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  • Digitally sign MS Office (Word, Excel, etc..) and PDF files on the server

    - by Sébastien Nussbaumer
    I need to digitally sign MS Office and PDF files that are stored on a server. I really mean a digital signature that is integrated in the document, according to each specific file formats. This is the process I had in mind : Create a hash of the file's content Send the hash to a custom written java applet in the browser The user encrypts the hash with his/her private key (on an usb token via PKCS#11 for example), thus effectively signing the file. The applet then sends the signature to the server On the server I would then incorporate the signature in the file's (MS Office and PDF files can do that without changing the file's content, probably by just setting some metadata field) What is cool is that you never have to download and upload the complete file to the server again. What is even cooler, the customer doesn't need Office or PDF Writer to sign the files. Parts 2, 3 and 4 are OK for me, my company bought all the JAVA technology I need for that for a previous project I worked on. Problem : I can't seem to find any documentation/examples to do parts 1 and 5 for Office files . Are my google skills failing me this time ? Do you have any pointers to documentation or examples for doing that for MS Office files ? The underlying technology isn't that important to me : I can use Java, .Net, COM, any working technology is OK ! Note : I'm 95% sure I can nail points 1 and 5 for PDF files using iText Thanks ** Edit : If I can't do that with hashes and must download the complete file to the client, it's also possible. But then I still need the documentation to be able to sign Office file... in java this time (from an applet)

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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • What database strategy to choose for a large web application

    - by Snoopy
    I have to rewrite a large database application, running on 32 servers. The hardware is up to date, each machine has two quad core Xeon and 32 GByte RAM. The database is multi-tenant, each customer has his own file, around 5 to 10 GByte each. I run around 50 databases on this hardware. The app is open to the web, so I have no control on the load. There are no really complex queries, so SQL is not required if there is a better solution. The databases get updated via FTP every day at midnight. The database is read-only. C# is my favourite language and I want to use ASP.NET MVC. I thought about the following options: Use two big SQL servers running SQL Server 2012 to serve the 32 servers with data. On the 32 servers running IIS hosting providing REST services. Denormalize the database and use Redis on each webserver. Use booksleeve as a Redis client. Use a combination of SQL Server and Redis Use SQL Server 2012 together with Hadoop Use Hadoop without SQL Server What is the best way for a read-only database, to get the best performance without loosing maintainability? Does Map-Reduce make sense at all in such a scenario? The reason for the rewrite is, the old app written in C++ with ISAM technology is too slow, the interfaces are old fashioned and not nice to use from an website, especially when using ajax. The app uses a relational datamodel with many tables, but it is possible to write one accerlerator table where all queries can be performed on, and all other information from the other tables are possible by a simple key lookup.

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  • Hosting images from unsecured servers (travelnow.com)

    - by i.am.not.aids
    Hi, My application needs to serve images hosted in travelnow.com (ie. this image) but the application only allow images hosted on a secured server (ie. https). What are my options? TravelNow's suggestion is as follows. How do I do this? Akamai image servers are not secure. Therefore you are unable to serve any of the image urls with a secure HTTPS URL. If you need to serve an image with HTTPS, you must temporarily save the image to your own secure server. This is suggested only for images to be saved as you use them or need them temporarily on the secure page. The hotel images file available from the Affiliate Center provides up to 1.5 million URLs at any time for all properties storing images in the Akamai system. It is not recommended or advised to store all files in advance on your own system since properties change and update images frequently. Although we are not responsible for the images each property stores on the Akamai system, YOU will be responsible for any customer issues arising from displaying outdated or saved image files on your own pages. Thanks! Adrian

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  • Validation problem with a 'JotForm' template

    - by Thomas
    A client sent me a form template they had created using jotform.com to implement on their wordpress site. The form template is supposed to hide part of the form until the user clicks the 'next' button. At which point a script is supposed to validate all of the input fields the user has presumably filled out and then display the rest of the form. While I have successfully managed to get the form to display the next part of the form when the user clicks 'next', it fails to validate the input fields. Its kind of difficult to explain without a huge block of text so it is probably easier to show you: The original working template that the customer sent me: http://www.loftist.com/jotform/List_Your_Loft.html The problem child: http://www.loftist.com/?page_id=78 If you just click on one of the input fields and then click elsewhere on the page, the input fields successfully return a validation error message and prevent the user from clicking on the 'next' button. However, if you simply click on the next button than the next set of fields get displayed. Any thoughts? What am I doing wrong here? Im convinced this must be a really simple problem but Im not sure what it could be....

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  • Why might ASP.NET be putting JavaScript in HTML Comment blocks, not CDATA?

    - by d4nt
    We have an ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms app that uses MS Ajax 1.0. It's working fine on all our environments (dev, test, IE6 VMs etc.). However, at the customer site the client side validation is not happening. We're currently trying to eliminate all the various factors and along the way we asked them to get their page source and send it to us, and we found something interesting. In our environment, our page has ASP.NET javascript in CDATA blocks: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ . . . //]]> </script> In their environment, the same code looks like this: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- . . . //--> </script> This may be a red herring, but I'd like to eliminate it as the cause of the validation issues. Does anyone know whether specific configurations/patches/versions of ASP.NET will make it do this?

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  • Tfs 2010: how to set up a corporate source server?

    - by bwerks
    Hi all, I'm looking for guidance in setting up a corporate source server, but when I google this topic the best I can come up with is articles and walkthrough concerned with configuring VS to use microsoft's public symbol servers for use with debugging .NET assemblies. Provided for background info, the environment I'm concerned with using is Vs2010/Tfs2010. Basically, the workflow I'm looking to facilitate is this: 1) customer reports problem with application 2) application of the appropriate version is installed on a virtual machine 3) developer repros bug attaching to process on virtual machine and leveraging source server (symbol server?) on corporate domain. This is the step I'm concerned with. 4) developer pinpoints problem fixes bug in workspace. 5) developer performs a dll swap on VM to test changes? (side topic, not sure on this) 6) normal development/source control workflows. Any advice is welcome! Edit: since writing this, I have stumbled on this article, which is a nice writeup on the configuration of source server for TFS 2008. Has anyone adapted this for Tfs 2010?

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  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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  • OSGI, Servlets and JPA hello world / tutorial / example

    - by Kamil
    I want to build a web application which basically is a restful web-service serving json messages. I would like it to be as simple as possible. I was thinking about using servlets (with annotations). JPA as a database layer is a must - Toplink or Hibernate. Preferably working on Tomcat. I want to have app divided into modules serving different functionality (auth service, customer service, etc..). And I would like to be able to update those modules without reinstalling whole application on the server - like eclipse plugins, user is notified (when he enters webapp's home url) that update is available, clicks it, and app is downloading and installing updated module. I think this functionality can be made with OSGI, but I can't find any example code, or tutorial with simple hello world updatable servlet providing some data from database through jpa. I'm looking for an advice: - Is OSGI the right tool for this or it can be done with something simpler? - Where can I find some examples covering topic (or topics) which I need for this project. - Which OSGI implementation would be best-simplest for this task. *My knowledge of OSGI is basic. I know how bundles are described, I understand concept of OSGI container and what it does. I have never created any OSGI app yet.

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  • Product Name Print Several times, How to fix.?

    - by mans
    i had added the following Opencart module for my order report list... http://www.opencart.com/index.php?route=extension/extension/info&extension_id=3597&filter_search=order%20list%20filter%20model&page=4 I have problems with the column "Products". If there are more than one option the products name prints several times. So if I got a product with three options the product name prints three times. Is there any way to fix this problem? i want print product name and model number only once, any idea.? i will attach the results what i got now... this is my sql query... public function getOrders($data = array()) { $sql = "select o.order_id,o.email,o.telephone,CONCAT(o.shipping_address_1, ' ', o.shipping_address_2) AS address,CONCAT(o.firstname, ' ', o.lastname) AS customer,o.payment_zone AS state,o.payment_address_2 AS block, o.payment_address_1 AS address,o.payment_postcode AS postcode,(SELECT os.name FROM " . DB_PREFIX . "order_status os WHERE os.order_status_id = o.order_status_id AND os.language_id = '" . (int)$this->config->get('config_language_id') . "') AS status,o.payment_city AS city,GROUP_CONCAT(pd.name) AS pdtname,GROUP_CONCAT(op.model) AS model,o.date_added,sum(op.quantity) AS quantity,GROUP_CONCAT(opt.value ) AS options, GROUP_CONCAT(opt.order_product_id ) AS ordprdid,GROUP_CONCAT(op.order_product_id ) AS optprdid, GROUP_CONCAT(op.quantity) AS opquantity from `" . DB_PREFIX . "order` o LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "order_product op ON (op.order_id = o.order_id) LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "product_description pd ON (pd.product_id = op.product_id and pd.language_id = '" . (int)$this->config->get('config_language_id') . "') LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "order_option opt ON (opt.order_product_id = op.order_product_id) "; Product Name = GROUP_CONCAT(pd.name) AS pdtname,

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  • setting write permissions on theme subdirectory?

    - by Scott B
    I've a theme which supports multiple templates, each with a header background image whose color can be set by the site owner via a colorpicker widget in my theme's options panel. This has the effect of opening the background image, recoloring it and resaving it back to the server. I've had zero issues with this routine until recently when a customer installed the theme on a web host whose default read/write permissions are apparently much more restrictive than the norm. In this case, the user was unable to alter the colors of the template images because of the permissions settings. I'm looking for a bit of understanding on what the permissions would need to be (assuming I purposefully set them via script) to allow the logged in wordpress user to write to files under my theme's styles directory. The code I'm using to write to the image file is below... $img = imagecreatefromgif("../wp-content/themes/mytheme/styles/".get_option('my_theme')."/image.gif"); $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagecolorset($img, 0, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagegif($img, $path);

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  • IIS7 dynamic content compression and webservices

    - by vandalo
    I am moving and old asmx webservice to a new server with IIS7. This webservice basically sends a big dataset (10mb+) to a winform application. The old solution was implemented using a custom soap extension which compressed the content before sending the stream to the client. The client, of course, implemented the same custom soap extension, to decompressed the stream in a dataset. Everything has worked pretty well for years. My customer doesn't want to change the code upgrading to WCF. They just want to put the old App on the new server and use the new dynamic content compression features. We're testing things on a test server (win serv 2008) and it seems that it's working pretty well, even if it seems slow: we can't see any difference in performance (speed) between the uncompressed and compressed stream. Here's the question. Where should I put the settings? Most people say I can't put it in my web.config; others say it can be put there. I am a bit confused. Are there any tricks or things I should know? What about mimeTypes? Should I set some parameters, somewhere? ... considering my stream is XML (dataset) ?? Thanks to everyone who would like to help Alberto

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  • Planning and coping with deadlines in SCRUM

    - by John
    From wikipedia: During each “sprint”, typically a two to four week period (with the length being decided by the team), the team creates a potentially shippable product increment (for example, working and tested software). The set of features that go into a sprint come from the product “backlog,” which is a prioritized set of high level requirements of work to be done. Which backlog items go into the sprint is determined during the sprint planning meeting. During this meeting, the Product Owner informs the team of the items in the product backlog that he or she wants completed. The team then determines how much of this they can commit to complete during the next sprint. During a sprint, no one is allowed to change the sprint backlog, which means that the requirements are frozen for that sprint. After a sprint is completed, the team demonstrates the use of the software. I was reading this and two questions immediately popped into my head: 1)If a sprint is only a couple of weeks, decided in a single meeting, how can you accurately plan what can be achieved? High-level tasks can't be estimated accurately in my experience, and can easily double what seems reasonable. As a developer, I hate being pushed into committing what I can deliver in the next month based on a set of customer requirements, this goes against everything I know about generating reliable estimates rather than having to roughly estimate and then double it! 2)Since the requirements are supposed to be locked and a deliverable product available at the end, what happens when something does take twice as long? What if this feature is only 1/2 done at the end of the sprint? The wiki article goes on to talk about Sprint planning, where things are broken down into much smaller tasks for estimation (<1 day) but this is after the Sprint features are already planned and the release agreed, isn't it? kind of like a salesman promising something without consulting the developers.

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  • PHP GET issue - it aint workin!

    - by benhowdle89
    I have a simple PHP form which displays inputs with values from a mysql DB and send the form results to another page which updates a db table based on the GET results: echo "<form method='get' action='updateprojects.php'>"; echo "<table>"; echo "<tr>"; echo " <th>Project No</th> <th>Customer Name</th> <th>Description</th> </tr>"; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<tr>"; echo "<td><input value=" . $row['project_no'] . "></input></td>"; echo "<td><input value='" . $row['cust_name'] . "'></input></td>"; echo "<td><input value='" . $row['description'] . "'></input></td>"; echo "</tr>"; } echo "</table>"; echo "<input type='submit' value='Update' />"; echo "</form>"; on updateprojects.php i have set up the GET variable and even echoed them to check but nothing comes through! Cannot see why!? This is the start of updateprojects.php: echo $_GET['project_no'].$_GET['cust_name'].$_GET['description'];

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  • MS Access: Permission problems with views

    - by Keith Williams
    "I'll use an Access ADP" I said, "it's only a tiny project and I've got better things to do", I said, "I can build an interface really quickly in Access" I said. </sarcasm> Sorry for the rant, but it's Friday, I have a date in just under two hours, and I'm here late because this just isn't working - so, in despair, I turn to SO for help. Access ADP front-end, linked to a SQL Server 2008 database Using a SQL Server account to log into the database (for testing); this account is a member of the role, "Api"; this role has SELECT, EXECUTE, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE access to the "Api" schema The "Api" schema is owned by "dbo" All tables have a corresponding view in the Api schema: e.g. dbo.Customer -- Api.Customers The rationale is that users don't have direct table access, but can deal with views as if they were tables I can log into SQL using my test login, and it works fine: no access to the tables, but I can select, insert, update and delete from the Api views. In Access, I see the views, I can open them, but whenever I try to insert or update, I get the following error: The SELECT permission was denied on the object '[Table name which the view is using]', database '[database name]', schema 'dbo' Crazy as it sounds, Access seems to be trying to access the underlying table rather than the view. Any ideas?

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  • Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

    - by Wayne M
    This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

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  • Spinner original text

    - by user1696863
    I'm trying my Spinner to display "Select City" before the Spinner has itself been clicked by the user. How can I do this? My current XML code is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:custom="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/com.olacabs.customer" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="@drawable/page_background" android:orientation="vertical" > <TextView android:id="@+id/textView1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:background="@android:color/darker_gray" android:gravity="center" android:paddingBottom="4dp" android:paddingTop="4dp" android:text="@string/rate_card" android:textColor="@color/white" android:textSize="20dp" custom:customFont="litera_bold.ttf" /> <Spinner android:id="@+id/select_city" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginTop="40dp" android:prompt="@string/selectCity" /> </LinearLayout> Also, what does android:spinnerMode exactly do. I tried changing its value to dropdown but nothing happened and the application still showed a popup dialogue. My activity that implements this XML file is: public class RateCardActivity extends OlaActivity { public void onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); setContentView(R.layout.rate_card); Spinner spinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.select_city); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource(this, R.array.select_city, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinner.setAdapter(adapter); } }

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  • Combining two queries on same table

    - by user1830856
    I've looked through several previous questions but I am struggling to apply the solutions to my specific example. I am having trouble combining query 1 and query 2. My query originally returned (amongst other details) the values "SpentTotal" and "UnderSpent" for all members/users for the current month. My issue has been adding two additional columns to this original quert that will return JUST these two columns (Spent and Overspent) but for the previous months data Original Query #1: set @BPlanKey = '##CURRENTMONTH##' EXECUTE @RC = Minimum_UpdateForPeriod @BPlanKey SELECT cm.clubaccountnumber, bp.Description , msh.PeriodMinObligation, msh.SpentTotal, msh.UnderSpent, msh.OverSpent, msh.BilledDate, msh.PeriodStartDate, msh.PeriodEndDate, msh.OverSpent FROM MinimumSpendHistory msh INNER JOIN BillPlanMinimums bpm ON msh.BillingPeriodKey = @BPlanKey and bpm.BillPlanMinimumKey = msh.BillPlanMinimumKey INNER JOIN BillPlans bp ON bp.BillPlanKey = bpm.BillPlanKey INNER JOIN ClubMembers cm ON cm.parentmemberkey is null and cm.ClubMemberKey = msh.ClubMemberKey order by cm.clubaccountnumber asc, msh.BilledDate asc Query #2, query of all columns for PREVIOUS month, but I only need two (spent and over spent), added to the query from above, joined on the customer number: set @BPlanKeyLastMo = '##PREVMONTH##' EXECUTE @RCLastMo = Minimum_UpdateForPeriod @BPlanKeyLastMo SELECT cm.clubaccountnumber, bp.Description , msh.PeriodMinObligation, msh.SpentTotal, msh.UnderSpent, msh.OverSpent, msh.BilledDate, msh.PeriodStartDate, msh.PeriodEndDate, msh.OverSpent FROM MinimumSpendHistory msh INNER JOIN BillPlanMinimums bpm ON msh.BillingPeriodKey = @BPlanKeyLastMo and bpm.BillPlanMinimumKey = msh.BillPlanMinimumKey INNER JOIN BillPlans bp ON bp.BillPlanKey = bpm.BillPlanKey INNER JOIN ClubMembers cm ON cm.parentmemberkey is null and cm.ClubMemberKey = msh.ClubMemberKey order by cm.clubaccountnumber asc, msh.BilledDate asc Big thank you to any and all that are willing to lend their help and time. Cheers! AJ CREATE TABLE MinimumSpendHistory( [MinimumSpendHistoryKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [BillPlanMinimumKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ClubMemberKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [BillingPeriodKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PeriodStartDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PeriodEndDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PeriodMinObligation] [money] NOT NULL, [SpentTotal] [money] NOT NULL, [CurrentSpent] [money] NOT NULL, [OverSpent] [money] NULL, [UnderSpent] [money] NULL, [BilledAmount] [money] NOT NULL, [BilledDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PriorPeriodMinimum] [money] NULL, [IsCommitted] [bit] NOT NULL, [IsCalculated] [bit] NOT NULL, [BillPeriodMinimumKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [CarryForwardCounter] [smallint] NULL, [YTDSpent] [money] NOT NULL, [PeriodToAccumulateCounter] [int] NULL, [StartDate] [datetime] NOT NULL,

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  • .NET Remoting: Getting underlying socket?

    - by Alan
    Hi, I'm writing a light remoting app to assist in debugging a problem with remoting communication. This app mimics much of what a larger application does: Periodically sends a heartbeat to another peer application, and periodically verifies that a heartbeat has been received within some time threshold. What we're seeing is in our big application, the heartbeats seem to get dropped. One peer will go for long periods of time without seeing heartbeats from another peer, until the peer that is "dead" is restarted. The big application is responsive in all other ways. We believe it has something to do with the network setup. We were able to repro the problem locally, and fixed it by making some configuration changes to our test environment. To help our customer diagnose the issue, the mini-remoting app needs to log as much information as possible. So, is there a way to get the underlying socket for the remoting connection? I'm aware that I could write a custom sink for this, but I'd like to keep the actual remoting process as close to what is implemented in the big app as possible. Also as an aside, any ideas why the big-app might be "dropping" heartbeats?

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  • MouseListener fired without checking JCheckBox

    - by Morinar
    This one is pretty crazy: I've got an AppSight recording (for those not familiar, it's a recording of what they did including keyboard/mouse input + network traffic, etc) of a customer reproducing a bug. Basically, we've got a series of items listed on the screen with JCheckBox-es down the left side. We've got a MouseListener set for the JPanel that looks something like this: private MouseAdapter createMouseListener() { return new MouseAdapter(){ public void mousePressed( MouseEvent e ) { if( e.getComponent() instanceof JCheckBox ) { // Do stuff } } }; } Based on the recording, it appears very strongly that they click just above one of the checkboxes. After that, it's my belief that this listener fired and the "Do stuff" block happened. However, it did NOT check the box. The user then saw that the box was unchecked, so they clicked on it. This caused the "Do stuff" block to fire again, thus undoing what it had done the first time. This time, the box was checked. Therefore, the user thinks that the box is checked, and it looks like it is, but our client thinks that the box is unchecked as it was clicked twice. Is this possible at all? For the life of me, I can't reproduce it or see how it could be possible, but based on the recording and the data the client sent to the server, I can't see any other logical explanation. Any help, thoughts, and or ideas would be much appreciated.

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  • Android CursorAdapters, ListViews and background threads

    - by MattC
    This application I've been working on has databases with multiple megabytes of data to sift through. A lot of the activities are just ListViews descending through various levels of data within the databases until we reach "documents", which is just HTML to be pulled from the DB(s) and displayed on the phone. The issue I am having is that some of these activities need to have the ability to search through the databases by capturing keystrokes and re-running the query with a "like %blah%" in it. This works reasonably quickly except when the user is first loading the data and when the user first enters a keystroke. I am using a ResourceCursorAdapter and I am generating the cursor in a background thread, but in order to do a listAdapter.changeCursor(), I have to use a Handler to post it to the main UI thread. This particular call is then freezing the UI thread just long enough to bring up the dreaded ANR dialog. I'm curious how I can offload this to a background thread totally so the user interface remains responsive and we don't have ANR dialogs popping up. Just for full disclosure, I was originally returning an ArrayList of custom model objects and using an ArrayAdapter, but (understandably) the customer pointed out it was bad memory-manangement and I wasn't happy with the performance anyways. I'd really like to avoid a solution where I'm generating huge lists of objects and then doing a listAdapter.notifyDataSetChanged/Invalidated() Here is the code in question: private Runnable filterDrugListRunnable = new Runnable() { public void run() { if (filterLock.tryLock() == false) return; cur = ActivityUtils.getIndexItemCursor(DrugListActivity.this); if (cur == null || forceRefresh == true) { cur = docDb.getItemCursor(selectedIndex.getIndexId(), filter); ActivityUtils.setIndexItemCursor(DrugListActivity.this, cur); forceRefresh = false; } updateHandler.post(new Runnable() { public void run() { listAdapter.changeCursor(cur); } }); filterLock.unlock(); updateHandler.post(hideProgressRunnable); updateHandler.post(updateListRunnable); } };

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  • What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

    - by Rafael Szuminski
    Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

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  • How to do an additional search on archive in rails if record not found, by extending model?

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello, I was wondering if somebody knows an elegant solution to the following: Suppose I have a table that holds orders, with a bunch of data. So I'm at 1M records, and searches begin to take time. So I want to speed it up by archiving some data that is more than 3 years old - saving it into a table called orders-archive, and then purging them from the orders table. So if we need to research something or customer wants to pull older information - they still can, but 99% of the lookups are done on the orders no older than a year and a half - so there is no reason to keep looking through older data all the time. These move & purge operations can be then croned to be done on a weekly basis. I already did some tests and I know that I will slash my search times by about 4 times. So far so good, right? However I was thinking about how to implement older archival lookups and the only reasonable thing I can think of is some sort of if-else If not found in orders, do a search in orders-archive. However - I have about 20 tables that I want to archive and god knows how many searches / finds are done through out the code, that I don't want to modify. So I was wondering if there is an elegant rails-way solution to this problem, by extending a model somehow? Has anyone dealt with similar case before? Thank you.

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  • How to do i18n and create Windows Installer of Haskell programs?

    - by Aufheben
    I'm considering using Haskell to develop for a little commercial project. The program must be internationalized (to Simplified Chinese, to be specific), and my customer requests that it should be delivered in a one-click Windows Installer form. So basically these are the two problems I'm facing now: I18n of Haskell programs: the method described in Internationalization of Haskell programs did work (partially) if I change the command of executing the program from LOCALE=zh_CN.UTF-8 ./Main to LANG=zh_CN.UTF-8 ./Main (I'm working on Ubuntu 10.10), however, the Chinese output is garbled, and I've no idea why is that. Distribution on Windows: I'm used to work under Linux and build & package my Haskell programs using Cabal, but what is the most natural way to create a one-click Windows Installer from a cabalized Haskell package? Is the package bamse the right way to go? ------ Details for the first problem ------ What I did was: $ hgettext -k __ -o messages.pot Main.hs $ msginit --input=messages.pot --locale=zh_CN.UTF-8 (Edit the zh_CN.po file, adding Chinese translation) $ mkdir -p zh_CN/LC_MESSAGES $ msgfmt --output-file=zh_CN/LC_MESSAGES/hello.mo zh_CN.po $ ghc --make Main.hs $ LANG=zh_CN.UTF-8 ./Main And the output was like: This indicates gettext is actually working, but for some reason the generated zh_CN.mo file is broken (my guess). I'm pretty sure my zh_CN.po file is encoded in UTF-8. Plus, aside from using System.IO.putStrLn, I also tried System.IO.UTF8.putStrLn to output the string, which didn't work either.

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  • Spinner activity not working

    - by user1696863
    I'm trying to create an activity, RateCardActivity, which has a spinner in it. My layout file for RateCardActivity is rate_card. My RateCardActivity looks like the following. public class RateCardActivity { public void onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); setContentView(R.layout.rate_card); Spinner spinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.select_city); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource(this, R.array.select_city, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinner.setAdapter(adapter); } } The layout file rate_card is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:custom="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/com.olacabs.customer" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:orientation="vertical" > <TextView android:id="@+id/textView1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:background="@android:color/darker_gray" android:gravity="center" android:paddingBottom="4dp" android:paddingTop="4dp" android:text="@string/rate_card" android:textColor="@color/white" android:textSize="20dp" custom:customFont="litera_bold.ttf" /> <Spinner android:id="@+id/select_city" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> </LinearLayout> The RateCardActivity is called from another activity using an intent (I'm sure there is nothing wrong with that part of the code as when I substitute RateCardActivity with another activity, the application works fine). When I try to open the RateCardActivity in the application in emulator, the application crashes and I got the message "The application has stopped unexpectedly. Please try again later." I can't seem to understand what I'm doing wrong, and want to know how to correct this?

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