Search Results

Search found 18454 results on 739 pages for 'oracle thoughts'.

Page 699/739 | < Previous Page | 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706  | Next Page >

  • iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

    - by RPM1984
    Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

    Read the article

  • Conditional execution of EventTriggers in Silverlight 3

    - by Jason
    I'm currently working on the UI of a Silverlight application and need to be able to change the visual state of a control to one of two possible states based on it's current state when handling the same event trigger. For example: I have a control that sits partially in a clipping path, when I click the visible part of the control I want to change the state to "visible" and if I click it again when it is in its "visible" state I want to change to the "hidden" state. Example XAML: <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="MouseLeftButtonUp"> <ic:GoToStateAction StateName="Visible"/> <ic:GoToStateAction StateName="Hidden"/> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> Where "i" is "System.Windows.Interactivity;assembly=System.Windows.Interactivity" and "ic" is "Microsoft.Expression.Interactivity.Core;assembly=Microsoft.Expression.Interactions". I'm currently working in Expression Blend 3 and would prefer to have a XAML only solution but am not opposed to coding this if it is completely necessary. I have tried recording a change in the target state name in Blend but this did not work. Any thoughts on this?

    Read the article

  • Data layer refactoring

    - by Joey
    I've taken control of some entity framework code and am looking to refactor it. Before I do, I'd like to check my thoughts are correct and I'm not missing the entity-framework way of doing things. Example 1 - Subquery vs Join Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs. Apart from the code below being hard to read, is it also inefficient? from a in dataContext.As where ((from b in dataContext.Bs where b.Text.StartsWith(searchText) select b.AId).Distinct()).Contains(a.Id) select a Would it be better, for example, to use the join and do something like this? from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Text.StartsWith(searchText)) select a Example 2 - Explicit Joins vs Navigation Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs and a one-to-many between Bs and Cs. from a in dataContext.As join b in dataContext.Bs on b.AId equals a.Id join c in dataContext.Cs on c.BId equals b.Id where c.SomeValue equals searchValue select a Is there a good reason to use explicit joins rather than navigating through the data model? For example: from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Cs.Any(c => c.SomeValue == searchValue) select a

    Read the article

  • Routing redirection decision

    - by programming late night
    I have really no idea why I'm asking this as this a really completely irrelevant question for which I should have figured out an answer within milliseconds, yet I'm doing it. So in my project I have a Router class which splits up the request and selects the right page to be loaded. Fine so far. Now I have a page displayed when the user requests a page that doesn't exist, you know, 404. So theoretically, if the user entered mydomain.com/404 (I use mod_rewrite with a requests collector via index.php?req=*) the 404 error would be shown to him, but in fact there was no error - the 404 page would be displayed as a perfectly normal page. So if someone would try out requesting the 404 page via /404, he would be shown the page but he can't tell if the 404 page he requested doesn't exist and he is actually getting a, you guessed it, 404 error or if he actually found some flaw in the system that makes him able to see an error page when there is no error. I don't know how dumb this whole thing here is but I'm sure some of you have in fact ran into this problem already. Short version: If the user enters mydomain.com/404 the 404 page is shown even though there is no 404 error. I know this is a completely irrelevant question, please don't tell me, but I just spontaneously wanted to hear your thoughts on it. Strange eh? Should I redirect direct access to my 404-page to the home page? Should I do nothing? Should I just go to bed and stop asking irrelevant stuff?

    Read the article

  • Are game engines developed in the USA?

    - by numerical25
    I just finished talking to a Flashpoint Academy recruiter about their curriculum. I told him that after I graduate, I would like to go more in-depth with learning game engines and how to make games. So I asked him did their school teach anything in regards to learning any graphics API such as DirectX. He asked me to elaborate a little more as if he was not sure what I was talking about. So I asked did their school teach on how to build game engines. He said "no we only teach with the tools at hand, such as XNA, or the Unreal engine". He further said "most jobs that deal with building game engines go overseas and most of creative work is done in the United States." To be honest, I really had no intentions of going to this school. I just wanted to learn more about the school in case I had second thoughts somewhere down the line. To me I thought it was a bunch of BS, but my question is to you guys, "is it" ??

    Read the article

  • WCF data services (OData), query with inheritance limitation?

    - by Mathieu Hétu
    Project: WCF Data service using internally EF4 CTP5 Code-First approach. I configured entities with inheritance (TPH). See previous question on this topic: Previous question about multiple entities- same table The mapping works well, and unit test over EF4 confirms that queries runs smoothly. My entities looks like this: ContactBase (abstract) Customer (inherits from ContactBase), this entity has also several Navigation properties toward other entities Resource (inherits from ContactBase) I have configured a discriminator, so both Customer and Resource map to the same table. Again, everythings works fine on the Ef4 point of view (unit tests all greens!) However, when exposing this DBContext over WCF Data services, I get: - CustomerBases sets exposed (Customers and Resources sets seems hidden, is it by design?) - When I query over Odata on Customers, I get this error: Navigation Properties are not supported on derived entity types. Entity Set 'ContactBases' has a instance of type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer', which is an derived entity type and has navigation properties. Please remove all the navigation properties from type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer'. Stacktrace: at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteObjectProperties(IExpandedResult expanded, Object customObject, ResourceType resourceType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem item, DictionaryContent content, EpmSourcePathSegment currentSourceRoot) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteEntryElement(IExpandedResult expanded, Object element, ResourceType expectedType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem target) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.<DeferredFeedItems>d__b.MoveNext() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteItems(XmlWriter writer, IEnumerable`1 items, Uri feedBaseUri) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeedTo(XmlWriter writer, SyndicationFeed feed, Boolean isSourceFeed) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeed(XmlWriter writer) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteTo(XmlWriter writer) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteTopLevelElements(IExpandedResult expanded, IEnumerator elements, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.WriteRequest(IEnumerator queryResults, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.ResponseBodyWriter.Write(Stream stream) Seems like a limitation of WCF Data services... is it? Not much documentation can be found on the web about WCF Data services (OData) and inheritance specifications. How can I overpass this exception? I need these navigation properties on derived entities, and inheritance seems the only way to provide mapping of 2 entites on the same table with Ef4 CTP5... Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to maintain a persistant network-connection between two applications over a network?

    - by John
    I was recently approached by my management with an interesting problem - where I am pretty sure I am telling my bosses the correct information but I really want to make sure I am telling them the correct stuff. I am being asked to develop some software that has this function: An application at one location is constantly processing real-time data every second and only generates data if the underlying data has changed in any way. On the event that the data has changed send the results to another box over a network Maintains a persistent connection between the both machines, altering the remote box if for some reason the network connection went down From what I understand, I imagine that I need to do some reading on doing some sort of TCP/IP socket-level stuff. That way if the connection is dropped the remote location will be aware that the data it has received may be stale. However management seems to be very convinced that this can be accomplished using SOAP. I was under the impression that SOAP is more or less a way for a client to initiate a procedure from a server and get some results via the HTTP protocol. Am I wrong in assuming this? I haven't been able to find much information on how SOAP might be able to solve a problem like this. I feel like a lot of people around my office are using SOAP as a buzzword and that has generated a bit of confusion over what SOAP actually is - and is capable of. Any thoughts on how to accomplish this task would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Building A True Error Handler

    - by Kevin Pirnie
    I am trying to build an error handler for my desktop application. The code Is in the class ZipCM.ErrorManager listed below. What I am finding is that the outputted file is not giving me the correct info for the StackTrace. Here is how I am trying to use it: Try '... Some stuff here! Catch ex As Exception Dim objErr As New ZipCM.ErrorManager objErr.Except = ex objErr.Stack = New System.Diagnostics.StackTrace(True) objErr.Location = "Form: SelectSite (btn_SelectSite_Click)" objErr.ParseError() objErr = Nothing End Try Here is the class: Imports System.IO Namespace ZipCM Public Class ErrorManager Public Except As Exception Public Location As String Public Stack As System.Diagnostics.StackTrace Public Sub ParseError() Dim objFile As New StreamWriter(Common.BasePath & "error_" & FormatDateTime(DateTime.Today, DateFormat.ShortDate).ToString().Replace("\", "").Replace("/", "") & ".log", True) With objFile .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("An Error Occured At: " & DateTime.Now) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("LOCATION:") .WriteLine(Location) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("FILENAME:") .WriteLine(Stack.GetFrame(0).GetFileName()) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("LINE NUMBER:") .WriteLine(Stack.GetFrame(0).GetFileLineNumber()) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("SOURCE:") .WriteLine(Except.Source) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("MESSAGE:") .WriteLine(Except.Message) .WriteLine("-------------------------------------------------") .WriteLine("DATA:") .WriteLine(Except.Data.ToString()) End With objFile.Close() objFile = Nothing End Sub End Class End Namespace What is happenning is the .GetFileLineNumber() is getting the line number from 'objErr.Stack = New System.Diagnostics.StackTrace(True)' inside my Try..Catch block. In fact, it's the exact line number that is on. Any thoughts of what is going on here, and how I can catch the real line number the error is occuring on?

    Read the article

  • NUnit - Multiple properties of the same name? Linking to requirements

    - by Ryan Ternier
    I'm linking all our our System Tests to test cases and to our Requirements. Every requirement has an ID. Every Test Case / System Tests tests a variety of requirements. Every module of code links to multiple requirements. I'm trying to find the best way to link every system test to its driving requirements. I was hoping to do something like: [NUnit.Framework.Property("Release", "6.0.0")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50082")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50084")] [NUnit.Framework.Property("Requirement", "FR50085")] [TestCase(....)] public void TestSomething(string a, string b...) However, that will break because Property is a Key-Value pair. The system will not allow me to have multiple Properties with the same key. The reason I'm wanting this is to be able to test specific requirements in our system if a module changes that touches these requirements. Rather than run over 1,000 system tests on every build, this would allow us to target what to test based on changes done to our code. Some system tests run upwards of 5 minutes (Enterprise healthcare system), so "Just run all of them" isn't a viable solution. We do that, but only before promoting through our environments. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • designing an ASP.NET MVC partial view - showing user choices within a large set of choices

    - by p.campbell
    Consider a partial view whose job is to render markup for a pizza order. The desire is to reuse this partial view in the Create, Details, and Update views. It will always be passed an IEnumerable<Topping>, and output a multitude of checkboxes. There are lots... maybe 40 in all (yes, that might smell). A-OK so far. Problem The question is around how to include the user's choices on the Details and Update views. From the datastore, we've got a List<ChosenTopping>. The goal is to have each checkbox set to true for each chosen topping. What's the easiest to read, or most maintainable way to achieve this? Potential Solutions Create a ViewModel with the List and List. Write out the checkboxes as per normal. While writing each, check whether the ToppingID exists in the list of ChosenTopping. Create a new ViewModel that's a hybrid of both. Perhaps call it DisplayTopping or similar. It would have property ID, Name and IsUserChosen. The respective controller methods for Create, Update, and Details would have to create this new collection with respect to the user's choices as they see fit. The Create controller method would basically set all to false so that it appears to be a blank slate. The real application isn't pizza, and the organization is a bit different from the fakeshot, but the concept is the same. Is it wise to reuse the control for the 3 different scenarios? How better can you display the list of options + the user's current choices? Would you use jQuery instead to show the user selections? Any other thoughts on the potential smell of splashing up a whole bunch of checkboxes?

    Read the article

  • virtual methods and template classes

    - by soxs060389
    Hi I got over a problem, I think a very specific one. I've got 2 classes, a B aseclass and a D erived class (from B aseclass). B is a template class ( or class template) and has a pure virtual method virutal void work(const T &dummy) = 0; The D erived class is supposed to reimplement this, but as D is Derived from B rather than D being another template class, the compiler spits at me that virtual functions and templates don't work at once. Any ideas how to acomplish what I want? I am thankfull for any thoughts and Ideas, especially if you allready worked out that problem this class is fixed aka AS IS, I can not edit this without breaking existing code base template <typename T> class B { public: ... virtual void work(const T &dummy) = 0; .. }; take int* as an example class D : public B<int*>{ ... virtual void work(const int* &dummy){ /* put work code here */ } .. }; Edit: The compiler tells me, that void B<T>::work(const T&) [with T = int*] is pure virtual within D

    Read the article

  • Use MySQL trigger to update another table when duplicate key found

    - by Jason
    Been scratching my head on this one, hoping one of you kind people and direct me towards solving this problem. I have a mysql table of customers, it contains a lot of data, but for the purpose of this question, we only need to worry about 4 columns 'ID', 'Firstname', 'Lastname', 'Postcode' Problem is, the table contains a lot of duplicated customers. A new table is being created where each customer is unique and for us, we decide a unique customer is based on 'Firstname', 'Lastname' and 'Postcode' However, (this is the important bit) we need to ensure each new "unique" customer record also can be matched to the original multiple entries of that customer in the original table. I believe the best way to do this is to have a third table, that has 'NewUniqueID', 'OldCustomerID'. So we can search this table for 'NewUniqueID' = '123' and it would return multiple 'OldCustomerID' values where appropriate. I am hoping to make this work using a trigger and the on duplicate key syntax. So what would happen is as follows: An query is run taking the old customer table and inserting it in to the new unique table. (A standard Insert Select query) On duplicate key continue adding records, but add one entry in to the third table noting the 'NewUniqueID' that duped along with the 'OldCustomerID' of the record we were trying to insert. Hope this makes sense, my apologies if it isn't clear. I welcome and appreciate any thoughts on this one! Many thanks Jason

    Read the article

  • Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

    - by colinodell
    I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Element Content Versus Attribute for Simple XML Value

    - by MB
    I know the elements versus attributes debate has come up many times here and elsewhere (e.g. here, here, here, here, and here) but I haven't seen much discussion of elements versus attributes for simple property values. So which of the following approaches do you think is better for storing a simple value? A: Value in Element Content: <TotalCount>553</TotalCount> <CelsiusTemperature>23.5</CelsiusTemperature> <SingleDayPeriod>2010-05-29</SingleDayPeriod> <ZipCodeLocation>12203</ZipCodeLocation> or B: Value in Attribute: <TotalCount value="553"/> <CelsiusTemperature value="23.5"/> <SingleDayPeriod day="2010-05-29"/> <ZipCodeLocation code="12203"/> I suspect that putting the value in the element content (A) might look a little more familiar to most folks (though I'm not sure about that). Putting the value in an attribute (B) might use less characters, but that depends on the length of the element and attribute names. Putting the value in an attribute (B) might be more extensible, because you could potentially include all sorts of extra information as nested elements. Whereas, by putting the value inside the element content (A), you're restricting extensibility to adding more attributes. But then extensibility often isn't a concern for really simple properties - sometimes you know that you'll never need to add additional data. Bottom line might be that it simply doesn't matter, but it would still be great to hear some thoughts and see some votes for the two options.

    Read the article

  • Excel 2010 VBA code is stuck when UserForm is shown

    - by Denis
    I've created a UserForm as a progress indicator while a web query (using InternetExplorer object) runs in the background. The code gets triggered as shown below. The progress indicator form is called 'Progerss'. Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) If Target.Row = Range("B2").Row And Target.Column = Range("B2").Column Then Progress.Show vbModeless Range("A4:A65535").ClearContents GetWebData (Range("B2").Value) Progress.Hide End If End Sub What I see with this code is that the progress indicator form pops up when cell B2 changes. I also see that the range of cells in column A gets cleared which tells me that the vbModeless is doing what I want. But then, somewhere within the GetWebData() procedure, things get hung up. As soon as I manually destroy the progress indicator form, the GetWebData() routine finishes and I see the correct results. But if I leave the progress indicator visible, things just get stuck indefinitely. The code below shows what GetWebData() is doing. Private Sub GetWebData(ByVal Symbol As String) Dim IE As New InternetExplorer 'IE.Visible = True IE.navigate MyURL Do DoEvents Loop Until IE.readyState = READYSTATE_COMPLETE Dim Doc As HTMLDocument Set Doc = IE.document Dim Rows As IHTMLElementCollection Set Rows = Doc.getElementsByClassName("financialTable").Item(0).all.tags("tr") Dim r As Long r = 0 For Each Row In Rows Sheet1.Range("A4").Offset(r, 0).Value = Row.Children.Item(0).innerText r = r + 1 Next End Sub Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Managing Many to Many relationships in asp.net Wizard Control

    - by Luis
    Say I have this entity with a lot of attributes. In the input form I have decided to implement a wizard control so I can collect information about this entity in several steps. The problem is that I need to collect information that has been modeled has many to many relationships. I am planning to use a telerik gridview to manage this (add/edit/delete), the problem is where do I store that data since the entity in a insert form is not created on the database yet. OK so I can store all that info in temporary lists residing in the viewstate, waiting for the final submit where I dump all that in the DB, but one of the steps I am collecting files...now storing files in the viewstate is out of the question, same as as storing them in the session... I have been thinking of implementing in a way that the user has to submit some info first (say first 3 steps), commit the data to the database creating the parent entity and then start inserting all the childs entities...but this will get weird as it's confusing since on the first steps you not saving the data to the DB and on the next ones you are commiting directly... Anyone has any thoughts on this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Python list should be empty on class instance initialisation, but it's not. Why?

    - by canavanin
    Hi everyone! I would like to create instances of a class containing a list that's empty by default; instead of later setting this list to the final full list I would like to successively add items to it. Here's a piece of sample code illustrating this: #!/usr/bin/python class test: def __init__(self, lst=[], intg=0): self.lista = lst self.integer = intg name_dict = {} counter = 0 for name in ('Anne', 'Leo', 'Suzy'): counter += 1 name_dict[name] = test() name_dict[name].integer += 1 name_dict[name].lista.append(counter) print name, name_dict[name].integer, name_dict[name].lista When I ran the above program I expected to get Anne 1 [1] Leo 1 [2] Suzy 1 [3] as I assumed lista to always be initialised to an empty list. What I got instead was this: Anne 1 [1] Leo 1 [1, 2] Suzy 1 [1, 2, 3] If I replace self.lista = lst by self.lista = [] it works fine, just like when I add the line name_dict[name].lista = [] to the for loop. Why is it that the contents of the previous objects' lists are retained, yet their values of integer aren't? I am rather new to Python, so it would be great if someone could point out to me where my thoughts/assumptions have gone astray. Thanks a lot in advance for your replies.

    Read the article

  • How to access a web service behind a NAT?

    - by jr
    We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

    Read the article

  • Multiple submits in an HTML form

    - by StackOverflowNewbie
    I have an HTML form that needs multiple submit buttons, like this: <input type="submit" name="foo" value="1"/> <input type="submit" name="foo" value="2"/> <input type="submit" name="foo" value="3"/> The problem is that I want it to display on the button something other than what is in the value attribute (in the example above: 1, 2, 3). For example, I want to show "Bar" for the button with value="1". Is this possible? I've considered using the <button> tag, like this: <button name="foo" value="1">Bar</button> The problem with using <button> (from w3schools): If you use the element in an HTML form, different browsers may submit different values. Internet Explorer, prior version 9, will submit the text between the and tags, while other browsers will submit the content of the value attribute. Use the element to create buttons in an HTML form. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • facebook graph api does not return all feed items on facebook page

    - by Nick Franceschina
    at the time of this question, if you go here: http://www.facebook.com/realplayer you'll see six posts down, I have posted a photo with a message of "#highfive Cincinnati, OH" but if you to either of these: http://graph.facebook.com/realplayer/feed http://graph.facebook.com/realplayer/tagged the JSON that is returned seemingly includes everything on the wall, except for MY post. there is another photo post from someone else down below mine, and it is showing up (and both my photo and his photo are in the "Fan photos" section) obviously, since I can see everything with these links already, it appears that access_token is not a part of the equation... BUT, some more info: if I use an access_token from a session that isn't me, I can't see the post in the JSON if I use an access_token from MY logged in session, then I DO see the post in the JSON so I'm very confused. if everyone in the world can see those posts on the wall without even authenticating, then I expect all of them to come back in the graph api as well. anyone have thoughts on this? I am aware of the "manage_page" permission... which I can use to get a list of accounts and special offline access tokens for those pages... and that's something I can explore... but it seems like alot of work when my post seemingly SHOULD be there in the graph

    Read the article

  • UIAlertView Will not show

    - by John
    I have a program that is requesting a JSON string. I have created a class that contains the connect method below. When the root view is coming up, it does a request to this class and method to load up some data for the root view. When I test the error code (by changing the URL host to 127.0.0.1), I expect the Alert to show. Behavior is that the root view just goes black, and the app aborts with no alert. No errors in debug mode on the console, either. Any thoughts as to this behavior? I've been looking around for hints to this for hours to no avail. Thanks in advance for your help. Note: the conditional for (error) is called, as well as the UIAlertView code. - (NSString *)connect:(NSString *)urlString { NSString *jsonString; UIApplication *app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; NSError *error = nil; NSURLResponse *response = nil; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *req = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:10]; NSData *_response = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest: req returningResponse: &response error: &error]; if (error) { /* inform the user that the connection failed */ //AlertWithMessage(@"Connection Failed!", message); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Oopsie!" message:@"Unable to connect! Try later, thanks." delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles: nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } else { jsonString = [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:_response encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; [url release]; return jsonString; }

    Read the article

  • How to compare two structure strings in C++

    - by Arvandor
    Ok, so this week in class we're working with arrays. I've got an assignment that wanted me to create a structure for an employee containing an employee ID, first name, last name, and wages. Then it has me ask users for input for 5 different employees all stored in an array of this structure, then ask them for a search field type, then a search value. Lastly, display all the information for all positive search results. I'm still new, so I'm sure it isn't a terribly elegant program, but what I'm trying to do now is figure out how to compare a user entered string with the string stored in the structure... I'll try to give all the pertinent code below. struct employee { int empid, string firstname, string lastname, float wage }; employee emparray[] = {}; employee value[] = {}; //Code for populating emparray and structure, then determine search field etc. cout << "Enter a search value: "; cin >> value.lastname; for(i = 0; i < 5; i++) { if(strcmp(value.lastname.c_str, emparray[i].lastname.c_str) == 0) { output(); } } Which... I thought would work, but it's giving me the following error.. Error 1 error C3867: 'std::basic_string<_Elem,_Traits,_Alloc>::c_str': function call missing argument list; use '&std::basic_string<_Elem,_Traits,_Alloc>::c_str' to create a pointer to member d:\myfile Any thoughts on what's going on? Is there a way to compare two .name notated strings without totally revamping the program? IF you want to drill me on best practices, please feel free, but also please try to solve my particular problem.

    Read the article

  • Git repos over multiple machines - backups and keeping in sync

    - by a-or-b
    I'm new to git so please feel free to RTFM me... I have multiple development sites (none of which can communicate via a network with each other) and am working on a few projects (with a few people) at any one time. What I would ideally have is at each site a centralized repository that can be pulled from but development would occur in our own (personal) repos. Then I would like to be able to sync across the centralized repos (via USB key for example). I want a centralized repo at each location as (1) I'm new to git and do break my (personal) local repo by playing around and (2) some projects get put on hold so I want to be able to free up disk space by deleting them. This is the "backup" part of my question. I was also hoping to be able to use 'git clone --bare' for my centralized repos (and the USB key repos to?) as we don't need the full checkout, just the git benefits. However I can't seem to get a bare repo to work as repo I can push from. I've used 'git remote' to set up an remote origin (similar to http://toolmantim.com/thoughts/setting_up_a_new_remote_git_repository) but I can't get 'git push' to work - it seems I need a checked-out repo. . Does anyone else use this sort of repo/development structure or is there something fundamental about git usage that I'm missing? . A solution that I thought about that might not work - If I had a 'git clone --bare' at each site and then use a git repo on my removable media which has remotes set up for each site then I could ('pull') sync my USB key with each repo. But then can I update the site repo from my USB key? Could I push from USB?

    Read the article

  • Aggregate path counts using HierarchyID

    - by austincav
    Business problem - understand process fallout using analytics data. Here is what we have done so far: Build a dictionary table with every possible process step Find each process "start" Find the last step for each start Join dictionary table to last step to find path to final step In the final report output we end up with a list of paths for each start to each final step: User Fallout Step HierarchyID.ToString() A 1/1/1 B 1/1/1/1/1 C 1/1/1/1 D 1/1/1 E 1/1 What this means is that five users (A-E) started the process. Assume only User B finished, the other four did not. Since this is a simple example (without branching) we want the output to look as follows: Step Unique Users 1 5 2 5 3 4 4 2 5 1 The easiest solution I could think of is to take each hierarchyID.ToString(), parse that out into a set of subpaths, JOIN back to the dictionary table, and output using GROUP BY. Given the volume of data, I'd like to use the built-in HierarchyID functions, e.g. IsAncestorOf. Any ideas or thoughts how I could write this? Maybe a recursive CTE?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706  | Next Page >