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  • Running multiple instances of tomcat in eclipse WTP

    - by lisak
    Hey, SCENARIO: 10 CATALINA_BASEs with own configuration (always the same port numbers 8080, but 10 different IP/hostnames on one host via virtual IPs). created a server in WTP and pick "Use the custom location" option in the server configuration in eclipse. New configuration files are created in workspace/Server/server-name-config/ Set up the server path and deploy path for my catalina base (not the internal .metadata one) After I started it, the new configuration files overwrote the original catalina-base/conf files I had there - I was glad, it should be like this but after I made changes in the eclipse config files workspace/Server/server-name-config/ and restarted the server, the changes didn't appeared in the original files in CATALINA_BASE/conf What the hell is that ? So I set the CATALINA_BASE/conf/server.xml to fault configuration and restarted tomcat from eclipse and it worked ! it took the configuration from /Server/server-name-config/server.xml Then I deleted CATALINA_BASE/conf/server.xml and it said that there is no server.xml in catalina base ! How is it possible ? I don't understand why eclipse WTP developers made so tight integration. There should by just symbolic links in /Server/server-name-config/ pointing to CATALINA_BASE/conf/ ... now there is a weird system which is totally unpredictable. The changes in /Server/server-name-config/ are not reflected in CATALINA_BASE/conf ... from where the standard bootstrap.jar or other catalina classloaders and classes build server, engine and other objects with particular setting. Moreover the CATALINA_BASEs could be used outside eclipse then. The second problem, I'm setting up various things in CATALINA_BASE/bin/startup.sh and setenv.sh which is easy cause I can use bash for it. Is then modifying VM parameters in the "Open launch configuration" settings the only way how to do it in eclipse ? Sorry for such a huge pile of questions, but I'm annoyed by the fact that it is much better to not use eclipse WTP for this because it is very poorly designed and it's a shame because this would spare me a lot of time. And using the internal .metadata/ instances it's even more terrifying way that the one I described.

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  • Linq to SQL with INSTEAD OF Trigger and an Identity Column

    - by Bob Horn
    I need to use the clock on my SQL Server to write a time to one of my tables, so I thought I'd just use GETDATE(). The problem is that I'm getting an error because of my INSTEAD OF trigger. Is there a way to set one column to GETDATE() when another column is an identity column? This is the Linq-to-SQL: internal void LogProcessPoint(WorkflowCreated workflowCreated, int processCode) { ProcessLoggingRecord processLoggingRecord = new ProcessLoggingRecord() { ProcessCode = processCode, SubId = workflowCreated.SubId, EventTime = DateTime.Now // I don't care what this is. SQL Server will use GETDATE() instead. }; this.Database.Add<ProcessLoggingRecord>(processLoggingRecord); } This is the table. EventTime is what I want to have as GETDATE(). I don't want the column to be null. And here is the trigger: ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger] ON [Master].[ProcessLogging] INSTEAD OF INSERT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] ON; INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, EventTime, LastModifiedUser) SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, GETDATE(), LastModifiedUser FROM inserted SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] OFF; END Without getting into all of the variations I've tried, this last attempt produces this error: InvalidOperationException Member AutoSync failure. For members to be AutoSynced after insert, the type must either have an auto-generated identity, or a key that is not modified by the database after insert. I could remove EventTime from my entity, but I don't want to do that. If it was gone though, then it would be NULL during the INSERT and GETDATE() would be used. Is there a way that I can simply use GETDATE() on the EventTime column for INSERTs? Note: I do not want to use C#'s DateTime.Now for two reasons: 1. One of these inserts is generated by SQL Server itself (from another stored procedure) 2. Times can be different on different machines, and I'd like to know exactly how fast my processes are happening.

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  • jQuery - Not sure which method to use, closest() and parent() don't work.

    - by Nike
    Hello, again. :) God i feel like i'm spamming stackoverflow, this is my 3rd post for today. Sorry, heh. I even posted a question regarding this before, kind of, but i've changed the code a bit since so i thought it was better to post a new question. $('.pmlist ul li h4 .toggle').click(function() { $(this).closest('.meddel').toggle(250); }); That's what i've got now. The reason why the closest() method isn't working is because the div .meddel is just next to the h4 element. And closest() only crawls right up the DOM tree, ignoring other child elements. Right? parent() works almost the same and doesn't work either. And as i only want to toggle the closest .meddel div in the element, i need something that, yeah justs grabs the nearest one, and not all of them. To clear it up a bit, here's the HTML for one list item: <li class="item"> <h4><a class="toggle">ämne</a><small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54 by <u>nike1</u></small></h4> <div class="meddel"> <span> <img style="max-width: 70%; min-height: 70%;" src="profile-images/nike1.jpg" alt="" /> <a href="account.php?usr=47">nike1</a> </span> <p>text</p> </div> </li> I have several items like that, and if i click one toggle link, i just want the nearest .meddel to be toggled, as mentioned before. Thanks. -Nike

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  • Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

    - by KlasE
    Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

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  • Append a dynamically changing watermark to a PDF in SharePoint

    - by ccomet
    This is primarily a question of possibilities more than instructions. I'm a programming consultant working on a WSS project site system for my client. We have a document library in which files are uploaded to go through a complex approval process. With multiple stages in this process, we have an extra field which dictates what the current status of the document is. Now, my client has become enamored with the idea of PDF watermarking. He wants the document (which is already a PDF) to be affixed with a watermark corresponding to the current status, such that with each stage of the approval process the watermark will change. One method, the traditional method for PDF watermarking, of accomplishing this is to have one "clean" copy of the document somewhere hidden on the site, and create a new PDF from it that has the watermark at each stage of the approval process. Since the filename will never change, this new PDF can be uploaded continually to a public library, always overwriting the old version and simulating a "dynamically changing watermark". However, in the various stages there will also be people uploading clean copies with corrections and suggestions, nevermind the complex nature of juggling around two libraries and the fact we double the number of files stored. My client and I agree that this is not a practical path to choose. What we would like to do is be able to "modify" the watermark in a PDF, so that we only have to keep one copy of the file. Unfortunately, from what I've seen, in most cases when you make something like a watermark, which in its nature is supposed to be "unmodifyable", you won't be able to edit it later. So, is it possible to have a part of a PDF which cannot be changed by anyone who downloads the file, but can be changed as part of a workflow or other object model process? Thanks in advance!

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  • ftp .net getdirectory size

    - by Xaver
    hi i write method which must to know that is size of specified directory i get response from server which contains flags of file name size and other info and on the different ftp servers format of answer is different how to know format of answer? unsigned long long GetFtpDirSize(String^ ftpDir) { unsigned long long size = 0; int j = 0; StringBuilder^ result = gcnew StringBuilder(); StreamReader^ reader; FtpWebRequest^ reqFTP; reqFTP = (FtpWebRequest^)FtpWebRequest::Create(gcnew Uri(ftpDir)); reqFTP->UseBinary = true; reqFTP->Credentials = gcnew NetworkCredential("anonymous", "123"); reqFTP->Method = WebRequestMethods::Ftp::ListDirectoryDetails; reqFTP->KeepAlive = false; reqFTP->UsePassive = false; try { WebResponse^ resp = reqFTP->GetResponse(); Encoding^ code; code = Encoding::GetEncoding(1251); reader = gcnew StreamReader(resp->GetResponseStream(), code); String^ line = reader->ReadToEnd(); array<Char>^delimiters = gcnew array<Char>{ '\r', '\n' }; array<Char>^delimiters2 = gcnew array<Char>{ ' ' }; array<String^>^words = line->Split(delimiters, StringSplitOptions::RemoveEmptyEntries); array<String^>^DetPr; System::Collections::IEnumerator^ myEnum = words->GetEnumerator(); while ( myEnum->MoveNext() ) { String^ word = safe_cast<String^>(myEnum->Current); DetPr = word->Split(delimiters2); } }

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  • Looking for streaming xml pretty printer in C/C++ using expat or libxml2

    - by Mark Zeren
    I'm looking for a streaming xml pretty printer for C/C++ that's either self contained or that uses libxml2 or expat. I've searched a bit and not found one. It seems like something that would be generally useful. Am I missing an obvious tool that does this? Background: I have a library that outputs xml without whitespace all on one line. In some cases I'd like to pretty print that output. I'm looking for a BSD-ish licensed C/C++ library or sample code that will take a raw xml byte stream and pretty print it. Here's some pseudo code showing one way that I might use this functionality: void my_write(const char* buf, int len); PrettyPrinter pp(bind(&my_write)); while (...) { // ... get some more xml ... const char* buf = xmlSource.get_buf(); int len = xmlSource.get_buf_len(); int written = pp.write(buf, len); // calls my_write with pretty printed xml // ... error handling, maybe call write again, etc. ... } I'd like to avoid instantiating a DOM representation. I already have dependencies on the expat and libxml2 shared libraries, and I'd rather not add any more shared library dependencies.

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  • Setting article properties for a publication using RMO in C# .NET

    - by Pavan Kumar
    I am using transaction replication with push subscription. I am developing a UI for replication using RMO in C#.NET between different instances of the same database within same machine holding similar schema and structure. I am using Single subscriber and multiple publisher topology. During creation of publication i want to set a few article properties such as Keep the existing object unchanged ,allow schema changes at subscriber to false a,copy foriegn key constarint and copy check constraints to true. How do i set the article properties using RMO in C# .NET. I am using Visual Studio 2008 SP1.I also want to know as how we can select all the objects including Tables,Views,Stored Procedures for publishing at one stretch. I could do it for one table but i want to select all the tables at one stretch. This is the code snippet i used for selecting single table for publishing. TransArticle ta = new TransArticle(); ta.Name = "Article_1"; ta.PublicationName = "TransReplication_DB2"; ta.DatabaseName = "DB2"; ta.SourceObjectName = "person"; ta.SourceObjectOwner = "dbo"; ta.ConnectionContext = conn; ta.Create();

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  • CSS background image being downloaded more than once

    - by Nick Clarke
    I noticed in my current project that Firefox (3.5.4) downloads the background image (set in CSS) for my divs more than once. I've checked with both firebug and wireshark and it really does appear that it does not wait for the first request to finish and then simply use the cached version. Wireshark also confirms that Chrome and IE8 do as expected and only request the image once. Any ideas what might be causing this? Here is a small test: Sample Page or <html> <head> <style> #one { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #two { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #three { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } </style> </head> <body> <div id="one"></div> <div id="two"></div> <div id="three"></div> </body> EDIT I opened up a bug request as I could not find one already on bugzilla, but it turns out to be an old bug with 3.5. https://bugzilla.mozilla.org/show_bug.cgi?id=497665

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  • How can I coordinate code review tool and RCS (specifically git)

    - by Chris Nelson
    We're committed to git for code management. We're trying to find a tool that will help us systematize code reviews. We're considering Gerrit and Code Collaborator but would welcome other suggestions. We're having a problem answering the question, "How do we know every commit was reviewed?" (Or "What commits have yet to be reviewed?") One answer would be to submit every commit or every push for review and track incomplete reviews in the review tool. I'm not entirely happy with relying on a another tool -- especially if it's not open source -- to tell us this. What seems to be a better answer is to rely on sign offs in git (e.g., "Signed-off-by: Chris Nelson") and use a hook in the review tool to sign off commits on behalf of the reviewer. And advantage of this is if we use some other review mechanism for some commits, we have just one place to look for results. One problem with this is that we can't require review before push because the review tool is unlikely to have access to the developer's private repository clone to add the sign-off. Any ideas on integrating code review with code management to achieve ease of use and high visibility of unreviewed changes?

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  • how to queue function behind ajax request

    - by user1052335
    What I'm asking is conceptual rather than why my code doesn't work. I'm trying to make a web app that displays content fetched from a database in a sequence, one at a time, and then waits for a response from the user before continuing to the next one. I'm working with javascript on the client side with the JQuery library and php on the server side. In theory, there's time while waiting for the user's input to fetch information from the server using an AJAX request and have it ready for the use by the time he clicks the button, but there's also a chance that such an AJAX request hasn't completed when he clicks the button. So I need something like pseudocode: display current information fetch next data point from the server in the background onUserInput { if ( ajax request complete) { present the information fetched in this request } else if (ajax request not complete) { wait for ajax request complete present information to user } My question is this: how does one implement this " else if (ajax request not complete) { wait for ajax request complete " part. I'm currently using JQuery for my AJAX needs. I'm somewhat new to working with AJAX, and I did search around, but I didn't find anything that seemed on point. I don't know what tools I should use for this. Some kind of queue maybe? I don't need to be spoon fed. I just need to know how this is done, using what tools or if my desired outcome would be accomplished in some other way entirely. Thanks.

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  • text-overflow:ellipsis in Firefox 4?

    - by Spudley
    The text-overflow:ellipsis; CSS property must be one of the few things that Microsoft has done right for the web. All the other browsers now support it... except Firefox. The Firefox developers have been arguing over it since 2005 but despite the obvious demand for it, they can't seem to actually bring themselves to implement it (even an experimental -moz- implementation would be sufficient). A few years ago, someone worked out a way to hack Firefox 3 to make it support an ellipsis. The hack uses the -moz-binding feature to implement it using XUL. Quite a number of sites are now using this hack. The bad news? Firefox 4 is removing the -moz-binding feature, which means this hack won't work any more. So as soon as Firefox 4 is released (later this month, I hear), we're going to be back to the problem of having it not being able to support this feature. So my question is: Is there any other way around this? (I'm trying to avoid falling back to a Javascript solution if at all possible) [EDIT] Lots of up-votes, so I'm obviously not the only one who wants to know, but I've got one answer so far which basically says 'use javascript'. I'm still hoping for a solution that will either not need JS at all, or at worst only use it as a fall-back where the CSS feature doesn't work. So I'm going to post a bounty on the question, on the off chance that someone, somewhere has found an answer.

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  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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  • How to connect a new query script with SSMS add-in?

    - by squillman
    I'm trying to create a SSMS add-in. One of the things I want to do is to create a new query window and programatically connect it to a server instance (in the context of a SQL Login). I can create the new query script window just fine but I can't find how to connect it without first manually connecting to something else (like the Object Explorer). So in other words, if I connect Obect Explorer to a SQL instance manually and then execute the method of my add-in that creates the query window I can connect it using this code: ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CreateNewBlankScript( Editors.ScriptType.Sql, ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo, null); But I don't want to rely on CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo for the connection. I want to set a SQL Login username and password programatically. Does anyone have any ideas? EDIT: I've managed to get the query window connected by setting the last parameter to an instance of System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection. However, the connection uses the context of the last login that was connected instead of what I'm trying to set programatically. That is, the user it connects as is the one selected in the Connection Dialog that you get when you click the New Query button and don't have an Object Explorer connected. EDIT2: I'm writing (or hoping to write) an add-in to automatically send a SQL statement and the execution results to our case-tracking system when run against our production servers. One thought I had was to remove write permissions and assign logins through this add-in which will also force the user to enter a case # canceling the statement if it's not there. Another thought I've just had is to inspect the server name in ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo and compare it to our list of production servers. If it matches and there's no case # then cancel the query.

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  • Access SSAS cube from across domains without direct database connection

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm working with SQL Server Analysis Services for the first time and have the dilemma of working on a project in which users must be able to access SSAS Cubes (via a custom web dashboard) that live across different servers and domains, but without having access to the other server's SSAS database connection strings. So Organization A and Organization B will have their own cubes on their own servers, but Organization A users must be able to view Organization B's cubes, and Organization B users must be able to view Organization A's cubes, but neither organization should have access to the connection string. I've read about allowing HTTP access to the SSAS server and cube from the link below, but that requires setting up users for authentication or allowing anonymous access to one organization's server for users of another organization, and I'm not sure this would be acceptable for this situation, or if this is the preferred way to do this. Is performance acceptable here? http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc917711.aspx I also wonder if perhaps it makes sense to run a nightly/weekly process that accesses the other organization's SSAS database via a web service or something, and pull that data into a database on the organization's server, and then rebuild the cube. Then that cube would be queried without having to go and connect to the other organization server when viewing the cube. Has anyone else attempted to accomplish something similar? Is HTTP access the standard way to go for this? Or any other possible options? Thanks, and please let me know if you need more info, still unclear on how some of this works.

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  • Relational database data explorer / visualization?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Is there a tool that can let one browse relational data as a graph of connected nodes? For example, i'm faced with trying to cleanse some anomolous data. i can start with two offending rows. In this particular example, the TransactionID should, by business rules, be unique to the table, but i find a transaction that violates that rule: SELECT * FROM LCTTrans WHERE TransactionID = 1075048 LCTID TransactionID ========= ============= 4358 1075048 4359 1075048 2 row(s) affected But really what i want to begin to hunt down all the related data, to try to see which is right. So this hypothetical software would start by showing me these two rows: Next, i want to see that transaction that is linked into this table: Now that transaction points to an MAL, so show me that: Now lets add those two LCTs, that the transaction is "on". A transaction can be on only one LCT, yet this one is pointing to two: Okay computer, both of those LCTs point to an MAL and the transaction that created them, show me those: Those last two transactions, they also point at an MAL, and they themselves point to an LCT, show me those: Okay, now are there any entries in LCTTrans that point to LCTs 4358 or 4359?... And so on, and so on. Now i did all this manually, running single selects, copying and pasting uniqueidentifier keys and converting them into friendly id numbers so i could easily see the relationships. Is there software that can do this?

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  • Data in two databases, eager spool resulting in query

    - by Valkyrie
    I have two databases in SQL2k5: one that holds a large amount of static data (SQL Database 1) (never updated but frequently inserted into) and one that holds relational data (SQL Database 2) related to the static data. They're separated mainly because of corporate guidelines and business requirements: assume for the following problem that combining them is not practical. There are places in SQLDB2 that PKs in SQLDB1 are referenced; triggers control the referential integrity, since cross-database relationships are troublesome in SQL Server. BUT, because of the large amount of data in SQLDB1, I'm getting eager spools on queries that join from the Id in SQLDB2 that references the data in SQLDB1. (With me so far? Maybe an example will help:) SELECT t.Id, t.Name, t2.Company FROM SQLDB1.table t INNER JOIN SQLDB2.table t2 ON t.Id = t2.FKId This query results in a eager spool that's 84% of the load of the query; the table in SQLDB1 has 35M rows, so it's completely choking this query. I can't create a view on the table in SQLDB1 and use that as my FK/index; it doesn't want me to create a constraint based on a view. Anyone have any idea how I can fix this huge bottleneck? (Short of putting the static data in the first db: believe me, I've argued that one until I'm blue in the face to no avail.) Thanks! valkyrie Edit: also can't create an indexed view because you can't put schemabinding on a view that references a table outside the database where the view resides. Dang it.

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  • WinForms and ShowDialog problem.

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a borderless WinForms app. The main window creates other forms (simple dialogs where I can click yes or no) with ShowDialog(). Every created dialog is not visible in the taskbar, my app has only one taskbar entry that focuses my app (and if a dialog is open that one is focused). If I use ALT+TAB to cycle to all open windows I only see one entry, too. However, If the dialog is created while my app doesn't have the focus (for example the user starts a long running task, starts to work on something else and while being in the background, my app shows a dialog "Task done...") and I want to go back to my app, things are getting strange. If I click on the taskbar to focus my app, the main window is focused (not the dialog). I can't use the main window (because there is still an open modal dialog). Windows 7 ALT-TAB preview shows the Dialog while taskbar mouseover preview shows the main window (In normal behavior both show the dialog in front of the main window). The only way to make my app usable again is to ALT-TAB to the entry and close the modal dialog. If I use ALT-TAB only the dialog is brought to the front and the main window is still in the background Is there a way to prevent that from happening? I know what to do, but most customers think the app crashed since the main window doesn't respond.

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  • Django access data passed to form

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I have got a choiceField in my form, where I display filtered data. To filter the data I need two arguments. The first one is not a problem, because I can take it directly from an object, but the second one is dynamically generated. Here is some code: class GroupAdd(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): self.pid = kwargs.pop('parent_id', None) super(GroupAdd, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) parent_id = forms.IntegerField(widget=forms.HiddenInput) choices = forms.ChoiceField( choices = [ [group.node_id, group.name] for group in Objtree.objects.filter( type_id = ObjtreeTypes.objects.values_list('type_id').filter(name = 'group'), parent_id = 50 ).distinct()] + [[0, 'Add a new one'] ], widget = forms.Select( attrs = { 'id': 'group_select' } ) ) I would like to change the parent_id that is passed into the Objtree.objects.filter. As you can see I tried in the init function, as well with kwargs['initial']['parent_id'] and then calling it with self, but that doesnt work, since its out of scope... it was pretty much my last effort. I need to acccess it either trough the initial parameter or directly trough parent_id field, since it already holds its value (passed trough initial). Any help is appreciated, as I am running out of ideas.

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  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

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  • How does MSN filter spam?

    - by Marius
    I am trying to create a newsletter for our business. The last few days have been spent testing, and one of things I have noticed is that MSN seemingly randomly filters out some of my test messages. This is super-frustrating. I like the PEAR Mail MIME-package, and have been using that. I may send one email from one of our servers, resulting in the message getting through, and in the next minute, the same message sent from our other server ends up in the junk folder. Then if I add an attachment to the email, and the same message passes though the filter from the server that was previously blocked. I think. What the ####? Is this like throwing a dice, without me having any control over what is trash, and what isn't? I have sent email from several servers, all of which are shared. But I am unsure this is the problem. The problem is that it is seemingly random how MSN filters email. Some emails get through, and some other don't for seemingly irrational reasons. I am running out of ideas, but I am not giving up. Therefore I am writing to you for HARDCORE technical info on how MSN filters spam.

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  • Add new language to existing Xcode project localization

    - by leolobato
    Hey guys, I'm working on an existing Xcode 3.2.2 Universal iPhone OS project which is already localized for 4 languages (EN, IT, DE and FR). We are now adding a new language (JA) into this project. Each existing .lproj folder (en.lproj, it.lproj, de.lproj and fr.lproj) has almost 60 files - including PNGs, HTMLs and the Localizable.strings file. Each one of those files appear as localized groups inside Groups & Files in Xcode. They're spread all over the tree. If I right-click one of those groups (say, Localizable.strings) inside Xcode, Get Info, click on "Add Localization" and type "ja" - as the Xcode docs suggest, nothing happens. From what I read in this newgroup, it's possibly because of the way those folders are named. If they were named like English.lproj and Italian.lproj, this was supposed to work. So, for me to actually import a new language localized file into the existing group, I have to: Right-click the localized group file. Choose "Add Existing File". Select the corresponding file inside the ja.lproj folder. I'm about to get a new ja.lproj folder with those 60 localized files and would love to import them in the project in a way that doesn't involve searching for every single file in Groups & Trees and performing those steps... for every one of those 60 files. Is that possible? Is there a right (or better) way to import a new language into this Xcode project?

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  • passing hashes to a subroutine

    - by Vishalrix
    In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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  • MSN Messenger API

    - by MarceloRamires
    back when I was not working with programming (using skills from courses and school) I started developing a simple program that is supposed to get the Artwork of the album to which the song you're currently listening in iTunes to and set it as you Display Picture in MSN Messenger (everything had to be open at the same time). I was so excited about it, made it as nicely as I could back then (now I consider it a design and usability complete fail), and it surprisingly worked. Now, a couple of versions ahead (MSN from 8.5 to 9.0, iTunes from 8 to 9, and windows from Vista to 7) I am getting some incompatibility issues. Where I work, I use Windows 7, Windows Live Messenger 2009 and iTunes 9 - it works just just like before, but at home I have the same exact setup, but something weird happens: When I open the program (having my itunes AND msn open) it doesn't use the active MSN instance, instead it opens a new one, and doesn't work even on this opened one. I've tried it with a couple of libraries: Interop.Messenger.dll - workis like described above Interop.MessengerAPI.dll - works like described above Interop.MessengerPrivate.dll - never worked MSNMessenger.dll - the one I used before - doesn't work anymore at all What could I do ? Info: Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, C#, WinForms application. I'll watch this question and add any information if requested

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  • Using singleton instead of a global static instance

    - by Farstucker
    I ran into a problem today and a friend recommended I use a global static instance or more elegantly a singleton pattern. I spent a few hours reading about singletons but a few things still escape me. Background: What Im trying to accomplish is creating an instance of an API and use this one instance in all my classes (as opposed to making a new connection, etc). There seems to be about 100 ways of creating a singleton but with some help from yoda I found some thread safe examples. ..so given the following code: public sealed class Singleton { public static Singleton Instance { get; private set; } private Singleton() { APIClass api = new APIClass(); //Can this be done? } static Singleton() { Instance = new Singleton(); } } How/Where would you instantiate the this new class and how should it be called from a separate class? EDIT: I realize the Singleton class can be called with something like Singleton obj1 = Singleton.Instance(); but would I be able to access the methods within the APIs Class (ie. obj1.Start)? (not that I need to, just asking) EDIT #2: I might have been a bit premature in checking the answer but I do have one small thing that is still causing me problems. The API is launching just fine, unfortunately Im able to launch two instances? New Code public sealed class SingletonAPI { public static SingletonAPI Instance { get; private set; } private SingletonAPI() {} static SingletonAPI() { Instance = new SingletonAPI(); } // API method: public void Start() { API myAPI = new API();} } but if I try to do something like this... SingletonAPI api = SingletonAPI.Instance; api.Start(); SingletonAPI api2 = SingletonAPI.Instance; // This was just for testing. api2.Start(); I get an error saying that I cannot start more than one instance.

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