Search Results

Search found 22912 results on 917 pages for 'hosted service'.

Page 701/917 | < Previous Page | 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708  | Next Page >

  • Link to RSS/Atom feed, relative, doesn't work in Firefox

    - by Adrian Smith
    I have a weird problem. I generate a HTML page, hosted let's say at http://www.x.com/stuff which contains <head> <link type="application/atom+xml" rel="alternate" href="/stuff/feed"/> .. </head> The result is: In IE7 all works well - you can click on the feed icon in the browser and the feed is displayed In Firefox, view source, click on the linked /stuff/feed and you see the source of the feed, so that works as expected In Firefox, view the page (not source), then click on the feed icon in the address bar, I get an error that it can't retrieve the URL feed://http//www.x.com/stuff/feed So the problem is, that it's appending feed:// to the front of the URL and then taking out the colon : after the http. I understand that feed: is HTTP anyway so perhaps the adding of that isn't a big problem. But anyway, the fact is, that URL Firefox generates out of my <link> tag doesn't work. I have considered making the URL absolute, but I haven't found any evidence that those URLs have to be absolute, nor can I understand why that would be the case. And for various reasons it would be inconvenient in my code to generate an absolute URL. I can do it if necessary but I would prefer to see proof (e.g. specification, or Mozilla bug report) that it's necessary before making my code messy What do you think? Does anyone know of any evidence that the URL should be absolute? Or am I doing something else wrong? It seems such a simple/obvious tag, where nothing could go wrong, but I can't get it to work.

    Read the article

  • chrome frame causes postback to wrong url and a Server Error in '/' Application error

    - by Johnny S
    I have a simple asp page with no code behind defined as: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="chrome=1" /> <title>test login</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button runat="server" CommandName="test" Text="test" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> This is being hosted on an IIS server that ships with XP (looks like 5.1). If I have machine with native IE6 running chrome frame click the TEST button, I receive: Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /Default.aspx I have tried this test on an IIS 7 host and several other IE6 machines with the same result. What I have noticed is that it is trying to postback to the wrong URL. I have checked with fiddler and have seen it will start at hostname/test/default.aspx but when I click the button it is trying to post to hostname/default.aspx Any help is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Using SVN with a MySQL database ran by xamp - yes or no? (and how?)

    - by Extrakun
    For my current PHP/MySQL project (over a group of 4 to 5 team members), we are using this setup: each developer codes and test on his localhost running xamp, and upload to a test server via SVN. One question that I have now is how to synchronize the MySQL database? I may have added a new table to project and the PHP code references to it, so my other team members would need to access that table for my code (once they got it through SVN) to work. We are not always working in the same office all the time, so having a LAN and a MySQL server in the office is not feasible. So I am toying with 2 solutions Setup a test DB online, and have all the coders will reference to that, even when coding from localhost. Downside: you can't test if you happen not have internet access. Somehow sync the localhost copy of MySQL DB. Is that kind of silly? And if I do consider this, how do I do it? (which folder do I add to SVN?) (I guess a related question is how to automatically update the live MySQL DB from the testing DB, regardless if it is on a remote server or hosted locally via xamp. Any advice regarding that would be welcomed!)

    Read the article

  • PHP Magento SOAP-ERROR: Parsing WSDL: Couldn't load from urlpath

    - by dan.codes
    I am trying to create a soap client by passing a url that is hosted on my local machine, my dev environment and I keep getting this error. I use to be able to make this call and it worked just fine. Basically all I am doing is this $client = new SoapClient('http://virtual.website.com:81/api/?wsdl'); If I go to the url in a browser it comes up, so I know it is the right location. On the Magento forums there are some similar posts but I don't know that this is a Magento specific problem. Everything they mention as a solution I already have. They say to edit the hosts file for example 127.0.0.1 website.com I already have this since it is setup as a virtual host. Here is the error in my error_log [Fri Jun 04 12:30:37 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP Fatal error: SOAP-ERROR: Parsing WSDL: Couldn't load from 'http://virtual.website.com:81/api/soap/?wsdl' : XML declaration allowed only at the start of the document\n in /usr/local/sites/virtual.website.com/www/CUSTOMSCRIPTS/removeProductImages.php on line 6 [Fri Jun 04 12:30:37 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP Stack trace: [Fri Jun 04 12:30:37 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 1. {main}() /usr/local/sites/virtual.website.com/www/CUSTOMSCRIPTS/removeProductImages.php:0 [Fri Jun 04 12:30:37 2010] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 2. SoapClient->SoapClient(*uninitialized*) /usr/local/sites/virtual.website.com/www/CUSTOMSCRIPTS/removeProductImages.php:6

    Read the article

  • Help with php code - need to add condition to make one link https

    - by Kaskade
    Hi, I have a wordpress blog and I need to make one of the pages secure. I have been told to make the link to that page point to https://claimpage.html as opposed to http://claimpage.html. The problem is I don't actually create the menu that links the user to the individual pages. This is done automatically by the code in the background. I think I need to put in some sort of an IF statement, saying, if the title of the page is "claim now" then use https otherwise use http. I found this code in the header.php so I think my changes need to go in here but I'm not really sure what to do. <div id="navbar"> <ul class="menu"> <li class="<?php if ( is_home() ) { ?>current_page_item<?php } else { ?>page_item<?php } ?>"><a href="<?php echo get_settings('home'); ?>"><?php _e('Home'); ?></a></li> <?php wp_list_pages('sort_column=id&depth=1&title_li='); ?> <?php wp_register('<li>','</li>'); ?> </ul> </div> <!-- end of #navbar --> Any suggestions as to how I can make one page that I know the title and url or https while the others are kept using normal http? The site is hosted on a secure server so I do have an ssl certificate.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET application using old connection string.

    - by Doug S.
    I am trying to publish a website using ASP.NET MVC3 EF and CODEFIRST with a SQL Server 2008 backend. On my local machine I was using a sql express db for development, but now that I am pushing live, I want to use my hosted production database. The problem is that when I try to run the application, it is still using my local db connection string. I have completely removed the old connection string from my web.config file and am using the <clear /> tag before creating the new connection string. I have also cleaned the solution and rebuilt, but somehow it is still connecting to the old db. What am I missing? This is the new connection string: <connectionStrings> <clear /> <add name="CellularAutomataDBContext" connectionString=" Server=XXX; Database=CellularAutomata; User ID=XXX; Password=XXX; Trusted_Connection=False" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings>

    Read the article

  • Two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and don't provide straight forward answers. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

    Read the article

  • sIFR - getting a:hover to work in navigation list

    - by HudRom
    Hi, I am currently struggling with sIFR and a:hover. My problem site is hosted at http://irene.huditsch.info I have the following HTML code: <body id="irene-huditsch-info"> <div id="header"> <h1>Irene Huditsch</h1> <div id="top-nav"> <ul> <li id="impressum"> <a href="impressum.html" rel="index">Impressum</a> </li> <li id="kontakt"> <a href="kontakt.html">Kontakt</a> </li> </ul> </div> ... My sIFR-config.js looks like: sIFR.replace(braganza, { selector: 'div#top-nav a', css: '.sIFR-root { background-color: transparent; color: #FFFFFF; line-height: 13px; font-size: 11px; text-decoration: underline; cursor: pointer; } .sIFR-root:hover { color: #592b02; }', wmode: 'transparent' }); But the hover doesn't take effect. I tried different solution with no success either. When I write sIFR.replace(braganza, { selector: 'div#top-nav li', css: 'a { background-color: transparent; color: #FFFFFF; line-height: 13px; font-size: 11px; text-decoration: underline; cursor: pointer; } a:hover { color: #592b02; }', wmode: 'transparent' }); (which seems logical to me), the list items are not rendered at all. Could you please give me an advice how to do it correctly with the structure given? Thanks, Roman

    Read the article

  • Troubleshooting ASP .NET Application on Shared Hosting

    - by James
    Hi, My company has a CRM site hosted externally on a shared server and recently it has been very problematic. Users are being logged out randomly, sometimes only seconds after logging in. We are also getting viewstate validation errors at times. Both problems seem to occur more often when there are two or more people logged in at the same time, but I can't really see any particular pattern. I am using log4net to track the application state and from what I can tell it seems that the application is frequently restarting, causing all sorts of issues. I can see log messages from the Application_Start event handler but there is not always a corresponding message from the Application_End event handler. There is also logging code in the Application_Error event handler but it is not catching anything at the time of the restart. These errors started to occur soon after we moved our site to this shared server, although I don't remember it being this bad at first. Any advice on how to track down these problems would be appreciated. The server is running Windows Server 2003 and IIS 6.0. Sadly I don't have access to the server other than through Parallels Plesk and it doesn't seem to have any useful diagnostic information.

    Read the article

  • web development using google sites

    - by CHID
    Hi, I have hosted a website. But now my client asks to change it to http://sites.google.com. They hav registered their domain in google. I logged in the site and saw the procedures to create a website from scratch. But is there any way to directly replace the site into google sites. Like, in my site i hav included css files in a folder called stylesheets/css and access it through the link tag. And there are several folders lik that, viz images, scripts etc. 1.Now if i have to transfer it to google sites, where do i create the folders and stuff. I have the priviliges to login to the admin part of the site. 2.And also is there anyway to create database and access it in google sites? 3.Also i see that only html pages can be created. Is there a way to add php pages or other scripting languages? 4.Going forward will google sites be usefull for professional web designing. pls give ideas on whether or not google sites is a good idea to go with

    Read the article

  • When *not* to use prepared statements?

    - by Ben Blank
    I'm re-engineering a PHP-driven web site which uses a minimal database. The original version used "pseudo-prepared-statements" (PHP functions which did quoting and parameter replacement) to prevent injection attacks and to separate database logic from page logic. It seemed natural to replace these ad-hoc functions with an object which uses PDO and real prepared statements, but after doing my reading on them, I'm not so sure. PDO still seems like a great idea, but one of the primary selling points of prepared statements is being able to reuse them… which I never will. Here's my setup: The statements are all trivially simple. Most are in the form SELECT foo,bar FROM baz WHERE quux = ? ORDER BY bar LIMIT 1. The most complex statement in the lot is simply three such selects joined together with UNION ALLs. Each page hit executes at most one statement and executes it only once. I'm in a hosted environment and therefore leery of slamming their servers by doing any "stress tests" personally. Given that using prepared statements will, at minimum, double the number of database round-trips I'm making, am I better off avoiding them? Can I use PDO::MYSQL_ATTR_DIRECT_QUERY to avoid the overhead of multiple database trips while retaining the benefit of parametrization and injection defense? Or do the binary calls used by the prepared statement API perform well enough compared to executing non-prepared queries that I shouldn't worry about it? EDIT: Thanks for all the good advice, folks. This is one where I wish I could mark more than one answer as "accepted" — lots of different perspectives. Ultimately, though, I have to give rick his due… without his answer I would have blissfully gone off and done the completely Wrong Thing even after following everyone's advice. :-) Emulated prepared statements it is!

    Read the article

  • Failure in Yahoo Authentication in Android

    - by Jayson Tamayo
    I'm trying to integrate Yahoo into my application. I want them to login using their Yahoo accounts because I will be needing their names later in the application. But whenever I request for a token, I receive the following errors: getRequestToken() Exception: oauth.signpost.exception.OAuthCommunicationException: Communication with the service provider failed: Service provider responded in error: 400 (Bad Request) Here is my code (Request_Token_Activity.java): import oauth.signpost.OAuth; import oauth.signpost.OAuthConsumer; import oauth.signpost.OAuthProvider; import oauth.signpost.commonshttp.CommonsHttpOAuthConsumer; import oauth.signpost.commonshttp.CommonsHttpOAuthProvider; import oauth.signpost.signature.HmacSha1MessageSigner; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.content.SharedPreferences; import android.content.SharedPreferences.Editor; import android.net.Uri; import android.os.Bundle; import android.preference.PreferenceManager; import android.util.Log; public class Request_Token_Activity extends Activity { private OAuthConsumer consumer; private OAuthProvider provider; private SharedPreferences prefs; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); try { consumer = new CommonsHttpOAuthConsumer("my consumer key", "my consumer secret"); consumer.setMessageSigner(new HmacSha1MessageSigner()); provider = new CommonsHttpOAuthProvider( "http://api.login.yahoo.com/oauth/v2/get_request_token", "http://api.login.yahoo.com/oauth/v2/get_token", "http://api.login.yahoo.com/oauth/v2/request_auth"); } catch (Exception e) { Log.e("", "onCreate Exception: " + e.toString()); } getRequestToken(); } private void getRequestToken() { try { String url = provider.retrieveRequestToken(consumer, "yahooapi://callback"); Log.i("", "Yahoo URL: " + url); Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri.parse(url)).setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_SINGLE_TOP | Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NO_HISTORY | Intent.FLAG_FROM_BACKGROUND); this.startActivity(intent); } catch (Exception e) { Log.i("", "getRequestToken() Exception: " + e.toString()); } } @Override public void onNewIntent(Intent intent) { super.onNewIntent(intent); prefs = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(this); final Uri uri = intent.getData(); if (uri != null && uri.getScheme().equals("yahooapi")) { getAccessToken(uri); } } private void getAccessToken(Uri uri) { final String oauth_verifier = uri.getQueryParameter(OAuth.OAUTH_VERIFIER); try { provider.retrieveAccessToken(consumer, oauth_verifier); final Editor edit = prefs.edit(); edit.putString("YAHOO_OAUTH_TOKEN", consumer.getToken()); edit.putString("YAHOO_OAUTH_TOKEN_SECRET", consumer.getTokenSecret()); edit.commit(); String token = prefs.getString("YAHOO_OAUTH_TOKEN", ""); String secret = prefs.getString("YAHOO_OAUTH_TOKEN_SECRET", ""); consumer.setTokenWithSecret(token, secret); Log.i("", "Yahoo OAuth Token: " + token); Log.i("", "Yahoo OAuth Token Secret: " + token); } catch (Exception e) { Log.i("", "getAccessToken Exception: " + e.toString()); } } } And this is a snapshot of my AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name="Request_Token_Activity" android:launchMode="singleTask"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.VIEW" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.BROWSABLE" /> <data android:scheme="yahooapi" android:host="callback" /> </intent-filter> </activity> I have set-up my Yahoo Project as a Web Application and put Read and Write access to Social and Contacts. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • 'JQuery' is undefined

    - by Raja
    I am working on a ASP.net project created with local file system settings. I am using MVC and Jquery. Jquery is working fine when I run the application in debug mode i.e. in ASP.net Development server. I am trying to host the application in IIS 7. In hosted mode, it does not recognize Jquery and gives scripting error 'Jquery is undefined'. The locations of the script files is unchanged in both modes. Can anybody have any clue what can be the reason and how to solve this. My code look like this; <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.debug.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.2.6.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <!-- YUI Styles --> <link href="../../Content/reset.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="../../Content/fonts.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="../../Content/grids.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <!-- /YUI Styles --> <link href="../../Content/knowledgebase.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript"> //this hides the javascript warning if javascript is enabled (function($) { $(document).ready(function() { $('#jswarning').hide(); }); })(jQuery); </script> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="ScriptContent" runat="server" /> ....

    Read the article

  • Reusing OAuth request token when user refresh page - Twitter4j on GAE

    - by Tahir Akram
    Hi I am using Twitter4J API on GAE/J. I want to use the request token when user came to my page. (called back URL). And press refresh button. I write following code for that. But When user press refresh button. I got Authentication credentials error. Please see the stacktrance. It works fine when user first time used that token. HomeServlet.java code: HttpSession session = request.getSession(); twitter.setOAuthConsumer(FFConstants.CONSUMER_KEY, FFConstants.CONSUMER_SECRET); String token = (String) session.getAttribute("token"); String authorizedToken = (String)session.getAttribute("authorizedToken"); User user = null; if (!token.equals(authorizedToken)){ AccessToken accessToken = twitter.getOAuthAccessToken( token, (String) session .getAttribute("tokenSecret")); twitter.setOAuthAccessToken(accessToken); user = twitter.verifyCredentials(); session.setAttribute("authorizedToken", token); session.setAttribute("user", user); }else{ user = (User)session.getAttribute("user"); } TwitterUser twitterUser = new TwitterUser(); twitterUser.setFollowersCount(user.getFollowersCount()); twitterUser.setFriendsCount(user.getFriendsCount()); twitterUser.setFullName(user.getName()); twitterUser.setScreenName(user.getScreenName()); twitterUser.setLocation(user.getLocation()); Please suggest how I can do that. I have seen on many website. They retain the user with the same token. Even if user press browser refresh buttion again and again. Please help. Exception stacktrace: Reason: twitter4j.TwitterException: 401:Authentication credentials were missing or incorrect. /friends/ids.xml This method requires authentication. at twitter4j.http.HttpClient.httpRequest(HttpClient.java:469) at twitter4j.http.HttpClient.get(HttpClient.java:412) at twitter4j.Twitter.get(Twitter.java:276) at twitter4j.Twitter.get(Twitter.java:228) at twitter4j.Twitter.getFriendsIDs(Twitter.java:1819) at com.tff.servlet.HomeServlet.doGet(HomeServlet.java:86) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:693) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:806) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHolder.handle(ServletHolder.java:487) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHandler$CachedChain.doFilter(ServletHandler.java:1093) at com.google.apphosting.utils.servlet.ParseBlobUploadFilter.doFilter(ParseBlobUploadFilter.java:97) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHandler$CachedChain.doFilter(ServletHandler.java:1084) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.jetty.SaveSessionFilter.doFilter(SaveSessionFilter.java:35) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHandler$CachedChain.doFilter(ServletHandler.java:1084) at com.google.apphosting.utils.servlet.TransactionCleanupFilter.doFilter(TransactionCleanupFilter.java:43) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHandler$CachedChain.doFilter(ServletHandler.java:1084) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHandler.handle(ServletHandler.java:360) at org.mortbay.jetty.security.SecurityHandler.handle(SecurityHandler.java:216) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.SessionHandler.handle(SessionHandler.java:181) at org.mortbay.jetty.handler.ContextHandler.handle(ContextHandler.java:712) at org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext.handle(WebAppContext.java:405) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.jetty.AppVersionHandlerMap.handle(AppVersionHandlerMap.java:238) at org.mortbay.jetty.handler.HandlerWrapper.handle(HandlerWrapper.java:139) at org.mortbay.jetty.Server.handle(Server.java:313) at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection.handleRequest(HttpConnection.java:506) at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection$RequestHandler.headerComplete(HttpConnection.java:830) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.jetty.RpcRequestParser.parseAvailable(RpcRequestParser.java:76) at org.mortbay.jetty.HttpConnection.handle(HttpConnection.java:381) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.jetty.JettyServletEngineAdapter.serviceRequest(JettyServletEngineAdapter.java:135) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.JavaRuntime.handleRequest(JavaRuntime.java:235) at com.google.apphosting.base.RuntimePb$EvaluationRuntime$6.handleBlockingRequest(RuntimePb.java:5235) at com.google.apphosting.base.RuntimePb$EvaluationRuntime$6.handleBlockingRequest(RuntimePb.java:5233) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.BlockingApplicationHandler.handleRequest(BlockingApplicationHandler.java:24) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.RpcUtil.runRpcInApplication(RpcUtil.java:363) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.Server$2.run(Server.java:838) at com.google.tracing.LocalTraceSpanRunnable.run(LocalTraceSpanRunnable.java:56) at com.google.tracing.LocalTraceSpanBuilder.internalContinueSpan(LocalTraceSpanBuilder.java:536) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.Server.startRpc(Server.java:793) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.Server.processRequest(Server.java:368) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.ServerConnection.messageReceived(ServerConnection.java:448) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.RpcConnection.parseMessages(RpcConnection.java:319) at com.google.net.rpc.impl.RpcConnection.dataReceived(RpcConnection.java:290) at com.google.net.async.Connection.handleReadEvent(Connection.java:466) at com.google.net.async.EventDispatcher.processNetworkEvents(EventDispatcher.java:759) at com.google.net.async.EventDispatcher.internalLoop(EventDispatcher.java:205) at com.google.net.async.EventDispatcher.loop(EventDispatcher.java:101) at com.google.net.rpc.RpcService.runUntilServerShutdown(RpcService.java:251) at com.google.apphosting.runtime.JavaRuntime$RpcRunnable.run(JavaRuntime.java:394) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source)

    Read the article

  • Windows Live Messenger Activity SDK: Is it possible to use jQuery?

    - by Cheeso
    There's an SDK that lets developers build "activities" and games for use in Windows Live Messenger. The basic approach is to build a web app, that gets approved and hosted by Microsoft. questions Anyone done this? Can you use jQuery in that web app? how do you debug the thing, running within Windows Live Messenger? EDIT: I tried using jQuery, but couldn't get it to do much of anything. I also couldn't debug it at all, when running within the IM client. The IE8 F12 debug tools are not available in that context. I believe the embedded browser was silently not loading external script, and then silently throwing exceptions. So I backed off to use only script in the .HTM file. Since it is Windows Live Messenger, the embedded browser is IE, so the generality made possible in jQuery isn't strictly necessary. I was able to use old-skool DHTML interfaces to get done, what I needed. I'm still interested in seeing examples of what other people have produced in the way of WLM Activities or games, using the Messenger Activity SDK. I think Flash is possible, and I think XAML is also possible, but I haven't seen source code examples for any of those.

    Read the article

  • Sharing session variables from http and https versio

    - by tangurena
    I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

    Read the article

  • Getting a connection from a Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 fails with message "User name property miss

    - by Abel Morelos
    I have a standalone application that needs to connect to a Sybase database via a datasource, I'm trying to connect using getConnection() and get the connection from this Sybase datasource which is hosted in WAS 6.1, sadly I'm getting an error JZ004 - Sybase(R) jConnect for JDBC(TM) Programmer's Reference: SQL Exception and Warning Messages JZ004 error message is: User name property missing in DriverManager.getConnection(..., Properties) Action: Provide the required user property. As you can see, this is not a connectivity (so we can discard JNDI or lookup problems), but rather a configuration problem. For my Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 I have set up the proper authentication alias (Component-managed Authentication Alias), and I know the credentials are alright, "Test Connection" is successful for this datasource. Somebody had a similar problem and was because of the authentication alias- http://forum.springsource.org/showthread.php?t=39915 Next, I tried calling getConnection() but now I provided the credentials like getConnection(user, password)... and this time it worked!!! So I suspect that somehow WAS 6.1 is not picking or taking the authentication info I set in the datasource as mentioned before. If you think that maybe getConnection(user, password) should be OK for my case, well, that's not the case since I have a requirement to keep the credentials in the server, the standalone application only needs to know the JNDI information to lookup the datasource. Please let me know if have faced a similar problem, or what would you suggest me to do. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • nServiceBus - No all commands being received by handler

    - by SimonB
    In a test project based of the nServiceBus pub/sub sample, I've replace the bus.publish with bus.send in the server. The server sends 50 messages with a 1sec wait after each 5 (ie 10 burst of 5 messages). The client does not get all the messages. The soln has 3 projects - Server, Client, and common messages. The server and client are hosted via the nServiceBus generic host. Only a single bus is defined. Both client and server are configured to use StructureMap builder and BinarySerialisation. Server Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Publisher, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Server Code : for (var nextId = 1; nextId <= 50; nextId++) { Console.WriteLine("Sending {0}", nextId); IDataMsg msg = new DataMsg { Id = nextId, Body = string.Format("Batch Msg #{0}", nextId) }; _bus.SendLocal(msg); Console.WriteLine(" ...sent {0}", nextId); if ((nextId % 5) == 0) Thread.Sleep(1000); } Client Endpoint: public class EndPointConfig : AsA_Client, IConfigureThisEndpoint, IWantCustomInitialization { public void Init() { NServiceBus.Configure.With() .StructureMapBuilder() .BinarySerializer(); } } Client Clode: public class DataMsgHandler : IMessageHandler<IDataMsg> { public void Handle(IDataMsg msg) { Console.WriteLine("DataMsgHandler.Handle({0}, {1}) - ({2})", msg.Id, msg.Body, Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId); } } Client and Server App.Config: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="nsbt02a" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Test02.Messages" Endpoint="nsbt02a" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> All run via VisualStudio 2008. All 50 messages are sent - but after the 1st or 2nd batch. only 1 msg per batch is sent? Any ideas? I'm assuming config or misuse but ....?

    Read the article

  • How to upload files?

    - by Brian Roisentul
    I just wanted to know how to configure FCKEditor to upload files and images to the server where the website is hosted. The relevant part for it's config file(i think) looks like this: FCKConfig.LinkUpload = true ; FCKConfig.LinkUploadURL = FCKConfig.BasePath + 'filemanager/connectors/' + _QuickUploadLanguage + '/upload.' + _QuickUploadExtension ; FCKConfig.LinkUploadAllowedExtensions = ".(7z|aiff|asf|avi|bmp|csv|doc|fla|flv|gif|gz|gzip|jpeg|jpg|mid|mov|mp3|mp4|mpc|mpeg|mpg|ods|odt|pdf|png|ppt|pxd|qt|ram|rar|rm|rmi|rmvb|rtf|sdc|sitd|swf|sxc|sxw|tar|tgz|tif|tiff|txt|vsd|wav|wma|wmv|xls|xml|zip)$" ; // empty for all FCKConfig.LinkUploadDeniedExtensions = "" ; // empty for no one FCKConfig.ImageUpload = true ; FCKConfig.ImageUploadURL = FCKConfig.BasePath + 'filemanager/connectors/' + _QuickUploadLanguage + '/upload.' + _QuickUploadExtension + '?Type=Image' ; FCKConfig.ImageUploadAllowedExtensions = ".(jpg|gif|jpeg|png|bmp)$" ; // empty for all FCKConfig.ImageUploadDeniedExtensions = "" ; // empty for no one Could it be a folder permission problem? Is this part of the config.js alright?

    Read the article

  • Cannot upload media via Wordpress uploader

    - by Justin Johnson
    This has to do with media uploading in Wordpress. Every time WP creates a folder for new uploads (it organizes uploads by year and month: yyyy/mm), it creates it with the "apache:apache' user and group, with full access to all (777 or drwxrwxrwx). However, after that, WP cannot create a folder within that folder (e.g.: mkdir 2011 succeeds, but mkdir 2011/01 fails). Also, uploads cannot be moved into these newly created folders even though the permissions are 777 (rwxrwxrwx). Once a month, I have to chown the newly created folders to be the same as user:group as the rest of the files. Once I do that, uploading works fine (which doesn't make sense to me The really frustrating part is that this problem doesn't exist in other WP installs on other domains on the same server. * I wasn't sure if this should be here or on serverfault. Edit: The containing directory /.../httpdocs/blog/wp-content/uploads has the correct ownership drwxrwxrwx 5 myuser psaserv 4096 Jun 3 18:38 uploads This is a Plesk/CentOS environment hosted by Media Temple (dv). I've written the following test script to simulate the problem <pre><?php $d = "d" . mt_rand(100, 500); var_dump( get_current_user(), $d, mkdir($d), chmod($d, 0777), mkdir("$d/$d"), chmod("$d/$d", 0777), fileowner($d), getmyuid() ); The script always creates the first directory mkdir($d) successfully. On domain A, where the WP problem is, it cannot create the nested directory mkdir("$d/$d"). However, on domain B, both directories are successfully created. I am running each script at /var/www/vhosts/domainA/httpdocs/tmp/t.php and /var/www/vhosts/domainB/httpdocs/tmp/t.php respectively I checked the permissions on tmp, httpdocs, and domain[AB] and they are the same for each path. The only thing that differs is the user.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to unstick a remote IIS ASP server after an exception hangs the session?

    - by user89691
    I have been coding an app in classic ASP that accesses 2 Access databases. I had a page I was working on throw an exception, which is normal during development and causes no lasting problems. This time however, after the exception any attempt to open either of the databases would freeze the session with an infinite script timeout. If I delete the session cookie I an able to access ASP pages again until I try to open the database again. The database that was open when the exception was thrown is left open. There is a LDB lock file and I can't rename or delete either the LDB or MDB file, though I can download the MDB file with FTP. The 2nd access database is not open but any attempt to read this also hangs the session. Accessing HTML pages is fine. The site is hosted with Hostway and they are not interested ("Coding problem = Your problem" even though it leaves my site dead in the water, I suspect until the next reboot, whenever that might be). Here is the dump from the relevant ASP page that threw the exception: Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0115' Unexpected error /translatestats.asp A trappable error (C0000005) occurred in an external object. The script cannot continue running. Active Server Pages error 'ASP 0240' Script Engine Exception /translatestats.asp A ScriptEngine threw exception 'C0000005' in 'IActiveScript::Close()' from 'CActiveScriptEngine::FinalRelease()'. Is there any way I can unstick the site / force close the database remotely ?

    Read the article

  • Access a view inside a tab navigator when a tab is clicked

    - by magnus.lassi
    Hi, I I have a view in Flex 3 where I use a tab navigator and a number of views inside the tab navigator. I need to be know which view was clicked because of it's one specific view then I need to take action, i.e. if view with id "secondTab" is clicked then do something. I have set it up to be notified, my problem is that I need to be able to know what view it is. Calling tab.GetChildByName or a similar method seems to only get me back a TabSkin object. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100%" height="100%" xmlns:local="*" creationComplete="onCreationComplete(event)"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.events.FlexEvent; import mx.controls.Button; protected function onCreationComplete(event:Event):void { for(var i:int = 0; i < myTN.getChildren().length; i++) { var tab:Button = myTN.getTabAt(i); tab.addEventListener(FlexEvent.BUTTON_DOWN, tabClickHandler); } } private function tabClickHandler(event:FlexEvent):void { var tab:Button; if(event.currentTarget is Button) { tab = event.currentTarget as Button; // how do I access the actual view hosted in a tab that was clicked? } } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:TabNavigator id="myTN"> <local:ProductListView id="firstTab" label="First Tab" width="100%" height="100%" /> <local:ProductListView id="secondTab" label="Second Tab" width="100%" height="100%" /> </mx:TabNavigator> </mx:VBox>

    Read the article

  • WCF DataContractSerializer Behavior

    - by sbanwart
    I'm seeing some unusual behavior when using the DataContractSerializer. I have defined a message contract like so: namespace MyNamespace.DataContracts { [MessageContract(WrapperName = "order", WrapperNamespace = @"http://example.com/v1/order")] public class MyOrder { [MessageBodyMember(Namespace = @"http://http://example.com/v1/order", Order = 1)] public MyStore store; [MessageBodyMember(Namespace = @"http://http://example.com/v1/order", Order = 2)] public MyOrderHeader orderHeader; [MessageBodyMember(Namespace = @"http://example.com/v1/order", Order = 3)] public List<MyPayment> payments; [MessageBodyMember(Namespace = @"http://example.com/v1/order", Order = 4)] public List<MyShipment> shipments; } . . I'm sending it an XML message that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <order xmlns="http://example.com/v1/order> <store> ... </store> <orderHeader> ... </orderHeader> <payments> <payment> ... </payment> </payments> <shipments> <shipment> ... </shipment> </shipments> </order> My service deserializes this XML as expected. Inside my service, I'm using the DataContractSerializer to create an XML string and that's where things get weird. I'm using the serializer like this: DataContractSerializer serializer = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(MyOrder)); using (MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream()) { serializer.WriteObject(ms, order); ms.Position = 0; StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(ms); string outputMessage = sr.ReadToEnd(); } Once this finishes, the outputMessage contains the following XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <MyOrder xmlns="http://example.com/v1/order" xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <order> <store> ... </store> <orderHeader> ... </orderHeader> <payments> <payment> ... </payment> </payments> <shipments> <shipment> ... </shipment> </shipments> </order> </MyOrder> Needless to say, anything expecting to receive the original XML message will fail to parse this. So I guess I have two questions: Why is the DataContractSerializer adding the extra outer node to my XML output? Is there a way to stop it from doing this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' when compiling web site

    - by ahsteele
    I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration to trust the local intranet. I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

    Read the article

  • is it right to call ejb bean from thread by ThreadPoolExecutor?

    - by kislo_metal
    I trying to call some ejb bean method from tread. and getting error : (as is glassfish v3) Log Level SEVERE Logger javax.enterprise.system.std.com.sun.enterprise.v3.services.impl Name-Value Pairs {_ThreadName=Thread-1, _ThreadID=42} Record Number 928 Message ID java.lang.NullPointerException at ua.co.rufous.server.broker.TempLicService.run(TempLicService.java Complete Message 35) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:886) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:908) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:637) here is tread public class TempLicService implements Runnable { String hash; //it`s Stateful bean @EJB private LicActivatorLocal lActivator; public TempLicService(String hash) { this.hash= hash; } @Override public void run() { lActivator.proccessActivation(hash); } } my ThreadPoolExecutor public class RequestThreadPoolExecutor extends ThreadPoolExecutor { private boolean isPaused; private ReentrantLock pauseLock = new ReentrantLock(); private Condition unpaused = pauseLock.newCondition(); private static RequestThreadPoolExecutor threadPool; private RequestThreadPoolExecutor() { super(1, Integer.MAX_VALUE, 10, TimeUnit.SECONDS, new LinkedBlockingQueue<Runnable>()); System.out.println("RequestThreadPoolExecutor created"); } public static RequestThreadPoolExecutor getInstance() { if (threadPool == null) threadPool = new RequestThreadPoolExecutor(); return threadPool; } public void runService(Runnable task) { threadPool.execute(task); } protected void beforeExecute(Thread t, Runnable r) { super.beforeExecute(t, r); pauseLock.lock(); try { while (isPaused) unpaused.await(); } catch (InterruptedException ie) { t.interrupt(); } finally { pauseLock.unlock(); } } public void pause() { pauseLock.lock(); try { isPaused = true; } finally { pauseLock.unlock(); } } public void resume() { pauseLock.lock(); try { isPaused = false; unpaused.signalAll(); } finally { pauseLock.unlock(); } } public void shutDown() { threadPool.shutdown(); } //<<<<<< creating thread here public void runByHash(String hash) { Runnable service = new TempLicService(hash); threadPool.runService(service); } } and method where i call it (it is gwt servlet, but there is no proble to call thread that not contain ejb) : @Override public Boolean submitHash(String hash) { System.out.println("submiting hash"); try { if (tBoxService.getTempLicStatus(hash) == 1) { //<<< here is the call RequestThreadPoolExecutor.getInstance().runByHash(hash); return true; } } catch (NoResultException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return false; } I need to organize some pool of submitting hash to server (calls of LicActivator bean), is ThreadPoolExecutor design good idea and why it is not working in my case? (as I know we can`t create thread inside bean, but could we call bean from different threads? ). If No, what is the bast practice for organize such request pool? Thanks. << Answer: I am using DI (EJB 3.1) soo i do not need any look up here. (application packed in ear and both modules in it (web module and ejb), it works perfect for me). But I can use it only in managed classes. So.. 2.Can I use manual look up in Tread ? Could I use Bean that extends ThreadPoolExecutor and calling another bean that implements Runnable ? Or it is not allowed ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706 707 708  | Next Page >