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• Newbie - what do I need to do with httpd.conf to make CakePHP work correctly?

  - by EmmyS

  (Not sure if this belongs here or on webmasters; please move if necessary.) I'm a total newbie to Cake and not much better with apache; I've done a lot of PHP but always with a server that's already been set up by someone else. So I'm going through the basic blog tutorial, and it says: A Note On mod_rewrite Occasionally a new user will run in to mod_rewrite issues, so I'll mention them marginally here. If the Cake welcome page looks a little funny (no images or css styles), it probably means mod_rewrite isn't functioning on your system. Here are some tips to help get you up and running: Make sure that an .htaccess override is allowed: in your httpd.conf, you should have a section that defines a section for each Directory on your server. Make sure the AllowOverride is set to All for the correct Directory. Make sure you are editing the system httpd.conf rather than a user- or site-specific httpd.conf. For some reason or another, you might have obtained a copy of CakePHP without the needed .htaccess files. This sometimes happens because some operating systems treat files that start with '.' as hidden, and don't copy them. Make sure your copy of CakePHP is from the downloads section of the site or our SVN repository. Make sure you are loading up mod_rewrite correctly! You should see something like LoadModule rewrite_module libexec/httpd/mod_rewrite.so and AddModule mod_rewrite.c in your httpd.conf." I'm using XAMPP on linux. I've found my httpd.conf file in opt/lampp/ etc, but am not sure what I need to do with it. I've searched for "rewrite", and there's only one line: LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so There's nothing about AddModule mod_rewrite.c. Do I just create a Directory section for the directory I've installed Cake in and set AlllowOverride to All? (I created a separate subdirectory of my wwwroot and installed in there, since I also have installs of Joomla and CodeIgniter.) Is there anything else I need to do? My download of Cake did come with two htaccess-type files (._.htaccess and .htaccess) - do I need to do anything with them? Thanks for any help you can provide to this non-server-admin. EDIT TO ADD virtual host sample: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /www/docs/dummy-host.example.com ServerName dummy-host.example.com ServerAlias www.dummy-host.example.com ErrorLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-error_log CustomLog logs/dummy-host.example.com-access_log common </VirtualHost>

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• Paging & Sorting grids with ASP.Net MVC

  - by Scott Ivey

  I'm new to MVC, and am not following how you'd do paging and sorting on a grid. I'm used to using the asp.Net GridView control with an ObjectDataSource pointed at objects in our business layer - and in that case the ODS handles all of the paging & sorting using the methods that our ORM generates on the objects. I've looked at using the same ORM with MVC - and things work out fine there - i just loop thru the collections to build the table on the page - but without the ODS to handle the paging & sorting, i'm confused as to how I'd handle that. Would I have a separate controller for the paging and sorting? I'm not sure what the best practices are for this scenario, so if someone can point me in the right direction it would be much appreciated. Edit: Ok, so I understand that I need to roll my own - but where do I start? I've created a CustomerController, and a view that displays a table of customers that looks like below - and I want to sort on FirstName or LastName columns. My Model has a Sort() method on it that'll take a string sort expression in the format that would be used by a GridView/ODS pair. Would I create a new Action on my CustomerController called Sort, and put an ActionLink in my header? <table> <tr> <th> First Name </th> <th> Last Name </th> </tr> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FirstName) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.LastName) %> </td> </tr> <% } %> </table>

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• Grid sorting with persistent master sort

  - by MikeWyatt

  I have a UI with a grid. Each record in the grid is sorted by a "master" sort column, let's call it a page number. Each record is a story in a magazine. I want the user to be able to drag and drop a record to a new position in the grid and automatically update the page number field to reflect the updated position. Easy enough, right? Now imagine that I also want to have the grid sortable by any other column (story title, section, author name, etc.). How does the drag and drop operation work now? Revert to page number sort during or after the drag and drop operation? This could confuse the user (why did my sort just change?). It would also result in arbitrary row positioning. Would the story now be before the row that was after it when the user dropped it? Or, would it be after the row that was before it? Those rows may now be widely separated after the master order sort. Disable the drag and drop feature if the grid isn't currently sorted by the page number? This would be easy, but the user might wonder why he can't drag and drop at certain times. Knowing to first sort by page number may not be very intuitive. Let the user rearrange his rows, but not make any changes to the page number? Require the user to enter a "Arrange Stories" mode, in which the grid sort is temporarily switched to page number and drag and drop is enabled? They would then exit the mode, and the previous sort would be reapplied. The big difference between this and the second option is that it would be more explicit than simply clicking on a column header. Any other ideas, or reasons why one of the above is the way to go? EDIT I'd like to point out that any of the above is technically possible, and easy to implement. My question is design-related. What is the most intuitive way to solve this problem, from the user's perspective?

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• Format form fields for bootstrap using rails+nokogiri

  - by user1116573

  I have the following in an initializer in a rails app that uses Twitter bootstrap so that it removes the div.field_with_errors that rails applies when validation fails on a field but also the initializer adds the help/validation text after the erroneous input field: require 'nokogiri' ActionView::Base.field_error_proc = Proc.new do |html_tag, instance| html = %(<div class="field_with_errors">#{html_tag}</div>).html_safe form_fields = [ 'textarea', 'input', 'select' ] elements = Nokogiri::HTML::DocumentFragment.parse(html_tag).css("label, " + form_fields.join(', ')) elements.each do |e| if e.node_name.eql? 'label' html = %(#{e}).html_safe elsif form_fields.include? e.node_name if instance.error_message.kind_of?(Array) html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message.join(',')}</span>).html_safe else html = %(#{e}<span class="help-inline">&nbsp;#{instance.error_message}</span>).html_safe end end end html end This works fine but I also need to apply the .error class to the surrounding div.control-group for each error. My initializer currently gives the following output: <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> but I need something adding to my initializer so that it adds the .error class to the div.control-group like so: <div class="control-group error"> <label class="control-label" for="post_message">Message</label> <div class="controls"> <input id="post_message" name="post[message]" required="required" size="30" type="text" value="" /><span class="help-inline">&nbsp;can't be blank</span> </div> </div> The solution will probably need to allow for the fact that each validation error could have more than one label and input that are all within the same div.control-group (eg radio buttons / checkboxes / 2 text fields side by side). I assume it needs some sort of e.at_xpath() to find the div.control-group parent and add the .error class to it but I'm not sure how to do this. Can anyone help? PS This may all be possible using the formtastic or simple_form gems but I'd rather just use my own html if possible. EDIT If I put e['class'] = 'foo' in the if e.node_name.eql? 'label' section then it applies the class to the label so I think I just need to find the parent tag of e and then apply an .error class to it but I can't figure out what the xpath would be to get from label to its div.control-group parent; no combination of dots, slashes or whatever seems to work but xpath isn't my strong point.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2: Linq to SQL entity w/ ForeignKey relationship and Default ModelBinder strangeness

  - by Simon

  Once again I'm having trouble with Linq to Sql and the MVC Model Binder. I have Linq to Sql generated classes, to illustrate them they look similar to this: public class Client { public int ClientID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Site { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class User { public int UserID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int? ClientID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Client> Client { get; set; } public int? SiteID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Site> Site { get; set; } } The 'User' has a relationship with the 'Client' and 'Site . The User class has nullable ClientIDs and SiteIDs because the admin users are not bound to a Client or Site. Now I have a view where a user can edit a 'User' object, the view has fields for all the 'User' properties. When the form is submitted, the appropiate 'Save' action is called in my UserController: public ActionResult Save(User user, FormCollection form) { //form['SiteID'] == 1 //user.SiteID == 1 //form['ClientID'] == 1 //user.ClientID == null } The problem here is that the ClientID is never set, it is always null, even though the value is in the FormCollection. To figure out whats going wrong I set breakpoints for the ClientID and SiteID getters and setters in the Linq to Sql designer generated classes. I noticed the following: SiteID is being set, then ClientID is being set, but then the Client EntityRef property is being set with a null value which in turn is setting the ClientID to null too! I don't know why and what is trying to set the Client property, because the Site property setter is never beeing called, only the Client setter is being called. Manually setting the ClientID from the FormCollection like this: user.ClientID = int.Parse(form["ClientID"].ToString()); throws a 'ForeignKeyReferenceAlreadyHasValueException', because it was already set to null before. The only workaround I have found is to extend the generated partial User class with a custom method: Client = default(EntityRef<Client>) but this is not a satisfying solution. I don't think it should work like this? Please enlighten me someone. So far Linq to Sql is driving me crazy! Best regards

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• Problems with creating and using of delegate-protocols

  - by Flocked

  Hello, I have the problem that I have created a delegate protocol, but the necessary methods are not executed, although I have implemented the protocol in my header file. Here are the detailed explanation: I created an instance of my ViewController (TimeLineViewController), which will be displayed. This ViewController contains a UITableView, which in turn receives the individual Cells / Rows from one instance of my TableViewCell. So the ViewController creates an instance of TableCellView. The TableViewCell contains a UITextView, which contains web links. Now I want, that not safari opens the links, but my own built-in browser. Unfortunately TableViewCell can not open a new ViewController with a WebView, so I decided to create a delegate protocol. The whole thing looks like this: WebViewTableCellDelegate.h: @protocol WebViewTableCellDelegate -(void)loadWeb; @end Then I created a instance WebViewDelegate in the TableViewCell: id <WebViewTableCellDelegate> _delegate; In the .m of the TableViewCell: @interface UITextView (Override) @end @class WebView, WebFrame; @protocol WebPolicyDecisionListener; @implementation UITextView (Override) - (void)webView:(WebView *)webView decidePolicyForNavigationAction:(NSDictionary *)actionInformation request:(NSURLRequest *)request frame:(WebFrame *)frame decisionListener:(id < WebPolicyDecisionListener >)listener { NSLog(@"request: %@", request); [_delegate loadWeb]; } @end - (void)setDelegate:(id <WebViewTableCellDelegate>)delegate{ _delegate = delegate;} And in my TimeLineViewController I implemented the protocol with < and the loadWeb-metode: - (void)loadWeb{ WebViewController *web = [[WebViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; web.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController: web animated:YES]; [web release]; } And when the instance of the TableViewCell will be created in the TimelineViewController: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *MyIdentifier = @"MyIdentifier"; MyIdentifier = @"tableCell"; TableViewCell *cell = (TableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:MyIdentifier]; if(cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"TableViewCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = tableCell;} [cell setDelegate:self]; //… } It is the first time I created a own delegate-protocol, so maybe there are stupid mistakes. Also I´m learnung Objective-C and programming generally only for 4 weeks. Thanks for your help! EDIT: I think i found the problem, but I dont know how to resolve it. I try to use [_delegate loadWeb]; in the subclass of the UITextView (because that is the only way i can react on the weblinks) and the subclass can´t use [_delegate loadWeb];. I tried this in a other methode and it worked.

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• Looping through array in PHP to post several multipart form-data

  - by Léon Pelletier

  I'm trying in an asp web application to code a function that would loop through a list of files in a multiple upload form and send them one by one. Is this something that can be done in ASP? Because I've read some posts about how to attach several files together, but saw nothing about looping through the files. I can easily imagine it in C# via HttpWebRequest or with socket, but in php, I guess there are already function designed to handle it? // This is false/pseudo-code :) for (int index = 0; index < number_of_files; index++) { postfile(file[index]); } And in each iteration, it should send a multipart form-data POST. postfile(TheFileInfos) should make a POST like it: POST /afs.aspx?fn=upload HTTP/1.1 [Header stuff] Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=----------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 [Header stuff] ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="Filename" myimage1.png ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="fileid" 58e21ede4ead43a5201206101806420000007667212251 ------------Ef1Ef1cH2Ij5GI3ae0gL6KM7GI3GI3 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="Filedata"; filename="myimage1.png" Content-Type: application/octet-stream [Octet Stream] [Edit] I'll try it: <html> <head> <title>Untitled Document</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1"> </head> <body> <form name="form1" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post" action="processFiles.php"> <p> <? // start of dynamic form $uploadNeed = $_POST['uploadNeed']; for($x=0;$x<$uploadNeed;$x++){ ?> <input name="uploadFile<? echo $x;?>" type="file" id="uploadFile<? echo $x;?>"> </p> <? // end of for loop } ?> <p><input name="uploadNeed" type="hidden" value="<? echo $uploadNeed;?>"> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </p> </form> </body> </html>

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• Wordpress pages address rewrite

  - by kemp

  UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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• Assembly Load and loading the "sub-modules" dependencies - "cannot fild the file specified"

  - by Ted

  There are several questions out there that ask the same question. However the answers they received I cannot understand, so here goes: Similar questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1874277/dynamically-load-assembly-and-manually-force-path-to-get-referenced-assemblies ; http://stackoverflow.com/questions/22012/loading-assemblies-and-its-dependencies-closed The question in short: I need to figure out how dependencies, ie References in my modules can be loaded dynamically. Right now I am getting "The system cannot find the file specified" on Assemblies referenced in my so called modules. I cannot really get how to use the AssemblyResolve event... The longer version I have one application, MODULECONTROLLER, that loads separate modules. These "separate modules" are located in well-known subdirectories, like appBinDir\Modules\Module1 appBinDir\Modules\Module2 Each directory contains all the DLLs that exists in the bin-directory of those projects after a build. So the MODULECONTROLLER loads all the DLLs contained in those folders using this code: byte[] bytes = File.ReadAllBytes(dllFileFullPath); Assembly assembly = null; assembly = Assembly.Load(bytes); I am, as you can see, loading the byte[]-array (so I dont lock the DLL-files). Now, in for example MODULE1, I have a static reference called MyGreatXmlProtocol. The MyGreatXmlProtocol.dll then also exists in the directory appBinDir\Modules\Module1 and is loaded using the above code When code in the MODULE1 tries to use this MyGreatXmlProtocol, I get: Could not load file or assembly 'MyGreatXmlProtocol, Version=1.0.3797.26527, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. So, in a post (like this one) they say that To my understanding reflection will load the main assembly and then search the GAC for the referenced assemblies, if it cannot find it there, you can then incorparate an assemblyResolve event: First; is it really needed to use the AssemblyResolve-event to make this work? Shouldnt my different MODULEs themself load their DLLs, as they are statically referenced? Second; if AssemblyResolve is the way to go - how do I use it? I have attached a handler to the Event but I never get anything on MyGreatXmlProctol... === EDIT === CODE regarding the AssemblyResolve-event handler: public GUI() { InitializeComponent(); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); ... } // Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { Console.WriteLine(args.Name); return null; } Hope I wasnt too fuzzy =) Thx

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• Changing an Action Type="click" to an auto action in SVG

  - by Dustin Myers

  I have a SVG document that I exported from Visio 2003 that would like to edit. This file has an action where you click a button it will navigate to a new screen. What I would like to do is have the navigation be based off of a data point rather than having to click the button. As an example I have a dynamic point data being brought into the SVG file and when that value changes from 0 to 1, I want this screen to automatically navigate to another screen. Below is the code I for clicking the button. <title content="structured text">Sheet.1107</title> <desc content="structured text">Button 1</desc> <v:custProps> <v:cp v:ask="false" v:langID="1033" v:invis="false" v:cal="0" v:val="VT4(Test Graphic 2)" v:type="0" v:prompt="" v:nameU="ObjRef" v:sortKey="" v:lbl="" v:format=""/> <v:cp v:ask="false" v:langID="1033" v:invis="false" v:cal="0" v:val="VT4(SF-S)" v:type="0" v:prompt="" v:nameU="DataPt" v:sortKey="" v:lbl="" v:format=""/> </v:custProps> <v:userDefs> <v:ud v:prompt="" v:nameU="NAVIGATE" v:val="VT4(NAVIGATE Test Graphic 2,&apos;&apos;,)"/> </v:userDefs> <v:textBlock v:margins="rect(4,4,4,4)"/> <v:textRect width="125.01" height="35" cx="62.5" cy="517.5"/> <rect x="0" width="125" y="500" height="35" class="st3"/> <text x="40.15" y="521.1" v:langID="1033" class="st4"><v:paragraph v:horizAlign="1"/><v:tabList/>Button 1</text> <jci:action type="click" count="1">if(evt.button == 0) nav(&apos;Test Graphic 2&apos;,&apos;&apos;,&apos;&apos;);</jci:action></g></a> In the above code I am bringing in the data value from SF-S. Once that value is equal to 1 I want this screen to automatically navigate to Test Graphic 2. I don't have any experience with coding so I am hoping someone here will be able to help me. Thanks, DMyers

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• How to check for local Wi-Fi (not just cellular connection) using iPhone SDK?

  - by Michael

  I'm currently using the following to check whether Wi-Fi is available for my application: #import <SystemConfiguration/SystemConfiguration.h> static inline BOOL addressReachable(const struct sockaddr_in *hostAddress); BOOL localWiFiAvailable() { struct sockaddr_in localWifiAddress; bzero(&localWifiAddress, sizeof(localWifiAddress)); localWifiAddress.sin_len = sizeof(localWifiAddress); localWifiAddress.sin_family = AF_INET; // IN_LINKLOCALNETNUM is defined in <netinet/in.h> as 169.254.0.0 localWifiAddress.sin_addr.s_addr = htonl(IN_LINKLOCALNETNUM); return addressReachable(&localWifiAddress); } static inline BOOL addressReachable(const struct sockaddr_in *hostAddress) { const SCNetworkReachabilityRef target = SCNetworkReachabilityCreateWithAddress(kCFAllocatorDefault, (const struct sockaddr *)hostAddress); if (target != NULL) { SCNetworkReachabilityFlags flags = 0; const BOOL reachable = SCNetworkReachabilityGetFlags(target, &flags); CFRelease(target); return reachable && (flags & kSCNetworkFlagsReachable); } return NO; } This, however, does not return NO as it should when the iPhone is connected only to a cellular network but not a Wi-Fi network. Does anyone know how to fix this? Edit So this is what I ended up using: #import <arpa/inet.h> // For AF_INET, etc. #import <ifaddrs.h> // For getifaddrs() #import <net/if.h> // For IFF_LOOPBACK BOOL localWiFiAvailable() { struct ifaddrs *addresses; struct ifaddrs *cursor; BOOL wiFiAvailable = NO; if (getifaddrs(&addresses) != 0) return NO; cursor = addresses; while (cursor != NULL) { if (cursor -> ifa_addr -> sa_family == AF_INET && !(cursor -> ifa_flags & IFF_LOOPBACK)) // Ignore the loopback address { // Check for WiFi adapter if (strcmp(cursor -> ifa_name, "en0") == 0) { wiFiAvailable = YES; break; } } cursor = cursor -> ifa_next; } freeifaddrs(addresses); return wiFiAvailable; } Thanks "unforgiven" (and Matt Brown apparently).

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• How do I update with a newly-created detached entity using NHibernate?

  - by Daniel T.

  Explanation: Let's say I have an object graph that's nested several levels deep and each entity has a bi-directional relationship with each other. A -> B -> C -> D -> E Or in other words, A has a collection of B and B has a reference back to A, and B has a collection of C and C has a reference back to B, etc... Now let's say I want to edit some data for an instance ofC. In Winforms, I would use something like this: var instanceOfC; using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // get the instance of C with Id = 3 instanceOfC = session.Linq<C>().Where(x => x.Id == 3); } SendToUIAndLetUserUpdateData(instanceOfC); using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // re-attach the detached entity and update it session.Update(instanceOfC); } In plain English, we grab a persistent instance out of the database, detach it, give it to the UI layer for editing, then re-attach it and save it back to the database. Problem: This works fine for Winform applications because we're using the same entity all throughout, the only difference being that it goes from persistent to detached to persistent again. The problem occurs when I'm using a web service and a browser, sending over JSON data. In this case, the data that comes back is no longer a detached entity, but rather a transient one that just happens to have the same ID as the persistent one. If I use this entity to update, it will wipe out the relationship to B and D unless I sent the entire object graph over to the UI and got it back in one piece. Question: My question is, how do I serialize detached entities over the web, receive them back, and save them, while preserving any relationships that I didn't explicitly change? I know about ISession.SaveOrUpdateCopy and ISession.Merge() (they seem to do the same thing?), but this will still wipe out the relationships if I don't explicitly set them. I could copy the fields from the transient entity to the persistent entity one by one, but this doesn't work too well when it comes to relationships and I'd have to handle version comparisons manually.

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• Stepping into Ruby Meta-Programming: Generating proxy methods for multiple internal methods

  - by mstksg

  Hi all; I've multiply heard Ruby touted for its super spectacular meta-programming capabilities, and I was wondering if anyone could help me get started with this problem. I have a class that works as an "archive" of sorts, with internal methods that process and output data based on an input. However, the items in the archive in the class itself are represented and processed with integers, for performance purposes. The actual items outside of the archive are known by their string representation, which is simply number_representation.to_s(36). Because of this, I have hooked up each internal method with a "proxy method" that converts the input into the integer form that the archive recognizes, runs the internal method, and converts the output (either a single other item, or a collection of them) back into strings. The naming convention is this: internal methods are represented by _method_name; their corresponding proxy method is represented by method_name, with no leading underscore. For example: class Archive ## PROXY METHODS ## ## input: string representation of id's ## output: string representation of id's def do_something_with id result = _do_something_with id.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 result = _do_something_with_pair id_1.to_i(36), id_2.to_i(36) return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def do_something_with_these ids result = _do_something_with_these ids.map { |n| n.to_i(36) } return nil if result == nil return result.to_s(36) end def get_many_from id result = _get_many_from id return nil if result == nil # no sparse arrays returned return result.map { |n| n.to_s(36) } end ## INTERNAL METHODS ## ## input: integer representation of id's ## output: integer representation of id's def _do_something_with id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returning an id represented as an integer end def do_something_with_pair id_1,id_2 # does something with two integer-represented id's, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _do_something_with_these ids # does something with multiple integer ids, # returning an id represented as an integer end def _get_many_from id # does something with one integer-represented id, # returns a collection of id's represented as integers end end There are a couple of reasons why I can't just convert them if id.class == String at the beginning of the internal methods: These internal methods are somewhat computationally-intensive recursive functions, and I don't want the overhead of checking multiple times at every step There is no way, without adding an extra parameter, to tell whether or not to re-convert at the end I want to think of this as an exercise in understanding ruby meta-programming Does anyone have any ideas? edit The solution I'd like would preferably be able to take an array of method names @@PROXY_METHODS = [:do_something_with, :do_something_with_pair, :do_something_with_these, :get_many_from] iterate through them, and in each iteration, put out the proxy method. I'm not sure what would be done with the arguments, but is there a way to test for arguments of a method? If not, then simple duck typing/analogous concept would do as well.

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• Changing Data in ListView

  - by legr3c

  Hi In my app I use a ListView to display data from the database. The data changes sometimes, for example when the user applies new filters or changes the sorting method. I use AsyncTask to get the databsase cursor that points to the new data set because sometimes data needs to be loaded from the net which can take some time. What I do now looks something like this: private class updateTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { /* * runs on the UI thread before doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ // prepare some stuff... } /* * runs in a separate thread * used for time-consuming loading operation */ @Override protected Void doInBackground() { //get new database cursor mCursor = mDbAdapter.getCursor(); return null; } /* * runs on the UI thread after doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result){ if(mCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.startManagingCursor(mCursor); mCursorAdapter = new MyCustomCursorAdapter(MyActivity.this, mCursor); mListView.setAdapter(mCursorAdapter); } } } This works so far but I realize that creating a new CursorAdapter and calling setAdapter on my ListView each time isn't the correct way to do it. Also, after setAdapter the scroll position of the list is set back to the top. I found this post which describes how to do it properly. So now I want to do something like this: onCreate(){ // ... // create the CursorAdapter using null as the initial cursor MyCustomCursorAdapter cursorAdapter = new MyCustomCursorAdapter(this, null); mListView.setAdapter(cursorAdapter); // ... } private class updateTask extends AsyncTask<Void, Void, Void> { /* * runs on the UI thread before doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPreExecute(){ // prepare some stuff... } /* * runs in a separate thread * used for time-consuming loading operation */ @Override protected Void doInBackground() { //get new database cursor mCursor = mDbAdapter.getCursor(); return null; } /* * runs on the UI thread after doInBackground */ @Override protected void onPostExecute(Void result){ // this returns null! MyCustomCursorAdapter cursorAdapter = (MyCustomCursorAdapter)mListView.getAdapter(); Cursor oldCursor = cursorAdapter.getCursor(); if(oldCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.stopManagingCursor(oldCursor); oldCursor.close(); } if(mCursor!=null){ MyActivity.this.startManagingCursor(mCursor); cursorAdapter.changeCursor(mCursor); } } } This however doesn't work for me because (MyCustomCursorAdapter)mListView.getAdapter(); always returns null. Why does this happen? What am I doing wrong? Edit: Some additional information: my adapter implements SectionIndexer. I don't really think that this has anything to do with my problem but it has caused me some troubles before so I thought I'd mention it.

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• I want to set the AutoCompleteMode property in ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl subroutine

  - by Ranjan Gupta

  Hi, I am creating a DataGridView Column. and it is working well. now I want to customise this column with AutoCompleteMode, and AutoCompleteSource properties to show the customised data. I made the properties for this columns, and these are also working well. but these properties are not working in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Please help me to use these column properties in the "ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl" subroutine. Public Class DataGridViewDataValueColumn Inherits DataGridViewColumn Dim m_AutoCompleteMode As AutoCompleteMode, _ m_AutoCompleteSource As AutoCompleteSource, _ m_AutoCompleteStringCollection As AutoCompleteStringCollection Public Sub New() MyBase.New(New DataValueCell()) End Sub Public Overrides Property CellTemplate() As DataGridViewCell Get Return MyBase.CellTemplate End Get Set(ByVal value As DataGridViewCell) ' Ensure that the cell used for the template is a DataValueCell. If (value IsNot Nothing) AndAlso _ Not value.GetType().IsAssignableFrom(GetType(DataValueCell)) _ Then Throw New InvalidCastException("Must be a DataValueCell") End If MyBase.CellTemplate = value End Set End Property Region "User Defined Properties" '&*--------------------------------------*&' <Description("Indicates the text completion behaviour of the combo box."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteMode.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteMode() As AutoCompleteMode Get Return m_AutoCompleteMode End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteMode) m_AutoCompleteMode = value End Set End Property <Description("The source of complete strings used to automatic completion."), DefaultValue(AutoCompleteSource.None)> _ Public Property AutoCompleteSource() As AutoCompleteSource Get Return m_AutoCompleteSource End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteSource) m_AutoCompleteSource = value End Set End Property <Description("The autocomplete custom source.")> _ Public Property AutoCompleteCustomSource() As AutoCompleteStringCollection Get Return m_AutoCompleteStringCollection End Get Set(ByVal value As AutoCompleteStringCollection) m_AutoCompleteStringCollection = value End Set End Property End Region End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class DataValueCell Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxCell Public Sub New() ' End Sub Public Overrides ReadOnly Property EditType As Type Get Return GetType(PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl) End Get End Property End Class '&*--------------------------------------*&' '&* Edit DataGridView Columns *&' '&*--------------------------------------*&' Class PCLDataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Inherits DataGridViewTextBoxEditingControl Public Overrides Function EditingControlWantsInputKey(ByVal keyData As Keys, ByVal dataGridViewWantsInputKey As Boolean) As Boolean Select Case ((keyData And Keys.KeyCode)) Case Keys.Prior, Keys.Next, Keys.End, Keys.Home, Keys.Left, Keys.Up, Keys.Right, Keys.Down, Keys.Delete Return True End Select Return MyBase.EditingControlWantsInputKey(keyData, dataGridViewWantsInputKey) End Function Public Overrides Sub ApplyCellStyleToEditingControl(ByVal dataGridViewCellStyle As DataGridViewCellStyle) With DirectCast(Me, TextBox) '.AutoCompleteMode = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteMode_Value '.AutoCompleteSource = DataGridViewDataValueColumn.AutoCompleteSource_Value '.AutoCompleteCustomSource = MyBase.AutoCompleteCustomSource End With End Sub End Class

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• Few doubts regarding Bitmaps , Images & `using` blocks

  - by imageWorker

  I caught up in this problem. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2559826/garbage-collector-not-doing-its-job-memory-consumption-1-5gb-outofmemory-exc I feel that there is something wrong in my understanding. Please clarify these things. Destructor & IDisposable.Dispose are two methods for freeing resources that are not not under the control of .NET. Which means, everything except memory. right? using blocks are just better way of calling IDisposable.Dispose() method of an object. This is the main code I'm referring to. class someclass { static someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //statement1 // some code here and return } } here is class I'm using for testing: class someotherClass { public static voide Main() { foreach (string imagePath in imagePathsArray) { using (Bitmap img1 = new Bitmap(imagePath)) { someclass.someMethod(img1); // does some more processing on `img1` } } } } Is there any memory leak with statement1? Question1: If each image size is say 10MB. Then does this bmp object occupy atleast 10MB? What I mean is, will it make completely new copy of entire image? or just refer to it? Question2:should I or should I not put the statement1 in using block? My Argument: We should not. Because using is not for freeing memory but for freeing the resources (file handle in this case). If I use it in using block. It closes file handle here encapsulated by this bmp object. It means we are also closing filehandle for the caller's img1 object. Which is not correct? As of the memory leak. No there is no scope of memory leak here. Because reference bmp is destroyed when this method is returned. Which leaves memory it refered without any pointer. So, its garbage collected. Am I right? Edit: class someclass { static Bitmap someMethod(Bitmap img) { Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(img); //can I use `using` block on this enclosing `return bmp`; ??? // do some processing on bmp here return bmp; } }

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• Subband decomposition using Daubechies filter

  - by misha

  I have the following two 8-tap filters: h0 ['-0.010597', '0.032883', '0.030841', '-0.187035', '-0.027984', '0.630881', '0.714847', '0.230378'] h1 ['-0.230378', '0.714847', '-0.630881', '-0.027984', '0.187035', '0.030841', '-0.032883', '-0.010597'] Here they are on a graph: I'm using it to obtain the approximation (lower subband of an image). This is a(m,n) in the following diagram: I got the coefficients and diagram from the book Digital Image Processing, 3rd Edition, so I trust that they are correct. The star symbol denotes one dimensional convolution (either over rows or over columns). The down arrow denotes downsampling in one dimension (either over rows, or columns). My problem is that the filter coefficients for h0 and h1 sum to greater than 1 (approximately 1.4 or sqrt(2) to be exact). Naturally, if I convolve any image with the filter, the image will get brighter. Indeed, here's what I get (expected result on right): Can somebody suggest what the problem is here? Why should it work if the convolution filter coefficients sum to greater than 1? I have the source code, but it's quite long so I'm hoping to avoid posting it here. If it's absolutely necessary, I'll put it up later. EDIT What I'm doing is: Decompose into subbands Filter one of the subbands Recompose subbands into original image Note that the point isn't just to have a displayable subband-decomposed image -- I have to be able to perfectly reconstruct the original image from the subbands as well. So if I scale the filtered image in order to compensate for my decomposition filter making the image brighter, this is what I will have to do: Decompose into subbands Apply intensity scaling Filter one of the subbands Apply inverse intensity scaling Recompose subbands into original image Step 2 performs the scaling. This is what @Benjamin is suggesting. The problem is that then step 4 becomes necessary, or the original image will not be properly reconstructed. This longer method will work. However, the textbook explicitly says that no scaling is performed on the approximation subband. Of course, it's possible that the textbook is wrong. However, what's more possible is I'm misunderstanding something about the way this all works -- this is why I'm asking this question.

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• On Click alert if $.get returns a value, if not, submit the form

  - by bradenkeith

  If the submit button is clicked, prevent the default action and see if the field 'account_name' is already in use. If the $.get() returns a result, alert the user of the results. If it doesn't, submit form with id="add_account_form". My problem is that my else{} statement is not submitting the form. I get no response when submit is clicked & there is no value returned. Also I would like to change my code where it goes $("#add_account_form").submit(..) instead of .click() however, would that cause a problem when trying to submit the form later in the script? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function () { $("#submit").click( function () { var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: account_name}, function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." ); }else{ $("#add_account_form").submit(); } }); return false; }); }); </script> <p> <input type="submit" id="submit" class="submit small" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form> Thanks for your help. EDIT So anyone who runs into my problems, it's that $.get() is asynchronous, so it will always return false, or true depending on what submitForm is defined as. $.ajax() however, allows async to be set as false, which allows the function to finish before moving on. See what I mean: $(document).ready( function () { $("#add_account_form").submit( function () { var submitForm = true; var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", async: false, url: "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", data: ({account_name: account_name}), success: function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ if(!confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." )){ submitForm = false; } } } }); if (submitForm == false ) { return false; } }); }); Thanks for your help @Dan

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• How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

  - by Larry Gritz

  What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

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• Mysql select - improve performances

  - by realshadow

  Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated. Edit: Here is the explain +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | products_loans | range | CENA_OD,CENA_DO,KOD | KOD | 92 | NULL | 190158 | Using where | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ I have tried the combined index and it improved the performance on the test server from 0.44 sec to 0.06 sec, I cant access the production server from home though, so I will have to try it tomorrow.

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• One registry key for many products not deleted on uninstall

  - by NC1

  My company has many products, we want to create a registry key Software\$(var.Manufacturer)that will have all of our products if our customers have installed more than one (which is likely) I then want to have a secondary key for each of our products which get removed on uninstall but the main one does not. I have tried to achieve this like below but my main key gets deleted so all of my other products also get deleted from the registry. I know this is trivial but I cannot find an answer. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" Permanent="yes"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" Action="createAndRemoveOnUninstall"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> EDIT: I have got my registry keys to stay using the following code. However they only all delete wen all products are deleted, not one by one as they need to. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="FF75CA48-27DE-430E-B78F-A1DC9468D699" Permanent="yes" Shared="yes" Win64="$(var.Win64)"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="D94FA576-970F-4503-B6C6-BA6FBEF8A60A" Win64="$(var.Win64)" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" ForceDeleteOnUninstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef>

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• JavaScript regular expression literal persists between function calls

  - by Charles Anderson

  I have this piece of code: function func1(text) { var pattern = /([\s\S]*?)(\<\?(?:attrib |if |else-if |else|end-if|search |for |end-for)[\s\S]*?\?\>)/g; var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { if (some condition) { throw new Error('failed'); } ... } } This works, unless the throw statement is executed. In that case, the next time I call the function, the exec() call starts where it left off, even though I am supplying it with a new value of 'text'. I can fix it by writing var pattern = new RegExp('.....'); instead, but I don't understand why the first version is failing. How is the regular expression persisting between function calls? (This is happening in the latest versions of Firefox and Chrome.) Edit Complete test case: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>Test Page</title> <style type='text/css'> body { font-family: sans-serif; } #log p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </style> <script type='text/javascript'> function func1(text, count) { var pattern = /(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|eight)/g; log("func1"); var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { log("result[0] = " + result[0] + ", pattern.index = " + pattern.index); if (--count <= 0) { throw "Error"; } } } function go() { try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 3); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 99); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } } function log(msg) { var log = document.getElementById('log'); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = msg; log.appendChild(p); } </script> </head> <body><div> <input type='button' id='btnGo' value='Go' onclick='go();'> <hr> <div id='log'></div> </div></body> </html> The regular expression continues with 'four' as of the second call on FF and Chrome, not on IE7 or Opera.

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• User has many computers, computers have many attributes in different tables, best way to JOIN?

  - by krismeld

  I have a table for users: USERS: ID | NAME | ---------------- 1 | JOHN | 2 | STEVE | a table for computers: COMPUTERS: ID | USER_ID | ------------------ 13 | 1 | 14 | 1 | a table for processors: PROCESSORS: ID | NAME | --------------------------- 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | and a table for harddrives: HARDDRIVES: ID | NAME | ---------------------------| 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 36 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 90 | Each computer can have many attributes from the different attributes tables (processors, harddrives etc), so I have intersection tables like this, to link the attributes to the computers: COMPUTER_PROCESSORS: C_ID | P_ID | --------------| 13 | 27 | 13 | 28 | 14 | 27 | COMPUTER_HARDDRIVES: C_ID | H_ID | --------------| 13 | 35 | So user JOHN, with id 1 owns computer 13 and 14. Computer 13 has processor 27 and 28, and computer 13 has harddrive 35. Computer 14 has processor 27 and no harddrive. Given a user's id, I would like to retrieve a list of that user's computers with each computers attributes. I have figured out a query that gives me a somewhat of a result: SELECT computers.id, processors.id AS p_id, processors.name AS p_name, harddrives.id AS h_id, harddrives.name AS h_name, FROM computers JOIN computer_processors ON (computer_processors.c_id = computers.id) JOIN processors ON (processors.id = computer_processors.p_id) JOIN computer_harddrives ON (computer_harddrives.c_id = computers.id) JOIN harddrives ON (harddrives.id = computer_harddrives.h_id) WHERE computers.user_id = 1 Result: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | But this has several problems... Computer 14 doesnt show up, because it has no harddrive. Can I somehow make an OUTER JOIN to make sure that all computers show up, even if there a some attributes they don't have? Computer 13 shows up twice, with the same harddrive listet for both. When more attributes are added to a computer (like 3 blocks of ram), the number of rows returned for that computer gets pretty big, and it makes it had to sort the result out in application code. Can I somehow make a query, that groups the two returned rows together? Or a query that returns NULL in the h_name column in the second row, so that all values returned are unique? EDIT: What I would like to return is something like this: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | NULL | 14 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | NULL | NULL | Or whatever result that make it easy to turn it into an array like this [13] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1 [1] => PROCESSOR TYPE 2 [H_NAME] => [0] => HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 [14] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1

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• Select latest group by in nhibernate

  - by Kendrick

  I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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• Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

  - by gWiz

  I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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