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  • jsf annotations

    - by Andrew Bucknell
    I've created an address bean and I want to use it twice - once for street address and once for mailing address. I can achieve this using faces config as per the below, but I'm wondering if I can do this via annotations. e.g. put @ManagedBean(name="StreetAddress") and @ManagedBean(name="MailingAddress") on the same class? I feel like I am missing something obvious here but I'm not sure what. <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>MailingAddress</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>com.leetb.jsf_ex1.model.AddressBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>session</managed-bean-scope> <map-entries/> </managed-bean> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>StreetAddress</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>com.leetb.jsf_ex1.model.AddressBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>session</managed-bean-scope> <map-entries/> </managed-bean> public class AddressBean { private String line_one; private String line_two; private String suburb; private String state; private String postcode; /* getters and setters snipped */ }

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • java: retrieving the "canonical value" from a Set<T> where T has a custom equals()

    - by Jason S
    I have a class Foo which overrides equals() and hashCode() properly. I would like to also would like to use a HashSet<Foo> to keep track of "canonical values" e.g. I have a class that I would like to write like this, so that if I have two separate objects that are equivalent I can coalesce them into references to the same object: class Canonicalizer<T> { final private Set<T> values = new HashSet<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { T canonical = this.values.get(value); if (canonical == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future this.values.add(value); return value; } else { return canonical; } } } except that Set doesn't have a "get" method that would return the actual value stored in the set, just the "contains" method that returns true or false. (I guess that it assumes that if you have an object that is equal to a separate object in the set, you don't need to retrieve the one in the set) Is there a convenient way to do this? The only other thing I can think of is to use a map and a list: class Canonicalizer<T> { // warning: neglects concurrency issues final private Map<T, Integer> valueIndex = new HashMap<T, Integer>(); final private List<T> values = new ArrayList<T>(); public T findCanonicalValue(T value) { Integer i = this.valueIndex.get(value); if (i == null) { // not in the set, so put it there for the future i = this.values.size(); this.values.add(value); this.valueIndex.put(value, i); return value; } else { // in the set return this.values.get(i); } } }

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  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

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  • Dynamically cast a control type in runtime

    - by JayT
    Hello, I have an application whereby I dynamically create controls on a form from a database. This works well, but my problem is the following: private Type activeControlType; private void addControl(ContainerControl inputControl, string ControlName, string Namespace, string ControlDisplayText, DataRow drow, string cntrlName) { Assembly assem; Type myType = Type.GetType(ControlName + ", " + Namespace); assem = Assembly.GetAssembly(myType); Type controlType = assem.GetType(ControlName); object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(controlType); Control tb = (Control)obj; tb.Click += new EventHandler(Cntrl_Click); inputControl.Controls.Add(tb); activeControlType = controlType; } private void Cntrl_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string test = ((activeControlType)sender).Text; //Problem ??? } How do I dynamically cast the sender object to a class that I can reference the property fields of it. I have googled, and found myself trying everything I have come across..... Now I am extremely confused... and in need of some help Thnx JT

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  • Binding Data into a Resource

    - by Jordan
    How do you bind data from the view model into an object in the resources of the user control? Here is a very abstract example: <UserControl ... xmlns:local="clr-namespace:My.Local.Namespace" Name="userControl"> <UserControl.Resources> <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ???}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer1" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer2" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> </Grid> </UserControl> How do I bind GroupValue to a property in the view model behind this view. I've tried the following: <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ElementName=userControl, Path=DataContext.Property}"/> But this doesn't work. Edit: GroupProvider extends DependencyObject and GroupValue is the name of a DependencyProperty. I'm getting an debugging message telling me that the property to which I am binding doesn't exist.

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

    - by devoured elysium
    When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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  • How to make ActiveRecord work with legacy partitioned/sharded databases/tables?

    - by Utensil
    thanks for your time first...after all the searching on google, github and here, and got more confused about the big words(partition/shard/fedorate),I figure that I have to describe the specific problem I met and ask around. My company's databases deals with massive users and orders, so we split databases and tables in various ways, some are described below: way database and table name shard by (maybe it's should be called partitioned by?) YZ.X db_YZ.tb_X order serial number last three digits YYYYMMDD. db_YYYYMMDD.tb date YYYYMM.DD db_YYYYMM.tb_ DD date too The basic concept is that databases and tables are seperated acording to a field(not nessissarily the primary key), and there are too many databases and too many tables, so that writing or magically generate one database.yml config for each database and one model for each table isn't possible or at least not the best solution. I looked into drnic's magic solutions, and datafabric, and even the source code of active record, maybe I could use ERB to generate database.yml and do database connection in around filter, and maybe I could use named_scope to dynamically decide the table name for find, but update/create opertions are bounded to "self.class.quoted_table_name" so that I couldn't easily get my problem solved. And even I could generate one model for each table, because its amount is up to 30 most. But this is just not DRY! What I need is a clean solution like the following DSL: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base shard_by :order_serialno do |key| [get_db_config_by(key), #because some or all of the databaes might share the same machine in a regular way or can be configed by a hash of regex, and it can also be a const get_db_name_by(key), get_tb_name_by(key), ] end end Can anybody enlight me? Any help would be greatly appreciated~~~~

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  • Python base classes share attributes?

    - by tad
    Code in test.py: class Base(object): def __init__(self, l=[]): self.l = l def add(self, num): self.l.append(num) def remove(self, num): self.l.remove(num) class Derived(Base): def __init__(self, l=[]): super(Derived, self).__init__(l) Python shell session: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79063, Apr 1 2010, 05:22:20) [GCC 4.4.3 20100316 (prerelease)] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import test >>> a = test.Derived() >>> b = test.Derived() >>> a.l [] >>> b.l [] >>> a.add(1) >>> a.l [1] >>> b.l [1] >>> c = test.Derived() >>> c.l [1] I was expecting "C++-like" behavior, in which each derived object contains its own instance of the base class. Is this still the case? Why does each object appear to share the same list instance?

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  • Django: Determining if a user has voted or not

    - by TheLizardKing
    I have a long list of links that I spit out using the below code, total votes, submitted by, the usual stuff but I am not 100% on how to determine if the currently logged in user has voted on a link or not. I know how to do this from within my view but do I need to alter my below view code or can I make use of the way templates work to determine it? I have read http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1528583/django-vote-up-down-method but I don't quite understand what's going on ( and don't need any ofjavascriptery). Models (snippet): class Link(models.Model): category = models.ForeignKey(Category, blank=False, default=1) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) modified = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) url = models.URLField(max_length=1024, unique=True, verify_exists=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=512) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s (%s)' % (self.name, self.url) class Vote(models.Model): link = models.ForeignKey(Link) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) def __unicode__(self): return u'%s vote for %s' % (self.user, self.link) Views (snippet): def hot(request): links = Link.objects.select_related().annotate(votes=Count('vote')).order_by('-created') for link in links: delta_in_hours = (int(datetime.now().strftime("%s")) - int(link.created.strftime("%s"))) / 3600 link.popularity = ((link.votes - 1) / (delta_in_hours + 2)**1.5) if request.user.is_authenticated(): try: link.voted = Vote.objects.get(link=link, user=request.user) except Vote.DoesNotExist: link.voted = None links = sorted(links, key=lambda x: x.popularity, reverse=True) links = paginate(request, links, 15) return direct_to_template( request, template = 'links/link_list.html', extra_context = { 'links': links, }) The above view actually accomplishes what I need but in what I believe to be a horribly inefficient way. This causes the dreaded n+1 queries, as it stands that's 33 queries for a page containing just 29 links while originally I got away with just 4 queries. I would really prefer to do this using Django's ORM or at least .extra(). Any advice?

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  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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  • sqlalchemy dynamic mapping

    - by adancu
    Hi, I have the following problem: I have the class: class Word(object): def __init__(self): self.id = None self.columns = {} def __str__(self): return "(%s, %s)" % (str(self.id), str(self.columns)) self.columns is a dict which will hold (columnName:columnValue) values. The name of the columns are known at runtime and they are loaded in a wordColumns list, for example wordColumns = ['english', 'korean', 'romanian'] wordTable = Table('word', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key = True) ) for columnName in wordColumns: wordTable.append_column(Column(columnName, String(255), nullable = False)) I even created a explicit mapper properties to "force" the table columns to be mapped on word.columns[columnName], instead of word.columnName, I don't get any error on mapping, but it seems that doesn't work. mapperProperties = {} for column in wordColumns: mapperProperties['columns[\'%']' % column] = wordTable.columns[column] mapper(Word, wordTable, mapperProperties) When I load a word object, SQLAlchemy creates an object which has the word.columns['english'], word.columns['korean'] etc. properties instead of loading them into word.columns dict. So for each column, it creates a new property. Moreover word.columns dictionary doesn't even exists. The same way, when I try to persist a word, SQLAlchemy expects to find the column values in properties named like word.columns['english'] (string type) instead of the dictionary word.columns. I have to say that my experience with Python and SQLAlchemy is quite limited, maybe it isn't possible to do what I'm trying to do. Any help appreciated, Thanks in advance.

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  • Entity framework self referencing loop detected

    - by Lyd0n
    I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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  • Slow performance with MVC2 DisplayFor

    - by PretzelSteelersFan
    I'm iterating through a collection on my view model. The collection contains HealthLifeDentalRates which implement IBeginsEnds. I have a Display Template BeginsEnds that displays the date range. This results in very slow performance. If I simply the date range (see commented code), it's fine. I think how I'm defining the lambda is the problem but not sure how to change it. <% foreach (var item in Model.Data.OrderBy(x=x.HealthLifeDentalRateCode)) { % <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.FiscalPeriodString()) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.HealthLifeDentalRateCode) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.Rate) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.IsDental.YesNo()) %> </td> <td> <%= Html.DisplayFor(i = item, "BeginsEnds") % - <%= Html.Encode(item.Ends.ToDateString()) % -- <%= Html.Encode(String.Format("{0:g}", item.Loaded)) % - <%= Html.Encode(item.LoadedBy) % <% } %>

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  • ScaleTransform transforms non-linearly

    - by Chris
    I am using scale transform to allow a user to resize a control. What happens though is that when you start to move the mouse the control jumps to a new size, and then scales oddly. The further you move your mouse from the starting location the larger the increase in size becomes. I expect its the way I calculate the scale to be applied. Here is the code: private void ResizeGrip_MouseDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { ResizeHandle.CaptureMouse(); //Get the initial coordinate cursor location on the window initBtmX = e.GetPosition(this).X; bottomResize = true; } private void ResizeGrip_MouseUp(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { bottomResize = false; ResizeHandle.ReleaseMouseCapture(); } private void ResizeGrip_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if( bottomResize == true) { //Get the new Y coordinate cursor location double newBtmX = e.GetPosition(this).X; //Get the smallest change between the initial and new cursor location double diffX = initBtmX - newBtmX; // Let our rectangle capture the mouse ResizeHandle.CaptureMouse(); double newWidth = e.GetPosition(this).X - diffX; double scaler = newWidth / ResizeContainer.ActualWidth; Console.WriteLine("newWidth: {0}, scalar: {1}", newWidth, scaler); if (scaler < 0.75 || scaler > 3) return; ScaleTransform scale = new ScaleTransform(scaler, scaler); ResizeContainer.LayoutTransform = scale; } }

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  • Recursive Enumeration in Java

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Hello everyone. I still have a question about Enumerations. Here's a quick sketch of the situation. I have a class Backpack that has a Hashmap content with as keys a variable of type long, and as value an ArrayList with Items. I have to write an Enumeration that iterates over the content of a Backpack. But here's the catch: in a Backpack, there can also be another Backpack. And the Enumeration should also be able to iterate over the content of a backpack that is in the backpack. (I hope you can follow, I'm not really good at explaining..) Here is the code I have: public Enumeration<Object> getEnumeration() { return new Enumeration<Object>() { private int itemsDone = 0; //I make a new array with all the values of the HashMap, so I can use //them in nextElement() Collection<Long> keysCollection = getContent().keySet(); Long [] keys = keysCollection.toArray(new Long[keysCollection.size()]); public boolean hasMoreElements() { if(itemsDone < getContent().size()) { return true; }else { return false; } } public Object nextElement() { ArrayList<Item> temporaryList= getContent().get(keys[itemsDone]); for(int i = 0; i < temporaryList.size(); i++) { if(temporaryList.get(i) instanceof Backpack) { return temporaryList.get(i).getEnumeration(); }else { return getContent().get(keys[itemsDone++]); } } } }; Will this code work decently? It's just the "return temporaryList.get(i).getEnumeration();" I'm worried about. Will the users still be able to use just the hasMoreElemens() and nextElement() like he would normally do? Any help is appreciated, Harm De Weirdt

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  • DBIx::Class base result class

    - by Rob
    Hi there, I am trying to create a model for Catalyst by using DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader. I want the result classes to have a base class I can add methods to. So MyTable.pm inherits from Base.pm which inherits from DBIx::Class::core (default). Somehow I cannot figure out how to do this. my create script is below, can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? The script creates my model ok, but all resultset classes just directly inherit from DBIx::Class::core without my Base class in between. #!/usr/bin/perl use DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader qw/ make_schema_at /; #specifically for the entities many-2-many relation $ENV{DBIC_OVERWRITE_HELPER_METHODS_OK} = 1; make_schema_at( 'MyApp::Schema', { dump_directory => '/tmp', debug => 1, overwrite_modifications => 1, components => ['EncodedColumn'], #encoded password column use_namespaces => 1, default_resultset_class => 'Base' }, [ 'DBI:mysql:database=mydb;host=localhost;port=3306','rob', '******' ], );

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  • SQLAlchemy Mapping problem

    - by asdvalkn
    Dear Everyone, I am trying to sqlalchemy to correctly map my data. Note that a unified group is basically a group of groups. (One unifiedGroup maps to many groups but each group can only map to one ug). So basically this is the definition of my unifiedGroups: CREATE TABLE `unifiedGroups` ( `ugID` INT AUTO_INCREMENT, `gID` INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(`ugID`, `gID`), KEY( `gID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 ; Note that each row is a ugID, gID tuple. ( I do not know before hand how many gID is per ugID so this is probably the most sensible and simplest method). Definition for my UnifiedGroup class class UnifiedGroup(object): """UnifiedProduct behaves very much like a group """ def __init__(self, ugID): self.ugID=ugID #Added by mapping self.groups=False def __str__(self): return '<%s:%s>' % (self.ugID, ','.join( [g for g in self.groups])) These are my mapping tables: tb_groupsInfo = Table( 'groupsInfo', metadata, Column('gID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gName', String(128)), ) tb_unifiedGroups = Table( 'unifiedGroups', metadata, Column('ugID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gID', Integer, ForeignKey('groupsInfo.gID')), ) My mapper maps in the following manner: mapper( UnifiedGroup, tb_unifiedGroups, properties={ 'groups': relation( Group, backref='unifiedGroup') }) However, when I tried to do groupInstance.unifiedGroup, I am getting an empty list [], while groupInstance.unifiedGroup.groups returns me an error: AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' Traceback (most recent call last): File "Mapping.py", line 119, in <module> print p.group.unifiedGroup.groups AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' What is wrong?

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  • Design pattern to integrate Rails with a Comet server

    - by empire29
    I have a Ruby on Rails (2.3.5) application and an APE (Ajax Push Engine) server. When records are created within the Rails application, i need to push the new record out on applicable channels to the APE server. Records can be created in the rails app by the traditional path through the controller's create action, or it can be created by several event machines that are constantly monitoring various inputstream and creating records when they see data that meets a certain criteria. It seems to me that the best/right place to put the code that pushes the data out to the APE server (which in turn pushes it out to the clients) is in the Model's after_create hook (since not all record creations will flow through the controller's create action). The final caveat is I want to push a piece of formatted HTML out to the APE server (rather than a JSON representation of the data). The reason I want to do this is 1) I already have logic to produce the desired layout in existing partials 2) I don't want to create a javascript implementation of the partials (javascript that takes a JSON object and creates all the HTML around it for presentation). This would quickly become a maintenance nightmare. The problem with this is it would require "rendering" partials from within the Model (which im having trouble doing anyhow because they don't seem to have access to Helpers when they're rendered in this manner). Anyhow - Just wondering what the right way to go about organizing all of this is. Thanks

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  • jquery script that used to work is not working with jquery 1.4.2

    - by Zayatzz
    ... and i cant figure out why. The script is following: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://path/to/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function openMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'333px'}); } function closeMediaPlayer() { $('#flashMovie').animate({'height':'80px'}); } jQuery(function($){ $('#videoholder').bind('mouseenter', function(){ openMediaPlayer(); }); $('#videoholder').bind('mouseleave', function(){ closeMediaPlayer(); }); }); </script> <div id="videoholder" style="height:80px;width:412px;"> <object width="412" height="80" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" id="flashMovie" name="flashMovie" style="height: 80px;" data="http://path/to/Player.swf"><param name="menu" value="false"><param name="bgcolor" value="#666666"><param name="allowFullscreen" value="true"><param name="flashvars" value="playlistURL=http://path/to/Player/data/playlist.xml"></object> </div> pure and simple resizing flash object. It worked with older(1.3.2) jquery verision. The animate just does not work. Can anyone tell me what i should change to get it working again? Alan.

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  • Custom button with property as StaticResource

    - by alin
    I am trying to achieve the following thing: use an svg image into a custom button. In order to do this I created a Custom button: public class MainButton : Button { static MainButton() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MainButton), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MainButton))); } public string Text { get { return (string)GetValue(TextProperty); } set { SetValue(TextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty TextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Text", typeof(string), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); public object Image { get { return (object)GetValue(ImageProperty); } set { SetValue(ImageProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty ImageProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Image", typeof(object), typeof(MainButton), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); } I took a svg file, opened it in inkscape and saved it as xaml file. I opened Themes.xaml and added the created xaml image as a ControlTemplate And the button style is: Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MainButton}" <StackPanel Canvas.Top="12" Canvas.Left="0" Canvas.ZIndex="2" Width="80"> <ContentControl x:Name="Img" Template="{StaticResource Home}" /> </StackPanel> <StackPanel x:Name="spText" Canvas.Top="45" Canvas.Left="1" Canvas.ZIndex="1" Width="80"> <TextBlock x:Name="Txt" Text="{Binding Path=(local:MainButton.Text), RelativeSource ={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType ={x:Type Button}}}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Foreground="White" FontSize="14"/> </StackPanel> ... As you can see I have hardcoded the StaticResource name I want to be able to have a binding with property Image on this Template, something like So that I can set the Image property of the button with the name of the StaticResource I want. For example, having beside "Home" image, another one "Back" I would have two buttons in MainWindow declared like this: Any advice is kindly taken. Thank you for your time.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Dropdownlist retain the selected value in the browser after post

    - by MLabib
    I build a drop down list in my aspx page as following <%= Html.DropDownList("SelectedRole", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.roles, "RoleId", "RoleName", Model.SelectedRole), "")%> it works fine for first Get and the first default value is selected; then I select item from the drop down list and submit the form. the controller bind the values correctly, public ActionResult About([Bind] Roles r) { //r.SelectedRole = the selected value in the page. //Roles r = new Roles(); r.roles = new List<Role>(); r.roles.Add(new Role(1, "one")); r.roles.Add(new Role(2, "two")); r.roles.Add(new Role(3, "three")); r.roles.Add(new Role(4, "four")); r.SelectedRole = null; return View(r) } Then I nullify the selected item and return my view, but still the previous selected Item is selected (although I did nullify it) Any Idea if I am doing something wrong or it is a bug in MVC? I am using ASP.NET MVC 1 Thanks

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  • AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

    - by CRice
    It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

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  • Checkboxes in ADF are initially null, where I want them to be 0

    - by Mark Tielemans
    I am using ADF in JDeveloper and don´t have any experience with either of the two. Now I´ve run into quite some trouble yet, but for this particular thing I decided to consult the wisom of stackoverflow. The thing is, I have an edit form for an object that contains 3 checkboxes. The checked values are set to 1, unchecked to 0. In my database, the values are NOT NULL, and I want to keep it that way. The thing is, in the edit form, if the user submits the form leaving any boxes unchecked, it will result in an error, because the unchecked box values apparently remain null. Only after checking and then unchecking the boxes again, their values will be '0' rather than null. I've tried some things, including making the attributes mandatory in the domain BCD, but that just gives a bit more neat error message.. Any help would be greatly appreciated!! EDIT I made a little progress thanks to the guide provided by Joe, but still run into problems. I changed the values that should be checkboxes in my model, making them BOOLEANs where the table columns are NUMBERs (All are also mandatory and have a default value of 0). This automatically changed the corresponding View Object too. In the Application module, this now works great. It shows checkboxes, a checked one will return 1, an untouched one will return 0. However, I deleted the old form, and inserted a new one using the corresponding Data Control. I gave these values the checkbox type. I still had to edit the bindings (which I think reflects the problem, as this is not the case with, say, a model-level defined LOV) and gave them 1 for checked and 0 for unchecked. However, now apart from the original problem still occurring, also the checkboxes cannot be unchecked after checking, and return 0 when checked (and null when left untouched). Even though this has created new problems, it works correctly in my AM. Does someone know what I'm doing wrong in my Swing form?

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