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  • Creating serializeable unique compile-time identifiers for arbitrary UDT's.

    - by Endiannes
    I would like a generic way to create unique compile-time identifiers for any C++ user defined types. for example: unique_id<my_type>::value == 0 // true unique_id<other_type>::value == 1 // true I've managed to implement something like this using preprocessor meta programming, the problem is, serialization is not consistent. For instance if the class template unique_id is instantiated with other_type first, then any serialization in previous revisions of my program will be invalidated. I've searched for solutions to this problem, and found several ways to implement this with non-consistent serialization if the unique values are compile-time constants. If RTTI or similar methods, like boost::sp_typeinfo are used, then the unique values are obviously not compile-time constants and extra overhead is present. An ad-hoc solution to this problem would be, instantiating all of the unique_id's in a separate header in the correct order, but this causes additional maintenance and boilerplate code, which is not different than using an enum unique_id{my_type, other_type};. A good solution to this problem would be using user-defined literals, unfortunately, as far as I know, no compiler supports them at this moment. The syntax would be 'my_type'_id; 'other_type'_id; with udl's. I'm hoping somebody knows a trick that allows implementing serialize-able unique identifiers in C++ with the current standard (C++03/C++0x), I would be happy if it works with the latest stable MSVC and GNU-G++ compilers, although I expect if there is a solution, it's not portable.

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  • EF 4.0 Guid or Int as A primary Key

    - by bigb
    I am Implementing custom ASPNetMembership using EF 4.0 Is there any reason why i should use Guid as a primary key in User tables? As far as i know Int as a PK on SQL Server more performanced than strings. And Int is easier to iterate. Also, for security purpose if i need to pass this it id somewhere in url i may encrypt it somehow and pass it like a strings with no probs. But if i want to use auto generated Guid on SQL Server side using EF 4.0 i need to do this trick http://leedumond.com/blog/using-a-guid-as-an-entitykey-in-entity-framework-4/ I can't see any cases why i should use Guid as PK, may be only one if system going to have millions ans millions users, but also, theoretically, Guid could be duplicated sometime isn't so? Anyway Int32 size is 2,147.483.647 it is pretty much even for very-very big system, but if this number is still not enough I may go with Int64, in that cases I may have 9,223.372.036.854.775.807 rows. Pretty much huh? From another hand, M$ using Guids as PK in their ASPNetMembership implementation. [aspnetdb].[aspnet_Users] - PK UserId Type uniqueidentifier, should be some reasons/explanation why the did it?! May be some one has any ideas/experience about that?

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  • entity framework navigation property further filter without loading into memory

    - by cellik
    Hi, I've two entities with 1 to N relation in between. Let's say Books and Pages. Book has a navigation property as Pages. Book has BookId as an identifier and Page has an auto generated id and a scalar property named PageNo. LazyLoading is set to true. I've generated this using VS2010 & .net 4.0 and created a database from that. In the partial class of Book, I need a GetPage function like below public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { //checking whether it exist etc are not included for simplicity return Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber).First(); } This works. However, since Pages property in the Book is an EntityCollection it has to load all Pages of a book in memory in order to get the one page (this slows down the app when this function is hit for the first time for a given book). i.e. Framework does not merge the queries and run them at once. It loads the Pages in memory and then uses LINQ to objects to do the second part To overcome this I've changed the code as follows public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { MyContainer container = new MyContainer(); return container.Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber && p.Book.BookId==BookId).First(); } This works considerably faster however it doesn't take into account the pages that have not been serialized to the db. So, both options has its cons. Is there any trick in the framework to overcome this situation. This must be a common scenario where you don't want all of the objects of a Navigation property loaded in memory when you don't need them.

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  • Convert a binary tree to linked list, breadth first, constant storage/destructive

    - by Merlyn Morgan-Graham
    This is not homework, and I don't need to answer it, but now I have become obsessed :) The problem is: Design an algorithm to destructively flatten a binary tree to a linked list, breadth-first. Okay, easy enough. Just build a queue, and do what you have to. That was the warm-up. Now, implement it with constant storage (recursion, if you can figure out an answer using it, is logarithmic storage, not constant). I found a solution to this problem on the Internet about a year back, but now I've forgotten it, and I want to know :) The trick, as far as I remember, involved using the tree to implement the queue, taking advantage of the destructive nature of the algorithm. When you are linking the list, you are also pushing an item into the queue. Each time I try to solve this, I lose nodes (such as each time I link the next node/add to the queue), I require extra storage, or I can't figure out the convoluted method I need to get back to a node that has the pointer I need. Even the link to that original article/post would be useful to me :) Google is giving me no joy. Edit: Jérémie pointed out that there is a fairly simple (and well known answer) if you have a parent pointer. While I now think he is correct about the original solution containing a parent pointer, I really wanted to solve the problem without it :) The refined requirements use this definition for the node: struct tree_node { int value; tree_node* left; tree_node* right; };

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  • Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Problem setting dynamic UITableViewCell height

    - by HiveHicks
    I've got a UITableView with two dynamic rows. Each of the rows is a subclass of UITableViewCell and is loaded from nib. As my rows contain dynamic content, I use layoutSubviews to reposition all subviews: - (void)layoutSubviews { [super layoutSubviews]; CGFloat initialHeight = titleLabel.bounds.size.height; CGSize constraintSize = CGSizeMake(titleLabel.bounds.size.width, MAXFLOAT); CGSize size = [titleLabel.text sizeWithFont:titleLabel.font constrainedToSize:constraintSize]; CGFloat delta = size.height - initialHeight; CGRect titleFrame = titleLabel.frame; titleFrame.size.height += delta; titleLabel.frame = titleFrame; locationLabel.frame = CGRectOffset(locationLabel.frame, 0, delta); dayLabel.frame = CGRectOffset(dayLabel.frame, 0, delta); timeLabel.frame = CGRectOffset(timeLabel.frame, 0, delta); } The problem is that I can't find a way to determine the height in table view delegate's tableView:heightForRowAtIndexPath: method. The trick is that I load cell from nib, so just after it's loaded titleLabel.bounds.size.width is 300 px (as in nib), not taking into account type of the device (iPhone/iPad) and current orientation, so it seems impossible to calculate the height without conditional checks for orientation and device type. Any ideas?

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  • Jquery, how to escape quotes

    - by Sandro Antonucci
    I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

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  • How to re-enable the idle timer in ios once it has been disabled (to allow the display to sleep again)?

    - by lindon fox
    I have figured out how to stop an iOS device from going to sleep (see below), but I am having troubles undoing that setting. According to the Apple Documentation, it should just be changing the value of the idleTimerDisabled property. But when I test this, it does not work. This is how I am initially stopping the device from going to sleep: //need to switch off and on for it to work initially [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = YES; I would have thought that the following would do the trick: [UIApplication sharedApplication].idleTimerDisabled = NO; From the Apple Documentation: The default value of this property is NO. When most applications have no touches as user input for a short period, the system puts the device into a "sleep” state where the screen dims. This is done for the purposes of conserving power. However, applications that don't have user input except for the accelerometer—games, for instance—can, by setting this property to YES, disable the “idle timer” to avert system sleep. Important: You should set this property only if necessary and should be sure to reset it to NO when the need no longer exists. Most applications should let the system turn off the screen when the idle timer elapses. This includes audio applications. With appropriate use of Audio Session Services, playback and recording proceed uninterrupted when the screen turns off. The only applications that should disable the idle timer are mapping applications, games, or similar programs with sporadic user interaction. Has anyone come across this problem? I am testing on iOS6 and iOS5. Thanks in advance.

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  • Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

    - by user193655
    I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

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  • How can one enforce calling a base class function after derived class constructor?

    - by Mike Elkins
    I'm looking for a clean C++ idiom for the following situation: class SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeLibraryClass() { /* start initialization */ } void addFoo() { /* we are a collection of foos */ } void funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() { /* Making sure this is called is the issue */ } }; class SomeUserClass : public SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeUserClass() { addFoo(); addFoo(); addFoo(); // SomeUserClass has three foos. } }; class SomeUserDerrivedClass : public SomeUserClass { public: SomeUserDerrivedClass() { addFoo(); // This one has four foos. } }; So, what I really want is for SomeLibraryClass to enforce the calling of funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos at the end of the construction process. The user can't put it at the end of SomeUserClass::SomeUserClass(), that would mess up SomeUserDerrivedClass. If he puts it at the end of SomeUserDerrivedClass, then it never gets called for SomeUserClass. To further clarify what I need, imagine that /* start initialization */ acquires a lock, and funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() releases a lock. The compiler knows when all the initializations for an object are done, but can I get at that information by some nice trick?

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  • Php string handling triks

    - by Dam
    Hi my question Need to get the 10 word before and 10 words after for the given text . i mean need to start the 10 words before the keyword and end with 10 word after the key word. Given text : "Twenty-three" The main trick : content having some html tags etc .. tags need to keep that tag with this content only . need to display the words from 10before - 10after content is bellow : <div id="hpFeatureBoxInt"><h3><a href="/go/homepage/i/int/news/world/1/-/news/1/hi/world/europe/8592190.stm">Suicide bombings hit Moscow Metro</a></h3><p>Past suicide bombings in Moscow have been blamed on Islamist rebels At least 35 people have been killed after two female suicide bombers blew themselves up on Moscow Metro trains in the morning rush hour,<h2><span class="dy">Top News Story</span></h2> officials say.<img height="150" width="201" alt="Emergency services carry a body from a Metro station in Moscow (29 March 2010)" src="http://wwwimg.bbc.co.uk/feedengine/homepage/images/_47550689_moscowap203_201x150.jpg">Twenty-three died in the first blast at 0756 (0356 GMT) as a<a href="#"> train stood </a>at the central Lubyanka station, beneath the offices of the FSB intelligence agency.About 40 minutes later, a second explosion ripped through a train at Park Kultury, leaving another 12 dead.No-one has said they carried out the worst attack in the capital since 2004. </p><p id="fbilisten"><a href="/go/homepage/i/int/news/heading/-/news/">More from BBC News</a></p></div> Thank you

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  • how to delete in Mysql

    - by Ian Moss
    i want to delete a element in mysql. the problem is that my connection not succesfully open and they give me error unable to connect even same connectionstring work elsewhere in current project. well when my code open the connection they work fine. but a small function try to delete a row in Mysql. i am confused what is goes wrong because :- same connectionstring work elsewhere in project i trying but a function only have a project [unable to connect] the [unable to connect] problem come when my code trying to delete the rows in mysql. i use sqlyog to open the connection and they work fine as other code work and their is no problem i got when i run the command on sqlyog. conclusion:- why connection not open if they work elsewhere in the project and in also in sqlyog. any reason for unable to connect. because connection can not open offcourse command never run so what is reason upon the connection unable to connect. well any suggestion , thing you feel and trick you have to solve this issue i have. thanks

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  • sending large data .getJSON or proxy ?

    - by numerical25
    Hey guys. I was told that the only trick to sending data to a external server (i.e x-domain) is to use getJSON. Well my problem is that the data I am sending exceeds the getJSON data limit. I am tracking mouse movements on a screen for analytics. Another option is I could also send a little data at a time. probably every time the mouse moves. but that seems as if it would slow things down. I could setup a proxy server. My question is which would be better? Setting up a proxy server ? or Just sending bits of information via javascript or JQUERY. What do the professionals use (Google and other company's that build mash-ups that send a lot of data to x-domain sites.) I need to know the best practices. Thanx!! Also the data is put into JSON.

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  • What are your Programming Falacies/Myths?

    - by pms1969
    I recently started a new job and as is typical of all jobs, if you've left, you get blamed for everything. Not long after I started there was a change required for an app (web based) that we maintain, and it was quickly pointed out that the actual code for this site had been lost a long time ago, and the only changes we could make to the it were ones that required changes to mark-up [it was a pre-compiled site]. Being new, I needed a little help finding my way around the code, and enlisted the services of one of my colleagues. Made my changes, and then re-enlisted his help to deploy it. While prepping for the deployment (getting the app on the QA server) we discovered that there were actually 2 different, very similarly named, folders in our source repository. It transpired that for the last year or so, mark-up changes had been made to the site directly, and these were the only differences with the code in the slightly incorrectly named folder in source control. So we did have all the code, and can now properly support the site. This put me in mind of a trick we played on a junior programmer once in a previous job, where we told him he couldn't/shouldn't do a certain thing in code as this would likely bring the server to it's knees and cost the company thousands of pounds (a gag that last months :-). And another one in the first programming job I took on - the batch commission run was just going to crash once a month and there was nothing to be done about it, causing a call out, and call out compensation for the on-call guy (a bug I fixed as soon as I became the on-call guy - 2am call outs don't work for me). So I was wondering... What other programming fallacies/myths are out there that are worth sharing?

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  • Team City + Gallio runs tests, but results are not shown

    - by Twindagger
    We recently updated to Visual Studio 2010, and as part of our upgrade we started using Gallio 3.2 prerelease builds. Everything runs fine in Visual Studio (through resharper) but I'm having problems with TeamCity integration. The tests seem to run during TeamCity builds just fine (our build takes long enough to run all our tests), but the tests are not showing up in TeamCity's test area. Here is the test target from our NANT build file (this hasn't changed in our upgrade at all). Is there a trick to getting the tests to show up in TeamCity or is this something that's broken in the latest builds of Gallio? <target name="runTests"> <gallio result-property="exitCode" failonerror="false"> <runner-extension value="TeamCityExtension,Gallio.TeamCityIntegration" /> <assemblies> <include name="..\Source\Tests\${testProject}\bin\Debug\${testProject}.dll" /> </assemblies> </gallio> </target>

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  • DIV inside TD to make it appear correctly

    - by Daniel Svensson
    Hi, I have a <table> generated from code-behind and now facing a problem. In one of the TD i need to have a DIV that is setup with JQuery so that when i click a link the DIV slideToggles. Now i need the TD belonging to that TR not to expand the TR. To solve this i have used an old trick that is to place the JQuery DIV inside another surrounding DIV with height 1px and make the TR not expanding with the heigth of the DIV that slides out. In IE the sliding DIV is partially under the table and in Firefox the DIV appears over the table but it's trasparent, the text from the data in the table shows thru. I have tried to alter the Z-index in various ways but it's no good. Anyone that has an idea or alternatively solution that has worked for them. HtmlGenericControl containerDiv = new HtmlGenericControl("div"); containerDiv.ID = "containerDiv"; containerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.Width, "100%"); containerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.Height, "1px"); containerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.ZIndex, "999"); HtmlGenericControl innerDiv = new HtmlGenericControl("div"); innerDiv.ID = System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString() + "_annualDiv"; inner.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.Width, "100%"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.Height, "300px"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.ZIndex, "1000"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.BorderStyle, "solid"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.BorderColor, "Black"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.BorderWidth, "1px"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.BackgroundColor, "white"); innerDiv.InnerHtml = "Here is a list of links coming later"; conDiv.Controls.Add(innerDiv);

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  • Dimensions of a collection, and how to traverse it in an efficient, elegant manner

    - by Bruce Ferguson
    I'm trying to find an elegant way to deal with multi-dimensional collections in Scala. My understanding is that I can have up to a 5 dimensional collection using tabulate, such as in the case of the following 2-Dimensional array: val test = Array.tabulate[Double](row,col)(_+_) and that I can access the elements of the array using for(i<-0 until row) { for(j<-0 until col) { test(i)(j) = 0.0 } } If I don't know a priori what I'm going to be handling, what might be a succinct way of determining the structure of the collection, and spanning it, without doing something like: case(Array(x)) => for(i<-1 until dim1) { test(i) = 0.0 } case(Array(x,y)) => for(i<-1 until dim1) { for(j<-1 until dim2) { test(i)(j) = 0.0 } } case(Array(x,y,z)) => ... The dimensional values n1, n2, n3, etc... are private, right? Also, would one use the same trick of unwrapping a 2-D array into a 1-D vector when dealing with n-Dimensional objects if I want a single case to handle the traversal? Thanks in advance Bruce

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  • Parsing a Multi-Index Excel File in Pandas

    - by rhaskett
    I have a time series excel file with a tri-level column MultiIndex that I would like to successfully parse if possible. There are some results on how to do this for an index on stack overflow but not the columns and the parse function has a header that does not seem to take a list of rows. The ExcelFile looks like is like the following: Column A is all the time series dates starting on A4 Column B has top_level1 (B1) mid_level1 (B2) low_level1 (B3) data (B4-B100+) Column C has null (C1) null (C2) low_level2 (C3) data (C4-C100+) Column D has null (D1) mid_level2 (D2) low_level1 (D3) data (D4-D100+) Column E has null (E1) null (E2) low_level2 (E3) data (E4-E100+) ... So there are two low_level values many mid_level values and a few top_level values but the trick is the top and mid level values are null and are assumed to be the values to the left. So, for instance all the columns above would have top_level1 as the top multi-index value. My best idea so far is to use transpose, but the it fills Unnamed: # everywhere and doesn't seem to work. In Pandas 0.13 read_csv seems to have a header parameter that can take a list, but this doesn't seem to work with parse.

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  • MSSQL 2008 - Bit Param Evaluation alters Execution Plan

    - by Nathanial Woolls
    I have been working on migrating some of our data from Microsoft SQL Server 2000 to 2008. Among the usual hiccups and whatnot, I’ve run across something strange. Linked below is a SQL query that returns very quickly under 2000, but takes 20 minutes under 2008. I have read quite a bit on upgrading SQL server and went down the usual paths of checking indexes, statistics, etc. before coming to the conclusion that the following statement, found in the WHERE clause, causes the execution plan for the steps that follow this statement to change dramatically: And ( @bOnlyUnmatched = 0 -- offending line Or Not Exists( The SQL statements and execution plans are linked below. A coworker was able to rewrite a portion of the WHERE clause using a CASE statement, which seems to “trick” the optimizer into using a better execution plan. The version with the CASE statement is also contained in the linked archive. I’d like to see if someone has an explanation as to why this is happening and if there may be a more elegant solution than using a CASE statement. While we can work around this specific issue, I’d like to have a broader understanding of what is happening to ensure the rest of the migration is as painless as possible. Zip file with SQL statements and XML execution plans Thanks in advance!

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  • Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

    - by pdkl95
    I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

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  • Tools for debugging when debugger can't get you there?

    - by brian1001
    I have a fairly complex (approx 200,000 lines of C++ code) application that has decided to crash, although it crashes a little differently on a couple of different systems. The trick is that it doesn't crash or trap out in debugger. It only crashes when the application .EXE is run independently (either the debug EXE or the release EXE - both behave the same way). When it crashes in the debug EXE, and I get it to start debugging, the call stack is buried down into the windows/MFC part of things, and isn't reflecting any of my code. Perhaps I'm seeing a stack corruption of some sort, but I'm just not sure at the moment. My question is more general - it's about tools and techniques. I'm an old programmer (C and assembly language days), and a relative newcomer (couple/few years) to C++ and Visual Studio (2003 for this projecT). Are there tricks or techniques anyone's had success with in tracking down crashing issues when you cannot make the software crash in a debugger session? Stuff like permission issues, for example? The only thing I've thought of is to start plugging in debug/status messages to a logfile, but that's a long, hard way to go. Been there, done that. Any better suggestions? Am I missing some tools that would help? Is VS 2008 better for this kind of thing? Thanks for any guidance. Some very smart people here (you know who you are!). cheers.

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  • php / phpDoc - @return instance of $this class ?

    - by searbe
    How do I mark a method as "returns an instance of the current class" in my phpDoc? In the following example my IDE (Netbeans) will see that setSomething always returns a foo object. But that's not true if I extent the object - it'll return $this, which in the second example is a bar object not a foo object. class foo { protected $_value = null; /** * Set something * * @param string $value the value * @return foo */ public function setSomething($value) { $this->_value = $value; return $this; } } $foo = new foo(); $out = $foo->setSomething(); So fine - setSomething returns a foo - but in the following example, it returns a bar..: class bar extends foo { public function someOtherMethod(){} } $bar = new bar(); $out = $bar->setSomething(); $out->someOtherMethod(); // <-- Here, Netbeans will think $out // is a foo, so doesn't see this other // method in $out's code-completion ... it'd be great to solve this as for me, code completion is a massive speed-boost. Anyone got a clever trick, or even better, a proper way to document this with phpDoc?

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  • retrieve only sub-pages (wordpress)

    - by Radek
    I want to list all sub-pages only one level though of one particular page. I was reading Function Reference/get pages and thought that $pages = get_pages( array( 'child_of' => $post->ID, 'parent' => $post->ID)) ; will do the trick but it is not working. It lists all pages on the same level like the page I call that code from. If I omit parent option I will get all pages even with sub-pages that I want. But I want only sub-pages. The whole function is like function about_menu(){ if (is_page('about')){ $pages = get_pages( array( 'child_of' => $post->ID, 'parent' => $post->ID)) ; foreach($pages as $page) { ?> <h2><a href="<?php echo get_page_link($page->ID) ?>"><?php echo $page->post_title ?></a></h2> <?php } } } and mine is second one

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  • EF 4 Query - Issue with Multiple Parameters

    - by Brian
    Hello, A trick to avoiding filtering by nullable parameters in SQL was something like the following: select * from customers where (@CustomerName is null or CustomerName = @CustomerName) This worked well for me in LINQ to SQL: string customerName = "XYZ"; var results = (from c in ctx.Customers where (customerName == null || (customerName != null && c.CustomerName == customerName)) select c); But that above query, when in ADO.NET EF, doesn't work for me; it should filter by customer name because it exists, but it doesn't. Instead, it's querying all the customer records. Now, this is a simplified example, because I have many fields that I'm utilizing this kind of logic with. But it never actually filters, queries all the records, and causes a timeout exception. But the wierd thing is another query does something similarly, with no issues. Any ideas why? Seems like a bug to me, or is there a workaround for this? I've since switched to extension methods which works. Thanks.

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