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  • Implementing a Version check between an Abstract class and it's implementation

    - by Michael Stum
    I have this abstract class and concrete implementation (they are in different assemblies): public abstract class MyAbstractClass { private static readonly int MyAbstractClassVersion = 1; public abstract int ImplementedVersion { get; } protected MyAbstractClass() { CheckVersion(); } private void CheckVersion() { var message = string.Format( "MyAbstractClass implements Version {0}, concrete is Version {1}", RepositoryVersion, ImplementedVersion); if (!MyAbstractClassVersion.Equals(ImplementedVersion)) throw new InvalidOperationException(message); } } public class ConcreteClass : MyAbstractClass { public ConcreteClass() : base() { // ConcreteClass is guaranteed to have // a constructor that calls the base constructor // I just simplified the example } public override int ImplementedVersion { get { return 2; } } } As you see, I call CheckVersion() from the abstract constructor, to get rid of the "virtual member call in base constructor" message, but I am not sure if that's really the way to do it. Sure, it works, but that doesn't mean it will always work, will it? Also, I wonder if I can get the name of the Concrete Type from the CheckVersion() function? I know that adding new abstract members will force an error anyway (System.TypeLoadException) and I'm not sure if I want this type of strict Versioning, but I'm just curious how it would be done properly given only the abstract class and an implementation (I know I could do it by using interfaces and/or a Factory pattern).

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer works from Maven command line, but not from Eclipse?

    - by HDave
    I have Eclipse configured to use an external maven instance. Nonetheless I have an integration test that runs fine from the command line, but fails from within Eclipse. The error is a class Spring application context bean error: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type The culprit it a bean that sets property values using a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer. <!-- property settings for non-JNDI database connections --> <bean id="placeholderConfigUuid" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="systemPropertiesModeName" value="SYSTEM_PROPERTIES_MODE_OVERRIDE" /> <property name="location" value="classpath:database.properties" /> <property name="placeholderPrefix" value="$DS{" /> </bean> I know which bean is failing because it appears in the stack trace and because when I replace the $DS{hibernate.dialect} with a static value it works. I have two questions: 1) Since M2Eclipse is using the same Maven setup as the command line, why does one work and the other fail? 2) How to fix this? I really like the ability to run a single jUnit test from within Eclipse on demand.

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  • Animate absolutely positioned div, but stop if a condition is true?

    - by Alex
    Hello all, I have a div which I place at the top right-hand corner of a website, absolutely positioned at top: 0px and right : 0px. I want to use jquery's animate function to animate the div left or right a certain amount when a button is clicked, but stop the animation if at anytime, the div's offset to the left or right is less than a certain number. I want to do this to accomodate users who click the left or right buttons more than once, so that the div does not fly out of sight. How does one accomplish this? Below is my relevant css, html, and jquery code: CSS: #scorecardTwo { position:absolute; padding:5px; width: 300px; background-color:#E1E1E1; right:0px; top:0px; display:none; } HTML: <div id = "scorecardTwo"> <span id = "dealHolder"><a href="some/link">some text</a></span> <br /> <span id = "scoreHolder">some text</span> <br /> <button type="button" id="moveLeft">Left</button>&nbsp;<button type="button" id="moveRight">Right</button> </div> jQuery (at the moment): $("#scorecardTwo").fadeIn("slow"); $("#moveLeft").bind("click", function() { $("#scorecardTwo").animate({"right":"+=76%"}, "slow"); // how to stop animation if offset is less than appropriate number? }); $("#moveRight").bind("click", function() { $("#scorecardTwo").animate({"right" : "-=76%"}, "slow"); // how to stop animation if offset is less than appropriate number? });

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  • S3 browser upload via POST: unable to handle errors gracefully

    - by samf
    I am writing an app where I want the customer to be able to upload to Amazon S3 straight from the browser. I can make this work just fine. But when errors occur, I want to handle them more gracefully than splattering an XML document on the customer's screen. I have a scheme that I think would work, but it's failing. Here's what I'm trying: Create a form to do the upload, and store the form on S3 itself, in the same domain as the "action" attribute of the form. Redirect the customer to this form. Now their browser is sitting on https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/something. The page contains a hidden iframe. The form sets its target to the iframe. The load event handler looks at the contents of the iframe, and acts upon it. So, something like this: <iframe id="foo" name="foo" style="display: none" /> <form target="foo" action="https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/"> <input type="hidden" name="..." value="..." /> <input type="file" name="file" /> </form> with this javascript (using jquery): function handler() { var message = $("#foo").contents().find('message').text(); alert(message); } $("#foo").load(handler); Using firebug, I can see that the iframe contains an XML document, that contains a "message" node. However, the .find('message') always fails to find anything within the XML document. Notice that the action of the form has the same domain, port, and scheme as the document itself. So, I don't think that I should be running afoul of the same-origin policy. Right? But it fails every time. This is using Firefox and Google Chrome browsers. Thanks for any advice!

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  • The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

    - by Jed
    I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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  • Undefined test not working in javascript.

    - by James South
    I'm getting the error 'foo' is undefined. in my script when i test my function with an undefined parameter. As far as I understand, This shouldn't be happening. My calling code: //var foo var test = peachUI().stringIsNullOrEmpty(foo) ; My function (part of a larger framework). stringIsNullOrEmpty: function (testString) { /// <summary> /// Checks to see if a given string is null or empty. /// </summary> /// <param name="testString" type="String"> /// The string check against. /// </param> /// <returns type="Boolean" /> var $empty = true; if (typeof testString !== "undefined") { if (testString && typeof testString === "string") { if (testString.length > 0) { $empty = false; } } } return $empty; } Any ideas? Please note. I've had a good read of other similar questions before posting this one.

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  • C++ ulong to class method pointer and back

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hi guys, I'm using a hash table (source code by Google Inc) to store some method pointers defined as: typedef Object *(Executor::*expression_delegate_t)( vframe_t *, Node * ); Where obviously "Executor" is the class. The function prototype to insert some value to the hash table is: hash_item_t *ht_insert( hash_table_t *ht, ulong key, ulong data ); So basically i'm doing the insert double casting the method pointer: ht_insert( table, ASSIGN, reinterpret_cast<ulong>( (void *)&Executor::onAssign ) ); Where table is defined as a 'hash_table_t *' inside the declaration of the Executor class, ASSIGN is an unsigned long value, and 'onAssign' is the method I have to map. Now, Executor::onAssign is stored as an unsigned long value, its address in memory I think, and I need to cast back the ulong to a method pointer. But this code: hash_item_t* item = ht_find( table, ASSIGN ); expression_delegate_t delegate = reinterpret_cast < expression_delegate_t > (item->data); Gives me the following compilation error : src/executor.cpp:45: error: invalid cast from type ‘ulong’ to type ‘Object* (Executor::*)(vframe_t*, Node*)’ I'm using GCC v4.4.3 on a x86 GNU/Linux machine. Any hints?

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  • [IE6] Cannot upload non-existent file

    - by geff_chang
    I am asking the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/691323/trying-to-upload-a-non-existent-file-in-internet-explorer-form-is-not-submitted I'm not sure if the topic starter found a solution, since he did not post the answer. So, I'd like to ask you guys this question again. I have type=input in my form, and a submit button. If I type garbage input into the textbox (like the text "abc") in the file control's textbox, and click the submit button, the form is not submitted to the server. AND, no feedback is given to the user. Instead of this "Is-the-submit-button-broken?" behavior, is there a way I could notify the user that the file does not exist? (I am aware this is not possible, except with ActiveX, but I don't want to go into that) My client wants to hide the textbox of the file control, but I'm not sure if this is a good design. What do you guys suggest? (If it makes any difference, I am also using this jquery plugin: http://www.fyneworks.com/jquery/multiple-file-upload/)

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  • Why is Apache + Rails is spitting out two status headers for code 500?

    - by Daniel Beardsley
    I have a rails app that is working fine except for one thing. When I request something that doesn't exist (i.e. /not_a_controller_or_file.txt) and rails throws a "No Route matches..." exception, the response is this (blank line intentional): HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Thu, 02 Oct 2008 10:28:02 GMT Content-Type: text/html Content-Length: 122 Vary: Accept-Encoding Keep-Alive: timeout=15, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Status: 500 Internal Server Error Content-Type: text/html <html><body><h1>500 Internal Server Error</h1></body></html> I have the ExceptionLogger plugin in /vendor, though that doesn't seem to be the problem. I haven't added any error handling beyond the custom 500.html in public (though the response doesn't contain that HTML) and I have no idea where this bit of html is coming from. So Something, somewhere is adding that HTTP/1.1 200 status code too early, or the Status: 500 too late. I suspect it's Apache because I get the appropriate HTTP/1.1 500 header (at the top) when I use Webrick. My production stack is as follows: Apache 2 Mongrel (5 instances) RubyOnRails 2.1.1 (happens in both 1.2 and 2.1.1) I forgot to mention, the error is caused by a "no route matches..." exception

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  • Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

    - by DanM
    In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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  • C# Linq Select Problem in Method Chain.

    - by Gnought
    Note that the _src inherit IQueryable<U> and V inherit new(); I wrote the following statement, there is no syntax error. IQueryable<V> a = from s in _src where (s.Right - 1 == s.Left) select new V(); But if i re-wrote it as follows, the Visual Studio editor complains an error in the "Select" IQueryable<V> d = _src.Where(s => s.Right - 1 == s.Left).Select(s=> new V()); The Error is: The type arguments cannot be inferred from the usage. Try specifying the type arguments explicitly. Candidates are: System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<U>, System.Func<U,V>) (in class Enumerable) System.Linq.IQueryable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Linq.IQueryable<U>, System.Linq.Expressions.Expression<System.Func<U,V>>) (in class Queryable) Could anyone explain this phenomenon, and what the solution is to fix the error?

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  • VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

    - by LocoDelAssembly
    Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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  • std::map keys in C++

    - by Soumava
    I have a requirement to create two different maps in C++. The Key is of type CHAR * and the Value is a pointer to a struct. I am filling 2 maps with these pairs, in separate iterations. After creating both maps I need find all such instances in which the value of the string referenced by the CHAR * are same. For this i am using the following code : typedef struct _STRUCTTYPE { .. } STRUCTTYPE, *PSTRUCTTYPE; typedef pair {CHAR *,PSTRUCTTYPE} kvpair; .. CHAR *xyz; PSTRUCTTYPE abc; after filling the information; Map.insert (kvpair(xyz,abc)); the above is repeated x times for the first map, and y times for the second map. after both are filled out; std::map {CHAR *, PSTRUCTTYPE} :: iterator Iter,findIter; for (Iter=iteratedMap-begin();Iter!=iteratedMap-end();mapIterator++) { char *key = Iter-first; printf("%s\n",key); findIter=otherMap-find(key); //printf("%u",findIter-second); if (findIter!=otherMap-end()) { printf("Match!\n"); } } The above code does not show any match, although the list of keys in both maps show obvious matches. My understanding is that the equals operator for CHAR * just equates the memory address of the pointers. My question is, what should i do to alter the equals operator for this type of key or could I use a different datatype for the string? *note : {} has been used instead of angle brackets as the content inside angle brackets was not showing up in the post.

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  • How can i design a DB where the user can define the fields and types of a detail table in a M-D rela

    - by Simon
    My application has one table called 'events' and each event has approx 30 standard fields, but also user defined fields that could be any name or type, in an 'eventdata' table. Users can define these event data tables, by specifying x number of fields (either text/double/datetime/boolean) and the names of these fields. This 'eventdata' (table) can be different for each 'event'. My current approach is to create a lookup table for the definitions. So if i need to query all 'event' and 'eventdata' per record, i do so in a M-D relaitionship using two queries (i.e. select * from events, then for each record in 'events', select * from 'some table'). Is there a better approach to doing this? I have implemented this so far, but most of my queries require two distinct calls to the DB - i cannot simply join my master 'events' table with different 'eventdata' tables for each record in in 'events'. I guess my main question is: can i join my master table with different detail tables for each record? E.g. SELECT E.*, E.Tablename FROM events E LEFT JOIN 'E.tablename' T ON E._ID = T.ID If not, is there a better way to design my database considering i have no idea on how many user defined fields there may be and what type they will be.

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  • Passing the Class<T> in java of a generic list?

    - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett
    I have a method for reading JSON from a service, I'm using Gson to do my serialization and have written the following method using type parameters. public T getDeserializedJSON(Class<T> aClass,String url) { Reader r = getJSONDataAsReader(url); Gson gson = new Gson(); return gson.fromJson(r, aClass); } I'm consuming json which returns just an array of a type e.g. [ { "prop":"value" } { "prop":"value" } ] I have a java class which maps to this object let's call it MyClass. However to use my method I need to do this: RestClient<ArrayList<MyClass>> restClient = new RestClient<ArrayList<MyClass>>(); ArrayList<MyClass> results = restClient.getDeserializedJSON(ArrayList<MyClass>.class, url); However, I can't figure out the syntax to do it. Passing just ArrayList.class doesn't work. So is there a way I can get rid of the Class parameter or how do I get the class of the ArrayList of MyClass?

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  • jQuery class selector and click()

    - by Anonymous
    I'm currently trying to get an alert to happen when something is clicked. I can get it working in jsFiddle, but not in production code: jsFiddle example that works (jQuery 1.5 loaded) HTML (in case jsFiddle is inaccessible): <!DOCTYPE HTML><html><head><title>Test</title></head> <body> <h1>25 Feb 2011</h1><h3>ABC</h3><ul> <li class="todoitem">Test&mdash;5 minutes</li> </ul> </body></html> Javascript: $(".todoitem").click(function() { alert('Item selected'); }); Non-working production example: <!DOCTYPE HTML><html><head><title>Test</title> <script src="http://ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jQuery/jquery-1.5.1.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(".todoitem").click(function() { alert('Item selected'); }); </script> </head> <body> <h1>25 Feb 2011</h1><h3>ABC</h3><ul><li class="todoitem">Test&mdash;5 minutes</li></ul> </body> </html> Safari's Inspector indicate that jQuery is being loaded correctly, so that's not the issue. As far as I can tell, these two pieces of code are essentially identical, but the latter isn't working. Can anyone see what I've done wrong?

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  • Perl help dereferencing a reference to an array of hash references, containing record set data

    - by user1724150
    I'm using the a Amazon Perl module that returns a reference to an array of hash references as $record_sets, containing record set data and I'm having a hard time dereferencing it. I can print the data using data dumper but I need to be able to manipulate the data. Below is the documentation provided for the module Thanks In Advance: #list_resource_record_sets #Lists resource record sets for a hosted zone. #Called in scalar context: $record_sets = $r53->list_resource_record_sets(zone_id => '123ZONEID'); #Returns: A reference to an array of hash references, containing record set data. Example: $record_sets = [ { name => 'example.com.', type => 'MX' ttl => 86400, records => [ '10 mail.example.com' ] }, { name => 'example.com.', type => 'NS', ttl => 172800, records => [ 'ns-001.awsdns-01.net.', 'ns-002.awsdns-02.net.', 'ns-003.awsdns-03.net.', 'ns-004.awsdns-04.net.' ]

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  • Optimize Duplicate Detection

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background This is an optimization problem. Oracle Forms XML files have elements such as: <Trigger TriggerName="name" TriggerText="SELECT * FROM DUAL" ... /> Where the TriggerText is arbitrary SQL code. Each SQL statement has been extracted into uniquely named files such as: sql/module=DIAL_ACCESS+trigger=KEY-LISTVAL+filename=d_access.fmb.sql sql/module=REP_PAT_SEEN+trigger=KEY-LISTVAL+filename=rep_pat_seen.fmb.sql I wrote a script to generate a list of exact duplicates using a brute force approach. Problem There are 37,497 files to compare against each other; it takes 8 minutes to compare one file against all the others. Logically, if A = B and A = C, then there is no need to check if B = C. So the problem is: how do you eliminate the redundant comparisons? The script will complete in approximately 208 days. Script Source Code The comparison script is as follows: #!/bin/bash echo Loading directory ... for i in $(find sql/ -type f -name \*.sql); do echo Comparing $i ... for j in $(find sql/ -type f -name \*.sql); do if [ "$i" = "$j" ]; then continue; fi # Case insensitive compare, ignore spaces diff -IEbwBaq $i $j > /dev/null # 0 = no difference (i.e., duplicate code) if [ $? = 0 ]; then echo $i :: $j >> clones.txt fi done done Question How would you optimize the script so that checking for cloned code is a few orders of magnitude faster? System Constraints Using a quad-core CPU with an SSD; trying to avoid using cloud services if possible. The system is a Windows-based machine with Cygwin installed -- algorithms or solutions in other languages are welcome. Thank you!

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  • Easier way to populate form data and validation data in Code Igniter?

    - by John
    I'm new to code igniter. I'm following the form validation tutorial found at: http://www.codeignitor.com/user_guide/libraries/validation.html I find I am typing too much in the view to get the form to re-populate. For example, here's what one of my INPUT fields look like: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$this->validation->email ? $this->validation->email : $array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Basically, when the form first loads, it should show a value from the database. If the user alters the value and it fails validation, then the form should post the erroneously submitted value. Does code igniter have a "cleaner" way of rendering this kind of output? Otherwise, I'm going to do something like this in my controller: $array_db_values = getdbresults(); if($_POST['submit']) foreach($_POST as $key=>$val) $array_db_values[$key] = $val; That way, if postback data exists, it will always override database values. Then input fields in my view can simply be: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Is there a better/native CI way to handle this scenario?

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  • Solr return whether member is in multivalued field

    - by ??iu
    Is there any way to return in the fields list whether a value exists as one of the values of a multivalued field? E.g., if your schema is <schema> ... <field name="user_name" type="text" indexed="true" stored="true" required="true" /> <field name="follower" type="integer" indexed="true" stored="true" multiValued="true" /> ... </schema> A sample document might look like: <doc> <field name="user_name">tester blah</field> <field name="follower">1</field> <field name="follower">62</field> <field name="follower">63</field> <field name="follower">64</field> </doc> I would like to be able to query for, say, "tester" and follower:62 and have it match "tester blah" and have some indication of whether 62 is a follower or not in the results.

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  • return false is not working in my submit click

    - by kumar
    Hello friends. this is the code i am using for my Html.BeginForm.. $('#PbtnSubmit').click(function() { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').each(function() { if ($("#PricingEditExceptions input:checkbox:checked").length > 0) { var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[type=checkbox]:checked'); var PMstrIDs = checked.map(function() { return $(this).val(); }).get().join(','); $('#1_exceptiontypes').attr('value', exceptiontypes) $('#1_PMstrIDs').attr('value', PMstrIDs); } else { alert("Please select atleast one exception"); return false; } }); }); in else blcok my return false is not working after alert mesage also its going to my controler? thanks is this right? i tried like this $('#PbtnSubmit').click(function() { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').each(function() { if ($("#PricingEditExceptions input:checkbox:checked").length > 0) { var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[type=checkbox]:checked'); var PMstrIDs = checked.map(function() { return $(this).val(); }).get().join(','); $('#1_exceptiontypes').attr('value', exceptiontypes) $('#1_PMstrIDs').attr('value', PMstrIDs); } else { alert("Please select atleast one exception"); } }); return false; }); if i do like this on submit its doing nothing.. thanks

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  • Querying using table-valued parameter

    - by antmx
    I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

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  • How to ignore the validation of Unknown tags ?

    - by infant programmer
    One more challenge to the XSD capability,I have been sending XML files by my clients, which will be having 0 or more undefined or [call] unexpected tags (May appear in hierarchy). Well they are redundant tags for me .. so I have got to ignore their presence, but along with them there are some set of tags which are required to be validated. This is a sample XML: <root> <undefined_1>one</undefined_1> <undefined_2>two</undefined_2> <node>to_be_validated</node> <undefined_3>two</undefined_3> <undefined_4>two</undefined_4> </root> And the XSD I tried with: <xs:element name="root" type="root"></xs:element> <xs:complexType name="root"> <xs:sequence> <xs:any maxOccurs="2" minOccurs="0"/> <xs:element name="node" type="xs:string"/> <xs:any maxOccurs="2" minOccurs="0"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType XSD doesn't allow this, due to certain reasons. The above mentioned example is just a sample. The practical XML comes with the complex hierarchy of XML tags .. Kindly let me know if you can get a hack of it. By the way, The alternative solution is to insert XSL-transformation, before validation process. Well, I am avoiding it because I need to change the .Net code which triggers validation process, which is supported at the least by my company.

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  • Java servlet's request parameter's name set to entire json object

    - by Geren White
    I'm sending a json object through ajax to a java servlet. The json object is key-value type with three keys that point to arrays and a key that points to a single string. I build it in javascript like this: var jsonObject = {"arrayOne": arrayOne, "arrayTwo": arrayTwo, "arrayThree": arrThree, "string": stringVar}; I then send it to a java servlet using ajax as follows: httpRequest.open('POST', url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); var jsonString = jsonObject.toJSONString(); httpRequest.send(jsonString); This will send the string to my servlet, but It isn't showing as I expect it to. The whole json string gets set to the name of one of my request's parameters. So in my servlet if I do request.getParameterNames(); It will return an enumeration with one of the table entries' key's to be the entire object contents. I may be mistaken, but my thought was that it should set each key to a different parameter name. So I should have 4 parameters, arrayOne, arrayTwo, arrayThree, and string. Am I doing something wrong or is my thinking off here? Any help is appreciated. Thanks

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  • Ant Junit tests are running much slower via ant than via IDE - what to look at?

    - by Alex B
    I am running my junit tests via ant and they are running substantially slower than via the IDE. My ant call is: <junit fork="yes" forkmode="once" printsummary="off"> <classpath refid="test.classpath"/> <formatter type="brief" usefile="false"/> <batchtest todir="${test.results.dir}/xml"> <formatter type="xml"/> <fileset dir="src" includes="**/*Test.java" /> </batchtest> </junit> The same test that runs in near instantaneously in my IDE (0.067s) takes 4.632s when run through Ant. In the past, I've been able to speed up test problems like this by using the junit fork parameter but this doesn't seem to be helping in this case. What properties or parameters can I look at to speed up these tests? More info: I am using the reported time from the IDE vs. the time that the junit task outputs. This is not the sum total time reported at the end of the ant run. So, bizarrely, this problem has resolved itself. What could have caused this problem? The system runs on a local disk so that is not the problem.

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