solution for students and teachers to record flashcards, e.g. words and phrases that students find while reading and errors that teachers notice while teaching. Requirements are: each person publishes his own flashcards in a file on a web server, e.g. http://:www.mywebserver.com/flashcards.txt other people subscribe to that person's flashcards by using a Silverlight flashcard reader that I have developed and entering the URLs of flashcard files they want to subscribe to, URLs and imported flashcards being saved in IsolatedStorage the flashcards.txt file has the following simple format: title, then blocks of question/answers: Jim Smith's flashcards from English class 53-222, winter semester 2009 ==fla Das kann nicht sein. That can't be. ==fla Es sei denn, er kommt nicht. Unless he doesn't come. The user then makes public the URL to his flashcard file and other readers begin reading in his flashcards. In order to lower the bar for non-technical users to contribute, it will even be possible for them to save this text in a Google Document, which they publish and distribute the URL. The flashcard readers will then recognize it is a google document and perform the necessary screen scraping to get at the raw text. I have two technical questions about this approach: What is a best way to plan now for scalability issues: e.g. if your reader is subscribed to 10 flashcard files that are each 200K, it will have to download 2MB of text just to find out if any new flashcards are available. Or can I somehow accurately and consistently get at the last update date/time of text files on servers and published google docs? Each reader will have the ability to allow the person to test himself on imported flashcards and add meta information to them, e.g. categorize them, edit them, etc. This information will be stored in IsolatedStorage along with the important flashcards themselves. What is a good pattern to allow these readers to share and synchronize this meta data, e.g. so when you are looking at a flashcard you can see that 5 other people have made corrections to it. The best solution I can think of now is that the Silverlight readers will have to republish their data to a central database, but then there is the problem of uniquely identifying each flashcard, the best approach seems to be URL + position-in-file, or even better URL + original text of both question and answer fields, but both of these have their obvious drawbacks. The main requirement is that the bar for participation is kept as low as possible, i.e. type text in a google document, publish it, distribute the URL, and you're publishing within the flashcard community. So I want to come up with the most efficient technical solutions in order to compensate for the lack of database, lack of unique ids, etc. For those who have designed or developed similar non-traditional, distributed database projects like this, what advice, experience or best-practice tips you can share on the above two points?

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  • Advice on logic circuits and serial communications

    - by Spencer Ruport
    As far as I understand the serial port so far, transferring data is done over pin 3. As shown here: There are two things that make me uncomfortable about this. The first is that it seems to imply that the two connected devices agree on a signal speed and the second is that even if they are configured to run at the same speed you run into possible synchronization issues... right? Such things can be handled I suppose but it seems like there must be a simpler method. What seems like a better approach to me would be to have one of the serial port pins send a pulse that indicates that the next bit is ready to be stored. So if we're hooking these pins up to a shift register we basically have: (some pulse pin)-clk, tx-d Is this a common practice? Is there some reason not to do this? EDIT Mike shouldn't have deleted his answer. This I2C (2 pin serial) approach seems fairly close to what I did. The serial port doesn't have a clock you're right nobugz but that's basically what I've done. See here: private void SendBytes(byte[] data) { int baudRate = 0; int byteToSend = 0; int bitToSend = 0; byte bitmask = 0; byte[] trigger = new byte[1]; trigger[0] = 0; SerialPort p; try { p = new SerialPort(cmbPorts.Text); } catch { return; } if (!int.TryParse(txtBaudRate.Text, out baudRate)) return; if (baudRate < 100) return; p.BaudRate = baudRate; for (int index = 0; index < data.Length * 8; index++) { byteToSend = (int)(index / 8); bitToSend = index - (byteToSend * 8); bitmask = (byte)System.Math.Pow(2, bitToSend); p.Open(); p.Parity = Parity.Space; p.RtsEnable = (byte)(data[byteToSend] & bitmask) > 0; s = p.BaseStream; s.WriteByte(trigger[0]); p.Close(); } } Before anyone tells me how ugly this is or how I'm destroying my transfer speeds my quick answer is I don't care about that. My point is this seems much much simpler than the method you described in your answer nobugz. And it wouldn't be as ugly if the .Net SerialPort class gave me more control over the pin signals. Are there other serial port APIs that do?

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  • WinForms Form won't close on pressing X or Close() in C#

    - by MadBoy
    I'm having a bit weird problem with WinForm which seems to refuse to close for some weird reason. I've got very simple gui which sometimes doesn't react for me pressing X or when i use events on buttons it even reaches Close() and does nothing.. private void buttonZapisz_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string plik = textBoxDokumentDoZaladowania.Text; if (File.Exists(plik)) { string extension = Path.GetExtension(plik); string nazwaPliku = Path.GetFileName(plik); SqlMethods.databaseFilePut(plik, comboBoxTypDokumentu.Text, textBoxKomentarz.Text, sKlienciID, sPortfelID, extension, nazwaPliku); Close(); } } There are no events assigned to FormClosed or FormClosing. So how can I find out what's wrong. Sometimes X will work after the GUI is loaded but after i press Button to save some stuff to database it reaches Close() in that button event and it still is visible and does nothing. Can't use X, nor ALT+F4. I can go around GUI and choose other values for ComboBox without problem. I call GUI like this: private void contextMenuDokumentyDodaj_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var lv = (ListView) contextMenuDokumenty.SourceControl; string varPortfelID = Locale.ustalDaneListViewKolumny(listViewNumeryUmow, 0); string varKlienciID = Locale.ustalDaneListViewKolumny(listViewKlienci, 0); if (lv == listViewDokumentyPerKlient) { if (varKlienciID != "") { var dokumenty = new DocumentsGui(varKlienciID); dokumenty.Show(); dokumenty.FormClosed += varDocumentsGuiKlienci_FormClosed; } } else if (lv == listViewDokumentyPerPortfel) { if (varPortfelID != "" && varKlienciID != "") { var dokumenty = new DocumentsGui(varKlienciID, varPortfelID); dokumenty.Show(); dokumenty.FormClosed += varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed; } } } While I can't close GUI i can work on the main gui without problem too. I can open up same GUI and after opening new GUI i can quickly close it. GUI is very simple with few ComboBoxes,TextBoxes and one EditButton from Devexpress. Edit: varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed code allows me to refresh GUI (reload ListView's depending on where the user is on now). private void varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed(object sender, FormClosedEventArgs e) { TabControl varTabControl = tabControlKlientPortfele; if (varTabControl.TabPages.IndexOf(tabPageDokumentyPerKlient) == varTabControl.SelectedIndex) { loadTabControlKlientPortfeleBezZmianyUmowy(); } }

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  • CKEDITOR - Is there anyway to prevent formatting code in SOURCE mode?

    - by Lev
    I've spent the good portion of my day trying to figure this out, and I figured I'd finally just give in and ask. How can you prevent ANY automatic formatting when in SOURCE mode? I like to edit HTML source code directly instead of using the WYSIWYG interface, but whenever I write new lines, or layout tags how I would indent them, it all gets formatted when I switch to WYSIWYG mode and then back to SOURCE mode again. I stumbled upon this earlier: http://dev.fckeditor.net/ticket/993 That alluded to a setting which may have existed once upon a time which would be exactly what I'm after. I just want to know how I can completely turn off all automatic formatting when editing in SOURCE mode. After browsing this site for hours on end and finding absolutely nothing on here or on Google, I came up with a solution I thought would be foolproof (albeit not a pleasant one). I learned about the "protectedSource" setting, so I thought, well maybe I can just use that and create an HTML comment tag before all my HTML and another after it and then push a regular expression finding the comment tags into the protectedSource array, but even that (believe it or not) doesn't work. I've tried my expression straight up in the browser outside of CKEDITOR and it is working, but CKEDITOR doesn't protect the code as expected (which I suspect is a bug involving comment tags, since I can get it to work with other strings). In case you are wondering, this is what I had hoped would work as a work-around, but doesn't: config.protectedSource.push( /<!-- src -->[\s\S]*<!-- end src-->/gi ); .. and what I planned on doing (for what appears to be the lack of a setting to disable formatting in SOURCE mode) was to nest all my HTML within the commented tags like this: <!-- src --> <div>some code that shouldn't be messed with (but is)</div> <!-- end src --> I'd love to hear if you anyone has any suggestions for this scenario, or knows of a setting which I have described, or even if someone can just fill me in as to why I can't get protectedSource to work properly with two comment tags. I really thing it's gotta be a bug because I can get so many other expressions to work fine, and I can even protect HTML within the area of a single comment tag, but I simply cannot get HTML within two different comment tags to stay untouched. :( I've wasted about 6-7 hours on this so far today so if anyone can shed any light on it I would be very grateful! Thanks for reading! ;)

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  • Synchronized IEnumerator<T>

    - by Dan Bryant
    I'm putting together a custom SynchronizedCollection<T> class so that I can have a synchronized Observable collection for my WPF application. The synchronization is provided via a ReaderWriterLockSlim, which, for the most part, has been easy to apply. The case I'm having trouble with is how to provide thread-safe enumeration of the collection. I've created a custom IEnumerator<T> nested class that looks like this: private class SynchronizedEnumerator : IEnumerator<T> { private SynchronizedCollection<T> _collection; private int _currentIndex; internal SynchronizedEnumerator(SynchronizedCollection<T> collection) { _collection = collection; _collection._lock.EnterReadLock(); _currentIndex = -1; } #region IEnumerator<T> Members public T Current { get; private set;} #endregion #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { var collection = _collection; if (collection != null) collection._lock.ExitReadLock(); _collection = null; } #endregion #region IEnumerator Members object System.Collections.IEnumerator.Current { get { return Current; } } public bool MoveNext() { var collection = _collection; if (collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex++; if (_currentIndex >= collection.Count) { Current = default(T); return false; } Current = collection[_currentIndex]; return true; } public void Reset() { if (_collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex = -1; Current = default(T); } #endregion } My concern, however, is that if the Enumerator is not Disposed, the lock will never be released. In most use cases, this is not a problem, as foreach should properly call Dispose. It could be a problem, however, if a consumer retrieves an explicit Enumerator instance. Is my only option to document the class with a caveat implementer reminding the consumer to call Dispose if using the Enumerator explicitly or is there a way to safely release the lock during finalization? I'm thinking not, since the finalizer doesn't even run on the same thread, but I was curious if there other ways to improve this. EDIT After thinking about this a bit and reading the responses (particular thanks to Hans), I've decided this is definitely a bad idea. The biggest issue actually isn't forgetting to Dispose, but rather a leisurely consumer creating deadlock while enumerating. I now only read-lock long enough to get a copy and return the enumerator for the copy.

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  • Lightbox image / link URL

    - by GSTAR
    Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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  • create text inside a rectangle using inkscape

    - by mr calendar
    I've put some text inside a rectangle using inkscape so the tree is like <svg:rect><svg:text><svg:tspan>text.... The problem is, I can't see the text. I've tried fiddling with the opacity of the rect to no avail. There should be a way of doing this from the UI? Edit example as requested <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <!-- Created with Inkscape (http://www.inkscape.org/) --> <svg xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:cc="http://creativecommons.org/ns#" xmlns:rdf="http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#" xmlns:svg="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:sodipodi="http://sodipodi.sourceforge.net/DTD/sodipodi-0.dtd" xmlns:inkscape="http://www.inkscape.org/namespaces/inkscape" width="184.25197" height="262.20471" id="svg2" sodipodi:version="0.32" inkscape:version="0.46" version="1.0" sodipodi:docname="ex1.svg" inkscape:output_extension="org.inkscape.output.svg.inkscape"> <defs id="defs4"> <inkscape:perspective sodipodi:type="inkscape:persp3d" inkscape:vp_x="0 : 526.18109 : 1" inkscape:vp_y="0 : 1000 : 0" inkscape:vp_z="744.09448 : 526.18109 : 1" inkscape:persp3d-origin="372.04724 : 350.78739 : 1" id="perspective10" /> </defs> <sodipodi:namedview id="base" pagecolor="#ffffff" bordercolor="#666666" borderopacity="1.0" gridtolerance="10000" guidetolerance="10" objecttolerance="10" inkscape:pageopacity="0.0" inkscape:pageshadow="2" inkscape:zoom="0.64" inkscape:cx="195.9221" inkscape:cy="335.3072" inkscape:document-units="px" inkscape:current-layer="layer1" showgrid="false" inkscape:window-width="640" inkscape:window-height="675" inkscape:window-x="44" inkscape:window-y="44" /> <metadata id="metadata7"> <rdf:RDF> <cc:Work rdf:about=""> <dc:format>image/svg+xml</dc:format> <dc:type rdf:resource="http://purl.org/dc/dcmitype/StillImage" /> </cc:Work> </rdf:RDF> </metadata> <g inkscape:label="Layer 1" inkscape:groupmode="layer" id="layer1"> <rect style="opacity:0.25480766;fill:#ff0000;fill-opacity:1;stroke:#000000;stroke-width:12.94795799;stroke-miterlimit:4;stroke-dasharray:none;stroke-opacity:1" id="rect2383" width="150.87796" height="84.226181" x="18.221733" y="39.557121"> <text xml:space="preserve" style="font-size:56.0331955px;font-style:normal;font-weight:normal;fill:#000000;fill-opacity:1;stroke:none;stroke-width:1px;stroke-linecap:butt;stroke-linejoin:miter;stroke-opacity:1;font-family:Bitstream Vera Sans" x="44.815186" y="114.0088" id="text2385" transform="scale(1.0054479,0.9945816)"><tspan sodipodi:role="line" id="tspan2387" x="44.815186" y="114.0088">text</tspan></text> </rect> </g> </svg> I'd expect to be able to see this in inkscape. The workaround is to put text on a layer above the box (the intent is that the box obscures the layers below it) and not try and get clever with nested tags. Shame it doesn't work though.

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  • Flex+JPA/Hibernate+BlazeDS+MySQL how to debug this monster?!

    - by Zenzen
    Ok so I'm making a "simple" web app using the technologies from the topic, recently I found http://www.adobe.com/devnet/flex/articles/flex_hibernate.html so I'm following it and I try to apply it to my app, the only difference being I'm working on a Mac and I'm using MAMP for the database (so no command line for me). The thing is I'm having some trouble with retrieving/connecting to the database. I have the remoting-config.xml, persistance.xml, a News.java class (my Entity), a NewsService.java class, a News.as class - all just like in the tutorial. I have of course this line in one of my .mxmls: <mx:RemoteObject id="loaderService" destination="newsService" result="handleLoadResult(event)" fault="handleFault(event)" showBusyCursor="true" /> And my remoting-config.xml looks like this (well part of it): <destination id="newsService"> <properties><source>com.gamelist.news.NewsService</source></properties> </destination> NewsService has a method: public List<News> getLatestNews() { EntityManagerFactory emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(PERSISTENCE_UNIT); EntityManager em = emf.createEntityManager(); Query findLatestQuery = em.createNamedQuery("news.findLatest"); List<News> news = findLatestQuery.getResultList(); return news; } And the named query is in the News class: @Entity @Table(name="GLT_NEWS") @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name="news.findLatest", query="from GLT_NEWS order by new_date_added limit 5 ") }) The handledLoadResult looks like this: private function handleLoadResult(ev:ResultEvent):void { newsList = ev.result as ArrayCollection; newsRecords = newsList.length; } Where: [Bindable] private var newsList:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); But when I try to trigger: loaderService.getLatestNews(); nothing happens, newsList is empty. Few things I need to point out: 1) as I said I didn't install mysql manually, but I'm using MAMP (yes, the server's running), could this cause some trouble? 2) I already have a "gladm" database and I have a "GLT_NEWS" table with all the fields, is this bad? Basically the question is how am I suppose to debug this thing so I can find the mistake I'm making? I know that loadData() is executed (did a trace()), but I have no idea what happens with loaderService.getLatestNews()... @EDIT: ok so I see I'm getting an error in the "fault handler" which says "Error: Client.Error.MessageSend - Channel.Connect.Failed error NetConnection.Call.Failed: HTTP: Status 404: url: 'http://localhost:8080/WebContent/messagebroker/amf' - "

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