Search Results

Search found 19716 results on 789 pages for 'zend form'.

Page 699/789 | < Previous Page | 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706  | Next Page >

  • Should I thread this?

    - by Psytronic
    I've got a "Loading Progress" WPF form which I instantiate when I start loading some results into my Main Window, and every time a result is loaded I want the progress bar to fill up by x amount (Based on the amount of results I'm loading). However what happens is that the Progress bar in the window stays blank the entire time, until the results have finished loading, then it will just display the full progress bar. Does this need threading to work properly? Or is it just to do with the way I'm trying to get it to work? //code snippet LoadingProgress lp = new LoadingProgress(feedCount); lp.Show(); foreach (FeedConfigGroup feed in _Feeds) { feed.insertFeeds(lp); } //part of insertFeeds(LoadingProgress lbBox) foreach (Feeds fd in _FeedSource) { lpBox.setText(fd.getName); XmlDocument feedResults = new XmlDocument(); feedResults.PreserveWhitespace = false; try { feedResults.Load(wc.OpenRead(fd.getURL)); } catch (WebException) { lpBox.addError(fd.getName); } foreach (XmlNode item in feedResults.SelectNodes("/rss/channel/item")) { //code for processing the nodes... } lpBox.progressIncrease(); } If more code is needed let me know.

    Read the article

  • Javascript to fire event when a key pressed on the Ajax Toolkit Combo box.

    - by Paul Chapman
    I have the following drop down list which is using the Ajax Toolkit to provide a combo box <cc1:ComboBox ID="txtDrug" runat="server" style="font-size:8pt; width:267px;" Font-Size="8pt" DropDownStyle="DropDownList" AutoCompleteMode="SuggestAppend" AutoPostBack="True" ontextchanged="txtDrug_TextChanged" /> Now I need to load this up with approx 7,000 records which takes a considerable time, and effects the response times when the page is posted back and forth. The code which loads these records is as follows; dtDrugs = wsHelper.spGetAllDrugs(); txtDrug.DataValueField = "pkDrugsID"; txtDrug.DataTextField = "drugName"; txtDrug.DataSource = dtDrugs; txtDrug.DataBind(); However if I could get an event to fire when a letter is typed instead of having to load 7000 records it is reduced to less than 50 in most instances. I think this can be done in Javascript. So the question is how can I get an event to fire such that when the form starts there is nothing in the drop down, but as soon as a key is pressed it searches for those records starting with that letter. The .Net side of things I'm sure about - it is the Javascript I'm not. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to change CSS color values in real-time off a javascript slider?

    - by bflora
    I'm making a page where the user gets a javascript slider that goes from 0 to 100 and can use it to set the opacity of a div on the page. I want the opacity of that div to change in real-time as they work the slider. I've not done this before. What's the best approach? There cursor in the slider displays the slider's current value as you move it. It seems to be that I just need to find a way to display that value in any arbitrary other place on the page so I can display it in the style settings for the div. The .js file that generates the slider has a line that (I think) is setting the current value in the cursor: $(this).children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); TO get this changing number to display somewhere else at the same time, do I just need to add a div somewhere and then add a line like this? $("#newDivId").children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); That seems like it would give me the number showing up in a div. How then would I get it into a form I could put into the style settings for a div? If this was a php variable, I would do something like this, style="opacity:<?php print $value ?>;" What would be the .js equivalent?

    Read the article

  • Why is TRest in Tuple<T1... TRest> not constrained?

    - by Anthony Pegram
    In a Tuple, if you have more than 7 items, you can provide an 8th item that is another tuple and define up to 7 items, and then another tuple as the 8th and on and on down the line. However, there is no constraint on the 8th item at compile time. For example, this is legal code for the compiler: var tuple = new Tuple<int, int, int, int, int, int, int, double> (1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1d); Even though the intellisense documentation says that TRest must be a Tuple. You do not get any error when writing or building the code, it does not manifest until runtime in the form of an ArgumentException. You can roughly implement a Tuple in a few minutes, complete with a Tuple-constrained 8th item. I just wonder why it was left off the current implementation? Is it possibly a forward-compatibility issue where they could add more elements with a hypothetical C# 5? Short version of rough implementation interface IMyTuple { } class MyTuple<T1> : IMyTuple { public T1 Item1 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1) { Item1 = item1; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2> : MyTuple<T1> { public T2 Item2 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2) : base(item1) { Item2 = item2; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2, TRest> : MyTuple<T1, T2> where TRest : IMyTuple { public TRest Rest { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2, TRest rest) : base(item1, item2) { Rest = rest; } } ... var mytuple = new MyTuple<int, int, MyTuple<int>>(1, 1, new MyTuple<int>(1)); // legal var mytuple2 = new MyTuple<int, int, int>(1, 2, 3); // illegal

    Read the article

  • Why is this ajax call being made even though it shouldn't be

    - by user2921557
    i have this validation script im working on but cant see why im having an issue. You can see that i have a check = false / true, check before it runs the ajax call. However, even if a field is empty and check is set to false, it is still running the call. so: // JavaScript - Update Password AJAX $(document).ready(function () { // When the form is submitted $('.updatepasswordform').submit(function () { var check = true; // Get the values var password1 = $("input[name=password1]").val(); var password2 = $("input[name=password2]").val(); var newpassword = $("input[name=newpassword]").val(); /* Password Validation */ // If fields are empty if (password1 === '') { check = false; $("input[name=password1]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } // If fields are empty if (password2 === '') { check = false; $("input[name=password2]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } // If fields are empty if (newpassword === '') { check = false; $("input[name=newpassword]").css('border', 'solid 2px red'); } if (check = true) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "process/updatepassword.php", data: $(".updatepasswordform").serialize(), dataType: "json", success: function (response) { /* Checks for database validation, removed for space saving */ } }); } return false; }); });

    Read the article

  • Having trouble hiding keyboard using invisible button which sits on top of uiscrollview

    - by phil
    I have 3 items in play... 1) UIView sits at the base of the hierarchy and contains the UIScrollview. 2) UIScrollview that is presenting a lengthy user form. 3) An invisible button on the UIScrollview that I'm using to provide "hide the keyboard" features. Notice in the code below that I'm registering to be notified when the keyboard is going to appear and again when it's going to disappear. These are working great. My problem is seemingly one of "layers". See below where I insert the button into the view atIndex:0. This causes the button to be activated and "stuffed" behind the scrollview so that when you click on it, the scrollview grabs the touch and the button is unaware. There is no way to "reach" the button and suppress the keyboard. However, if I insert atIndex:1, the button gets super imposed on top of the text entry fields and so any touch at all is acted upon by the button, which immediately suppresses the keyboard and then disappears. How do I insert the button on top of the UIScrollview but behind the UITextfields that sit there? other logistics: I have a -(void) hidekeyboard function that I have setup with the UIButtion as an IBAction(). And I have the UIButton connected to "files owner" via a ctrl-drag/drop. (Do I need both of those conventions?) This code in ViewDidLoad()... [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserverForName:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil queue:nil usingBlock:^(NSNotification *notification){ [self.view insertSubview:self.keyboardDismissalButton atIndex:0]; }];

    Read the article

  • How do you perform arithmetic calculations on symbols in Scheme/Lisp?

    - by kunjaan
    I need to perform calculations with a symbol. I need to convert the time which is of hh:mm form to the minutes passed. ;; (get-minutes symbol)->number ;; convert the time in hh:mm to minutes ;; (get-minutes 6:19)-> 6* 60 + 19 (define (get-minutes time) (let* ((a-time (string->list (symbol->string time))) (hour (first a-time)) (minutes (third a-time))) (+ (* hour 60) minutes))) This is an incorrect code, I get a character after all that conversion and cannot perform a correct calculation. Do you guys have any suggestions? I cant change the input type. Context: The input is a flight schedule so I cannot alter the data structure. ;; ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Edit: Figured out an ugly solution. Please suggest something better. (define (get-minutes time) (let* ((a-time (symbol->string time)) (hour (string->number (substring a-time 0 1))) (minutes (string->number (substring a-time 2 4)))) (+ (* hour 60) minutes)))

    Read the article

  • Updating a listitem in an ASPX page in SharePoint Designer

    - by Andy
    Hey All, Right now I'm using SharePoint Designer to create a new aspx page. I am using a data view to display information from a list. One of the fields in the list is a choice field. I was wondering if there was anyway that I could display all of the other fields but allow one field in the list to be edited on the page without adding an edit link. Ideally, I would like a user to go in and be able to edit a field value (hopefully in a drop down list) within a data view without being redirected to the list or a form. I'm thinking there is a way to do this through javascript to embed inside the HTML or through a workflow of some sort. I'm new to javascript and don't know how to do this. I have tried to insert a drop down list and provide a data source for it but it will only show all of the field values in the list. Thus, I am unable to display the choice options, show the current value in the listitem and edit/update the listitem. Hopefully this makes sense. Can anyone help me out here? Thanks a lot, Andy

    Read the article

  • How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

    Read the article

  • Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

    - by treeface
    My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

    Read the article

  • a + sing in email address

    - by d.andreykiv
    Hi. I need to submit an email address with a "+" sign and validate in on server. But server receives email like "[email protected]" as "aaa [email protected]". I send all data as POST request with following code NSURL* url = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@", url, @"/signUp"]]; NSString *post = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"&email=%@&userName=%@&password=%@", user.email, user.userName, user.password]; NSData *postData = [post dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:NO]; NSData* data = [self sendRequest:url postData:postData]; post variable before encoding has value &[email protected]&userName=Asdfasdfadsfadsf&password=sdfasdf after encoding it is same &[email protected]&userName=Asdfasdfadsfadsf&password=sdfasdf Method I use to send request looks like following code: -(id) sendRequest:(NSURL*) url postData:(NSData*)postData { // Create request NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",[postData length]]; [request setURL:url]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Current-Type"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; NSURLResponse *urlResponse; NSData *data = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&urlResponse error:nil]; [request release]; return data; }

    Read the article

  • need help with Java solution /newbie

    - by Racket
    Hi, I'm new to programming in general so i'm trying to be as specific as possible in this question. There's this book that i'm doing some exercises on. I managed to do more than half of what they say, but it's just one input that I have been struggling to find out. I'll write the question and thereafter my code, "Write an application that creates and prints a random phone number of the form XXX-XXX-XXXX. Include the dashes in the output. Do not let the first three digits contain an 8 or 9 (but don't be more restrictive than that), and make sure that the second set of three digits is not greater than 742. Hint: Think through the easiest way to construct the phone number. Each diigit does not have to be determined separately." OK, the highlighted sentence is what i'm looking at. Here's my code: import java.util.Random; public class PP33 { public static void main (String[] args) { Random rand = new Random(); int num1, num2, num3; num1 = rand.nextInt(900) + 100; num2 = rand.nextInt(643) + 100; num3 = rand.nextInt(9000) + 1000; System.out.println(num1+"-"+num2+"-"+num3); } } How am I suppose to do this? I'm on chapter 3 so we have not yet discussed if statements etcetera, but Aliases, String class, Packages, Import declaration, Random Class, Math Class, Formatting output (decimal- & numberFormat), Printf, Enumeration & Wrapper classes + autoboxing. So consider answer the question based only on these assumptions, please. The code doesn't have any errors. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • rails delete_all exception

    - by Sergei
    Hello, guys! I have some User model, Role model and Assignment model to manage role-based user system. Just like here . So, here some kind of code, to include roles into users form: <% for role in Role.all %> <%= check_box_tag "user[role_ids][]", role.id, @user.roles.include?(role) %> <%=h role.name %><br /> <% end %> And all's working fine for new records and for editing records. But I just want to make possible to restrict deleting Assigment with id=1, cause this Assignment for default root user from migration, who must be admin anyway. Otherwise, I can lose my last admin. So I've tryed to add before_destroy to Assignment.rb model, but it doesn't work. I've noticed, that when I'm editing user and trying to remove his admin role(assignment), the server makes a delete_all method, not destroy method. So, does anybody know how to catch the deleting of Assignment with id=1 through this kind of code? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Concept: Is mongo right for applying schemas?

    - by Jan
    I am currently in charge of checking wether it is valuable for one of our upcoming products to be developed on mongo. Without going too much into detail, I'll try to explain, what the app does. The app simply has "entities". These entities are technical stuff, like cell phones, TVs, Laptops, tablet pcs, and so forth. Of course, a cell phone has other attributes than a Tablet PCs and a Laptop has even other attributes, like RAM, CPU, display size and so on. Now I want to have something that we wanna call a scheme: We define that we need to have saved the display size, amount of ram size of flash devices, processor type, processor speed and so on for tablet pcs. For cell phone we might save display size, GSM, Edge, 3g, 4g, processor, ram, touch screen technology, bla bla bla. I think you got it :) What I want to realize is, that each "category" has a schema and when one of the system's users enters a new product (let's say the new iphone 4), the app constructs the form to be filled out with the appropriate attributes. So far it sounds nice and should not be a problem with mongo. But now the tough for which I could not find a clean solution.... An attribute modeled in mongo looks like: { _id: 1234456, name: "Attribute name", type: 0, "description" } But what to do, if i need this attribute in several languages, like: { en: {name: "Attribute name", type: 0, "description"}, de: {name: "Name des Attributs, type: 0, "Beschreibung"} } I also need to ensure that the german attribute gets updated as soon as the english gets updated, for instance when type changes from 0 to 1. Any ideas on that?

    Read the article

  • caching previous return values of procedures in scheme

    - by Brock
    In Chapter 16 of "The Seasoned Schemer", the authors define a recursive procedure "depth", which returns 'pizza nested in n lists, e.g (depth 3) is (((pizza))). They then improve it as "depthM", which caches its return values using set! in the lists Ns and Rs, which together form a lookup-table, so you don't have to recurse all the way down if you reach a return value you've seen before. E.g. If I've already computed (depthM 8), when I later compute (depthM 9), I just lookup the return value of (depthM 8) and cons it onto null, instead of recursing all the way down to (depthM 0). But then they move the Ns and Rs inside the procedure, and initialize them to null with "let". Why doesn't this completely defeat the point of caching the return values? From a bit of experimentation, it appears that the Ns and Rs are being reinitialized on every call to "depthM". Am I misunderstanding their point? I guess my question is really this: Is there a way in Scheme to have lexically-scoped variables preserve their values in between calls to a procedure, like you can do in Perl 5.10 with "state" variables?

    Read the article

  • TicTacToe strategic reduction

    - by NickLarsen
    I decided to write a small program that solves TicTacToe in order to try out the effect of some pruning techniques on a trivial game. The full game tree using minimax to solve it only ends up with 549,946 possible games. With alpha-beta pruning, the number of states required to evaluate was reduced to 18,297. Then I applied a transposition table that brings the number down to 2,592. Now I want to see how low that number can go. The next enhancement I want to apply is a strategic reduction. The basic idea is to combine states that have equivalent strategic value. For instance, on the first move, if X plays first, there is nothing strategically different (assuming your opponent plays optimally) about choosing one corner instead of another. In the same situation, the same is true of the center of the walls of the board, and the center is also significant. By reducing to significant states only, you end up with only 3 states for evaluation on the first move instead of 9. This technique should be very useful since it prunes states near the top of the game tree. This idea came from the GameShrink method created by a group at CMU, only I am trying to avoid writing the general form, and just doing what is needed to apply the technique to TicTacToe. In order to achieve this, I modified my hash function (for the transposition table) to enumerate all strategically equivalent positions (using rotation and flipping functions), and to only return the lowest of the values for each board. Unfortunately now my program thinks X can force a win in 5 moves from an empty board when going first. After a long debugging session, it became apparent to me the program was always returning the move for the lowest strategically significant move (I store the last move in the transposition table as part of my state). Is there a better way I can go about adding this feature, or a simple method for determining the correct move applicable to the current situation with what I have already done?

    Read the article

  • How do I DRY up business logic between sever-side Ruby and client-side Javascript?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a Widget model with inheritance (I'm using Single-Table Inheritance, but it's equally valid for Class-per-Table). Some of the subclasses require a particular field; others do not. class Widget < ActiveRecord ALL_WIDGET_TYPES = [FooWidget, BarWidget, BazWidget] end class FooWidget < Widget validates_presence_of :color end class BarWidget < Widget # no color field end class BazWidget < Widget validates_presence_of :color end I'm building a "New Widget" form (app/views/widgets/new.html.erb) and would like to dynamically show/hide the color field based on a <select> for widget_type. <% form_for @widget do |f| %> <%= f.select :type, Widget::ALL_WIDGET_TYPES %> <div class='hiddenUnlessWidgetTypeIsFooOrBaz'> <%= f.label :color %> <%= f.text_field :color %> </div> <% end %> I can easily write some jQuery to watch for onChange events on widget_type, but that would mean putting some sort of WidgetTypesThatRequireColor constant in my Javascript. Easy enough to do manually, but it is likely to get disconnected from the Widget model classes. I would prefer not to output Javascript directly in my view, though I have considered using content_for(:js) and have a yield :js in my template footer. Any better ideas?

    Read the article

  • anti-if campaign

    - by Andrew Siemer
    I recently ran against a very interesting site that expresses a very interesting idea - the anti-if campaign. You can see this here at www.antiifcampaign.com. I have to agree that complex nested IF statements are an absolute pain in the rear. I am currently on a project that up until very recently had some crazy nested IFs that scrolled to the right for quite a ways. We cured our issues in two ways - we used Windows Workflow Foundation to address routing (or workflow) concerns. And we are in the process of implementing all of our business rules utilizing ILOG Rules for .NET (recently purchased by IBM!!). This for the most part has cured our nested IF pains...but I find myself wondering how many people cure their pains in the manner that the good folks at the AntiIfCampaign suggest (see an example here) by creating numerous amounts of abstract classes to represent a given scenario that was originally covered by the nested IF. I wonder if another way to address the removal of this complexity might also be in using an IoC container such as StructureMap to move in and out of different bits of functionality. Either way... Question: Given a scenario where I have a nested complex IF or SWITCH statement that is used to evaluate a given type of thing (say evaluating an Enum) to determine how I want to handle the processing of that thing by enum type - what are some ways to do the same form of processing without using the IF or SWITCH hierarchical structure? public enum WidgetTypes { Type1, Type2, Type3, Type4 } ... WidgetTypes _myType = WidgetTypes.Type1; ... switch(_myType) { case WidgetTypes.Type1: //do something break; case WidgetTypes.Type2: //do something break; //etc... }

    Read the article

  • Testing a method used from an abstract class

    - by Bas
    I have to Unit Test a method (runMethod()) that uses a method from an inhereted abstract class to create a boolean. The method in the abstract class uses XmlDocuments and nodes to retrieve information. The code looks somewhat like this (and this is extremely simplified, but it states my problem) namespace AbstractTestExample { public abstract class AbstractExample { public string propertyValues; protected XmlNode propertyValuesXML; protected string getProperty(string propertyName) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(new System.IO.StringReader(propertyValues)); propertyValuesXML= doc.FirstChild; XmlNode node = propertyValuesXML.SelectSingleNode(String.Format("property[name='{0}']/value", propertyName)); return node.InnerText; } } public class AbstractInheret : AbstractExample { public void runMethod() { bool addIfContains = (getProperty("AddIfContains") == null || getProperty("AddIfContains") == "True"); //Do something with boolean } } } So, the code wants to get a property from a created XmlDocument and uses it to form the result to a boolean. Now my question is, what is the best solution to make sure I have control over the booleans result behaviour. I'm using Moq for possible mocking. I know this code example is probably a bit fuzzy, but it's the best I could show. Hope you guys can help.

    Read the article

  • asp.net master page/content page interaction with style sheet

    - by Matt
    Learning how to do a master page in asp.net. Trying to figure out how my style sheet interacts with respects to the master page and content page. I can get HTML tags like body and the style sheet to react. But when I call the ID attribute of a label no styling takes place. What am I missing here as far as interaction? BTW I'm using VS2008 CSS sample: body { height:1200px; width:920px; border-style:solid; border-color:blue; padding:10px 10px 10px 10px; } #toptext1 { position:relative; top:-225px; right:-500px; font-size:22px; font-weight:bold; } From the master page: <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:image id="cookNookLogo" ImageUrl="images/Logo.gif" runat="server" AlternateText="CookNook" Width="449px"></asp:image> <p> <asp:Label ID="toptext1" runat="server" Text="Quality Recipes, Hints and Supplies"></asp:Label> </p> From the content page: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/CNMasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Home.aspx.cs" Inherits="Home" Title="Untitled Page" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" Runat="Server"> <link href="App_Themes/cn/cn.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> </asp:Content> When I was doing this without a master page it worked so where am I going wrong with the attributes?

    Read the article

  • How can variadic char template arguments from user defined literals be converted back into numeric types?

    - by Pubby
    This question is being asked because of this one. C++11 allows you to define literals like this for numeric literals: template<char...> OutputType operator "" _suffix(); Which means that 503_suffix would become <'5','0','3'> This is nice, although it isn't very useful in the form it's in. How can I transform this back into a numeric type? This would turn <'5','0','3'> into a constexpr 503. Additionally, it must also work on floating point literals. <'5','.','3> would turn into int 5 or float 5.3 A partial solution was found in the previous question, but it doesn't work on non-integers: template <typename t> constexpr t pow(t base, int exp) { return (exp > 0) ? base * pow(base, exp-1) : 1; }; template <char...> struct literal; template <> struct literal<> { static const unsigned int to_int = 0; }; template <char c, char ...cv> struct literal<c, cv...> { static const unsigned int to_int = (c - '0') * pow(10, sizeof...(cv)) + literal<cv...>::to_int; }; // use: literal<...>::to_int // literal<'1','.','5'>::to_int doesn't work // literal<'1','.','5'>::to_float not implemented

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • Jquery Append() and remove() element

    - by BandonRandon
    Hi, I have a form where I'm dynamically adding the ability to upload files with the append function but I would also like to be able to remove unused fields. Here is the html markup <span class="inputname">Project Images: <a href="#" class="add_project_file"><img src="images/add_small.gif" border="0"></a></span> <span class="project_images"> <input name="upload_project_images[]" type="file" /><br/> </span> Right now if they click on the "add" gif a new row is added with this jquery $('a.add_project_file').click(function() { $(".project_images").append('<input name="upload_project_images[]" type="file" class="new_project_image" /> <a href="#" class="remove_project_file" border="2"><img src="images/delete.gif"></a><br/>'); return false; }); To remove the input box i've tried to add the class "remove_project_file" then add this function. $('a.remove_project_file').click(function() { $('.project_images').remove(); return false;}); I think there should be a much easier way to do this. Maybe i need to use the $(this) function for the remove. Another possible solution would be to expand the "add project file" to do both adding and removing fields. Any of you JQuery wizards have any ideas that would be great

    Read the article

  • Create a multicolor selectbox on Symfony2

    - by Ninsuo
    I try to create the following field : <select name="test"> <option value="1">a</option> <option value="2">b</option> <option value="3" style="font-weight: bold; color: red;">c</option> <option value="4">d</option> <option value="5">e</option> </select> This creates a 2-color selectbox : But in Symfony2, I do not know how to apply a class to a single option. If in my view I do : {{ form_widget(myForm.test, { 'attr': { 'class': 'red', } }) }} Or if in my form I do : $builder->add('test', 'choice', array( 'required' => true, 'choices' => array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e'), 'attr' => array('class' => 'red'), )); The attribute is stored into the <select> tag and apply to the whole selectable values. How do I apply a class to an <option> in Symfony2 ?

    Read the article

  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706  | Next Page >