Search Results

Search found 22968 results on 919 pages for 'stuck again'.

Page 710/919 | < Previous Page | 706 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714 715 716 717  | Next Page >

  • Redirect from URL with QueryString to the same URL without QueryString

    - by Slauma
    I have a page request with a QueryString, say http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx?OrderID=1. The page is displayed in a browser. Now there is an asp:LinkButton on the page which should enable the user to open the page without the QueryString (as if he had entered http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx directly in the browser's address bar). I had two ideas: 1) Use the PostBackUrl attribute of the LinkButton: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" PostBackUrl="~/Orders.aspx" /> 2) Use "RedirectUrl" in an event handler: <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text="Select" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" /> ...and... protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Redirect("~/Orders.aspx"); } In both cases the browser's address bar shows http://www.xyz.net/Orders.aspx without the QueryString, as I like to have it. But in the first case the page does not change at all. But it should, because I'm evaluating the QueryString in code-behind and control the appearance of the page depending on whether a QueryString exists or not. The second option works as intended. If I am not wrong the second option requires an additional roundtrip: Browser sends request to server Event handler on server side sends Redirect URL to browser Browser sends again request to the server, but with the new URL Server sends new requested page to browser Is this correct at all? Whereas the first option omits the first two steps in the list above, thus saving the additional roundtrip and resulting in: Browser sends request to the server, but with the new URL (the PostbackURL specified in the LinkButton) Server sends new requested page to browser But, as said, the result isn't the same. I'm sure my try to explain the differences between the two options is wrong somewhere. But I don't know where exactly. Can someone explain what's really the difference? Do I really need this second roundtrip of option (2) to achieve what I want? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Problem with Remember Me Service in Spring Security

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm trying to implement a "remember me" functionality in my website using Spring. The cookie and entry in the persistent_logins table are getting created correctly. Additionally, I can see that the correct user is being restored as the username is displayed at the top of the page. However, once I try to access any information for this user when they return after they were "remembered", I get a NullPointerException. It looks as though the user isn't being set in the session again. My applicationContext-security.xml contains the following: <remember-me data-source-ref="dataSource" user-service-ref="userService"/> ... <authentication-provider user-service-ref="userService" /> <jdbc-user-service id="userService" data-source-ref="dataSource" role-prefix="ROLE_" users-by-username-query="select email as username, password, 1 as ENABLED from user where email=?" authorities-by-username-query="select user.id as id, upper(role.name) as authority from user, role, users_roles where users_roles.user_fk=id and users_roles.role_fk=role.name and user.email=?"/> I thought it may have had something to do with users-by-username query but surely login wouldn't work correctly if this query was incorrect? Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, gearoid.

    Read the article

  • Problem binding action parameters using FCKeditor, AJAX and ASP.NET MVC

    - by TonE
    I have a simple ASP.Net MVC View which contains an FCKeditor text box (created using FCKeditor's Javascript ReplaceTextArea() function). These are included within an Ajax.BeginForm helper: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("AddText", "Letters", new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "addTextResult" })) {%> <div> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </div> <div> <%=Html.TextArea("testBox", "Content", new { @name = "testBox" })%> <script type=""text/javascript""> window.onload = function() { var oFCKeditor = new FCKeditor('testBox') ; var sBasePath = '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/FCKeditor/") %>'; oFCKeditor.BasePath = sBasePath; oFCKeditor.ToolbarSet = "Basic"; oFCKeditor.Height = 400; oFCKeditor.ReplaceTextarea() ; } </script> <div id="addTextResult"> </div> <%} %> The controller action hanlding this is: [ValidateInput(false)] public ActionResult AddText(string testBox) { return Content(testBox); } Upon initial submission of the Ajax Form the testBox string in the AddText action is always "Content", whatever the contents of the FCKeditor have been changed to. If the Ajax form is submitted again a second time (without further changes) the testBox paramater correctly contains the actual contents of the FCKeditor. If I use a Html.TextArea without replacing with FCKeditor it works correctly, and if I use a standard Post form submit inplace of AJAX all works as expected. Am I doing something wrong? If not is there a suitable/straight-forward workaround for this problem?

    Read the article

  • which language to use for building web application?

    - by harshit
    Hi I already have experience in developing websites using java technologies ... Now i have a task to develop another website and i have the liberty to select technology to built. I dont want to built using Java/J2ee standard technology as i want to learn new language. The specification about website i can give is that: 1) its a real estate based site. 2) so it will have a db of real estate data around million records 3) website will have more than 1000 hits /day and will have various functionality like search, add , delete,generate reports etc. So i mean UI should be good and fast. Technologies i have in mind .NEt( i have already worked on it but it licensed so may not go for it) , Groovy, Ruby on rails ,Play, GWT etc ... I am a college student and the website is again of a student(non techie guy) so i have 5-6 mnths to bring the website up I have read about them but all have adv and disadv but would like to hear from people who have used it and can tell me what they felt about the languages and problems while developing it.. Please feel free to drop any opinion you feel . Thanks

    Read the article

  • Apache Mina Server Restart java.net.BindException: Address already in use

    - by Kosaki
    Hello, I have a rather annoying problem in my server application. I bind Apache Mina with the following code: acceptor.bind(new InetSocketAddress(PORT)); Where acceptor is an NioSocketAcceptor. Over a HTTP interface I can shutdown the server so I can restart it. Server.ioAcceptor.unbind(new InetSocketAddress(Server.PORT)); for(IoSession session: Server.ioAcceptor.getManagedSessions().values()){ if(session.isConnected() && !session.isClosing()){ session.close(false); } } Server.ioAcceptor.dispose(); Main.transport.stop(); Logger.getRootLogger().warn("System going down. Request from "+context.getRemoteAddress()); System.exit(10); This is the code I use to stop the Mina server. However if I try to start the server again in the next couple of minutes. (Somewhere between 5 minutes and 15 minutes) I get the following exception on start up: java.net.BindException: Address already in use I also tried a simple ioAcceptor.unbind() but there was no difference. The server runs on Centos 5 with OpenJDK. Apache Mina version is 2.0 RC1. Thank you in advance for any ideas on how to resolve this.

    Read the article

  • What GUI tool can I use for building applications that interact with multiple APIs?

    - by tarasm
    My company uses a lot of different web services on daily bases. I find that I repeat same steps over and over again on daily bases. For example, when I start a new project, I perform the following actions: Create a new client & project in Liquid Planner. Create a new client Freshbooks Create a project in Github or Codebasehq Developers to Codebasehq or Github who are going to be working on this project Create tasks in Ticketing system on Codebasehq and tasks in Liquid Planner This is just when starting new projects. When I have to track tasks, it gets even trickier because I have to monitor tasks in 2 different systems. So my question is, is there a tool that I can use to create a web service that will automate some of these interactions? Ideally, it would be something that would allow me to graphically work with the web service API and produce an executable that I can run on a server. I don't want to build it from scratch. I know, I can do it with Python or RoR, but I don't want to get that low level. I would like to add my sources and pass data around from one service to another. What could I use? Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Integration test failing through NUnit Gui/Console, but passes through TestDriven in IDE

    - by Cliff
    I am using NHibernate against an Oracle database with the NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver driver class. I have an integration test that pulls back expected data properly when executed through the IDE using TestDriven.net. However, when I run the unit test through the NUnit GUI or Console, NHibernate throws an exception saying it cannot find the Oracle.DataAccess assembly. Obviously, this prevents me from running my integration tests as part of my CI process. NHibernate.HibernateException : The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly Oracle.DataAccess could not be found. Ensure that the assembly Oracle.DataAccess is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly.* I have tried making the assembly available in two ways, by copying it into the bin\debug folder and by adding the element in the config file. Again, both methods work when executing through TestDriven in the IDE. Neither work when executing through NUnit GUI/Console. The NUnit Gui log displays the following message. 21:42:26,377 ERROR [TestRunnerThread] ReflectHelper [(null)]- Could not load type Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleConnection, Oracle.DataAccess. System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly 'Oracle.DataAccess, Version=2.111.7.20, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89b483f429c47342' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. File name: 'Oracle.DataAccess, Version=2.111.7.20, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89b483f429c47342' --- System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly 'Oracle.DataAccess' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. File name: 'Oracle.DataAccess' I am running NUnit 2.4.8, TestDriven.net 2.24 and VS2008sp1 on Windows 7 64bit. Oracle Data Provider v2.111.7.20, NHibernate v2.1.0.4. Has anyone run into this issue, better yet, fixed it?

    Read the article

  • How do I use jquery validate remote validation on a field that depends on another field in the form?

    - by Kevin J
    I have a form in which I am using remote validation to check if an email address already exists in the database. However, the catch is that on this form, the user can select between several different "groups", and each group has its own distinct set of email addresses (thus the same email can exist once in each group). The group selection is a dropdown on the form, and the email address is an input field with remote validation. I have a couple issues. First, I have set up my remote rule like this: remote: { url: 'remote_script.php', data: { group_id: $('select.group_id').val() } } However, this seems to statically set the group_id parameter to whatever the first value in the select is. Meaning, if I change the select, then trigger the remote validation again, the group_id parameter does not change First, how can I make this parameter dynamic, depending on the value of a select in the form? Secondly, how do I manually trigger the remote validation on the email address field? When the group_id select is changed, I want to re-trigger the remote validation on the email address field (without changing the value of the field). I tried using $(selector).validate().element('.email_addr') But this appears to only trigger the standard validation (required, email), and not the remote call.

    Read the article

  • git push merge error, but git pull is already up-to-date. Tried reclone, same problem.

    - by Jasie
    I do: git commit . git push error: Entry 'file.php' not uptodate. Cannot merge. Then I do git pull Already up-to-date. What do I do? I just want to get the latest version from the remote copy, and overwrite anything on my local copy. Edit: I tried everything. I deleted my local repo, and git clone ssh://[email protected]/directory ... Checking out files: 100%, done. git status On branch master nothing to commit (working directory clean) All looks good, right? Pull just in case. git pull Already up-to-date. I make a one line change in a file to see if I can push it. git commit . [master 1e18af1] Rando change 1 files changed, 2 insertions(+), 0 deletions(-) git push Counting objects: 13, done. Delta compression using up to 2 threads. Compressing objects: 100% (6/6), done. Writing objects: 100% (7/7), 646 bytes, done. Total 7 (delta 3), reused 0 (delta 0) From /directory d6d61aa..1e18af1 master -> origin/master error: Entry 'someotherfile.php' not uptodate. Cannot merge. Updating b8f9a54..1e18af1 To ssh://[email protected]/directory d6d61aa..1e18af1 master - master I have no idea what's going on! How can I commit/pull again normally? Thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • How do you keep all your languages straight?

    - by Chris Blackwell
    I think I'm going a little crazy. Right now, I'm working with the following languages (I was just doing a mental inventory): C++ - our game engine Assembler - low level debugging and a few co-processor specific routines Lua - our game engine scripting language HLSL - for shaders Python - our build system and utility tools Objective C/C++ - game engine platform code for Mac and iPhone C# - A few tools developed in our overseas office ExtendScript - Photoshop exporting tools ActionScript - UI scripting VBScript - some spreadsheet related stuff PHP - some web related stuff SQL - some web and tool related stuff On top of this are the plethora of API's that often have many different ways of doing the same thing: std library, boost, .NET, wxWidgets, Cocoa, Carbon, native script libraries for Python, Lua, etc, OpenGL, Direct3d, GDI, Aqua, augh! I find myself inadvertently conflating languages and api's, not realizing what I'm doing until I get syntax errors. I feel like I can't possibly keep up with it, and I can't possibly be proficient in all of these areas. Especially outside the realm of C++ and Python, I find myself programming more by looking at manuals that from memory. Do you have a similar problem? Ideas for compartmentalizing so you're more efficient? Deciding where you want to stay proficient? Organizational tips? Good ways to remember when you switch from Lua to C++ you need to start using semi-colons again? Rants on how complicated we programmers have made things for ourselves? Any ideas welcome!

    Read the article

  • ssh tunneling with visualsvn

    - by DeveloperChris
    I have been asked to setup visualsvn for visual studio 2008 Due to firewall restrictions and server configuration. I need to use ssh tunneling. My problem is this. The local machine needs to connect to a gateway machine via ssh then connect to the subversion server so Local machine ---{ssh}--- gateway ---{ssh}-- subversion server I am not exactly sure of the correct process to do this. It appears that I must start a ssh process using plink to open a local port and forward that to the remote subversion server. eg: plink user@gateway -L 22:192.168.1.1:22 Then when visualsvn starts it uses tortoiseplink to make the actual connection through to the subversion server using svn+ssh://username@localhost:22/myrepo This seems very very clunky. firstly it needs several steps to setup the connection secondly I need plink running which leaves a command prompt on the desktop (clutter = yuck) lastly I need to use two different programs that do the same thing. (plink + tortoiseplink) The problem is that tortoiseplink doesn't run in the background. As soon as I connect to the ssh gateway and enter the password it closes again. So I can't use it to create the initial connection. If I use plink instead of tortoiseplink in visualsvn then I never get prompted for the password. so it just hangs with an open command prompt and no password request. Is there a way to setup visualsvn so that everything happens in one command line? I have searched high and low for a suitable and clean method to tunnel from visualsvn to the remote server and have found very little. it all either assumes one hop (not two like mine) or it glosses over all the hard bits. DC

    Read the article

  • iPad Safari's mapping of mouse events to touch events in image-maps

    - by Tim
    My website makes extensive use of image-maps. The images are of pages from a medieval manuscript. The mouseOver event of the AREA tags has a tooltip attached to it, which displays a modern typographic transcription of the ancient script for the line the mouse is hovering over. I just checked my website out on the iPad at the Apple store. The iPad is many respects a joy to use, however, I am wondering about Apple's mapping of the mouseEvents to the finger-touch events. Apple probably had a good reason for doing things as they did, but their choices seem counterintuitive an overly complicated to me. Specifically, the iPad Safari browser clearly was responding to both fingerDown and fingerTap, and in different ways. When I tapped an area of the image-map, the tooltip wired to the mouse-over event pf the AREA tag was displayed, and remained visible until I tapped somewhere else. When I held my finger down on an area of the image-map, the area changed color. So if iPad Safari detects a mouseOver eventhandler, it executes the mouseOver code and apparently prevents the "click" event from propagating, so that if you also have something wired to the click event, it doesn't work? Is that right? But more importantly, why isn't fingerDown the iPad-Safari counterpart for mouseOver? FingerDown seems a more likely candidate than Tap when mapping the mousePOver event. I would have expected things to be mapped in this way: MouseClick : FingerTap (i.e. finger down and then immediately up) MouseOver : FingerDown (finger down and stays on the spot) If Apple had treated fingerDown as the counterpart to mouseOver, then the tooltip could be displayed upon FingerDown and made invisible again on fingerUp, which would be the counterpart to mouseOut. Perhaps someone could enlighten me about the thinking process that led Apple to these particular mouse-to-touch event-mappings? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Having trouble with instantiating objects in PHP & Ajax custom shopping cart

    - by Phil
    This is my first time playing with both ajax and objects, so please go easy on me I have 3 pages that make up the tester shopping cart. 1) page with 'add' 'remove' buttons and ajax code to call the PHP functions on page 2. this is the actual user page with the HTML output. 2) page with PHP cart function calls, receives $_GET requests from ajax on page 1 and calls functions of the cart object from page 3, returns results to page 1. 3) page with cart object definition. Here's the problem I believe I'm having. Currently I have 'session_start()' on pgs 1 & 2, and the cart definition (pag 3) on pgs 1 & 2. I only define '$_SESSION[cart]= new Cart' on page 2. However, it seems like each time i hit an ajax function (eg each time pg 2 reloads) it seems like it's rewriting $_SESSION['cart'] over again, thus it's always empty at each new click (even tho it displays results of that click) However, if i don't define '$_SESSION[cart] = new Cart' on pg 2, i get an error: Fatal error: main() [function.main]: The script tried to execute a method or access a property of an incomplete object. Please ensure that the class definition "Cart" of the object you are trying to operate on was loaded before unserialize() gets called or provide a __autoload() function to load the class definition in /home3/foundloc/public_html/booka/carti.php on line 17 Any suggestions? How can i stop re-creating my cart each time my page 2 (php cart function page) is called by ajax?

    Read the article

  • StackOverflow in compojure web project

    - by Anders Rune Jensen
    Hi I've been playing around with clojure and have been using it to build a simple little audio player. The strange thing is that sometimes, maybe one out of twenty, when contact the server I will get the following error: 2010-04-20 15:33:20.963::WARN: Error for /control java.lang.StackOverflowError at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) at clojure.core$seq__4245.invoke(core.clj:105) at clojure.core$filter__5084$fn__5086.invoke(core.clj:1794) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.sval(LazySeq.java:42) at clojure.lang.LazySeq.seq(LazySeq.java:56) at clojure.lang.RT.seq(RT.java:440) ... If I do it right after again it always works. So it appears to be related to timing or something. The code in question is: (defn add-track [t] (common/ref-add tracks t)) (defn add-collection [coll] (doseq [track coll] (add-track track))) and (defn ref-add [ref value] (dosync (ref-set ref (conj @ref value)))) where coll is extracted from this function: (defn tracks-by-album [album] (sort sort-tracks (filter #(= (:album %) album) @tracks))) so it does appear to be the tracks-by-album function from the stack trace. I just don't see why it sometimes works and sometimes doesn't.

    Read the article

  • BIRT logging in the onFetch step of a dataset

    - by Mark Underwood
    Hi all, Im having trouble with some javascript in the onFetch step of a dataset in a BIRT report. I've added logging in the initialise step of the report in a few different ways. The runtime im using is Tivoli Common Reporting, and they supply a logging framework. Its initialised as so reportContext.setPersistentGlobalVariable("logfileName", "DateRangeParm.log"); setupLogging(); logInitialize(); debugLogger("Started logging in initialize step"); debugLogger("Date: " + new Date()); This works fine to log on the steps of the report(ie initialise, BeforeRender, AfterRender etc.) but I cant seem to log anything in the Dataset steps such as onFetch etc. Ive also tried importPackage(Packages.java.util.logging); var fileHandler = new FileHandler("/tmp/birt.log", true); var rootLogger = Logger.getLogger(""); rootLogger.addHandler(fileHandler); as the BIRT instructions tell me to do in the BIRTFAQ Once again this allowed me to log things in the main report (ie BeforeRender etc) but not in the dataset onFetch Step. Ive also tried putting the previous javascript into the onFetch and that didnt seem to work either. Its a bit of a mystery. Im running Ubuntu 9.04. IBM java 1.5. Eclipse 3.5.0 and BIRT 2.5.1. Any help would be great.

    Read the article

  • Consume a WCF Web Service in Sharepoint Services 3.0

    - by Filip Ekberg
    I've seen this question and since it doesn't answer my question and the topic is fairly miss-leading in my opinion, I feel the urge to ask this again. I have a Sharepoint Webpart that I deploy using Visual Studio Sharepoint Tools 1.2 to a Sharepoint Services 3.0 instance on my local Windows 2003 server. All works great, however, as soon as I add a WCF Service it won't run the code. All I get is a File not found error. I've added this to my Web.Config which is a copy of App.Config <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_Services_xxxService" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Mtom" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:1196/xxxService.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_ervices_xxxgService" contract="xxxService.TestService" name="BasicHttpBinding_ServicesxxxService" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> I cannot even do using(var proxy = new xxService.TestService()), If that line is added, the new dll is not added to Sharepoint Services. Any suggestions? I also found this blog post and this forum thread, don't think they are too helpful though.

    Read the article

  • WNetAddConnection2 in Windows 7 with Impersonation and no Error Code

    - by Adam Driscoll
    I'm doing some crazy impersonation stuff to get around UAC dialogs in Windows 7 so the user does not have to interact with the UI (I have the admin creds of course). I have a process running as the Administrator and elevated past UAC. The issue that I'm facing is that when I make a call to WNetAddConnection2, within this process, I am not getting a new mapped net drive. The function returns ERROR_SUCCESS but no net drive is visible. We have another method of adding network drives using 'subst' but this, again, returns successful does does not add a net drive. I have tried to use the default user (which is the Administrator because of process's security context) and I have tried using specific user credentials. I can map the drive just fine through Explorer. Of course the same functionality works fine in XP/2003. I haven't got around to testing on Vista because of issues with impersonation that are limiting my ability to spin up the process. Are there unique Windows 7 limits on this function? MSDN does not glean any that I can find. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Duplicate a collection of entities and persist in Hibernate/JPA

    - by Michael Bavin
    Hi, I want to duplicate a collection of entities in my database. I retreive the collection with: CategoryHistory chNew = new CategoryHistory(); CategoryHistory chLast = (CategoryHistory)em.createQuery("SELECT ch from CategoryHistory ch WHERE ch.date = MAX(date)").getSingleResult; List<Category> categories = chLast.getCategories(); chNew.addCategories(categories)// Should be a copy of the categories: OneToMany Now i want to duplicate a list of 'categories' and persist it with EntityManager. I'm using JPA/Hibernate. UPDATE After knowing how to detach my entities, i need to know what to detach: current code: CategoryHistory chLast = (CategoryHistory)em.createQuery("SELECT ch from CategoryHistory ch WHERE ch.date=(SELECT MAX(date) from CategoryHistory)").getSingleResult(); Set<Category> categories =chLast.getCategories(); //detach org.hibernate.Session session = ((org.hibernate.ejb.EntityManagerImpl) em.getDelegate()).getSession(); session.evict(chLast);//detaches also its child-entities? //set the realations chNew.setCategories(categories); for (Category category : categories) { category.setCategoryHistory(chNew); } //set now create date chNew.setDate(Calendar.getInstance().getTime()); //persist em.persist(chNew); This throws a failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: entities.CategoryHistory.categories, no session or session was closed exception. I think he wants to lazy load the categories again, as i have them detached. What should i do now?

    Read the article

  • UIWebView not loading URL when URL is passed from UITableView

    - by Mark Hazlett
    Hey Everyone, So i'm building a webView into my application to show the contents of a URL that I am passing from a selection in a UITableView. I know the UIWebView is loading content properly because if you hard code say http://www.google.ca into the NSURL then it loads fine, however when I'm passing the URL that I parsed from an RSS feed back from the UITableView it won't load the URL properly. I tried the debugger and the URL is coming out as nil right before I try and parse it, however I can use NSLog to print the value of it out to the console. here's the code in my UIViewController that has my UIWebView #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface ReadFeedWebViewController : UIViewController { NSString *urlToGet; IBOutlet UIWebView *webView; } @property(nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWebView *webView; @property(nonatomic, retain) NSString *urlToGet; @end Here's the code for my implementation's viewDidLoad method... // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(@"Url inside Web View Controller - %@", urlToGet); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlToGet]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self.webView loadRequest:requestObj]; } Once again, I can print the URL to NSLog fine and if I hard code the URL into the NSURL object then it will load fine in the UIWebView. Here is where I'm setting the value in my UITableViewController... - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { ReadFeedWebViewController *extendedView = [[ReadFeedWebViewController alloc] init]; int storyIndex = [indexPath indexAtPosition: [indexPath length] - 1]; extendedView.urlToGet = [[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"link"]; //NSLog([[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"summary"]); NSLog([[stories objectAtIndex: storyIndex] objectForKey:@"link"]); [self.navigationController pushViewController:extendedView animated:YES]; [extendedView release]; } However, since I can print the value using NSLog in the extendedView view controller I know it's being passed properly. Cheers

    Read the article

  • [C#] Lock a file and avoid readings while it's writing

    - by vtortola
    Hi, My web application returns a file from the filesystem. These files are dynamic, so I have no way to know the names o how many of them will there be. When this file doesn't exist, the application creates it from the database. I want to avoid that two different threads recreate the same file at the same time, or that a thread try to return the file while other thread is creating it. So I want to lock a file till its recreation is complete, if other thread try to access it ... it will have to wait the file be unlocked. I've been reading about FileStream.Lock, but I have to know the file length and it won't prevent that other thread try to read the file, so it doesn't work for my particular case. I've been reading also about FileAccess.None, but it will throw an exception (which exception type?) if other thread/process try to access the file... so I should develop a "try again while is faulting" ... and I don't like too much that approach, although maybe there is not a better way. How could I archieve this? Kind regards.

    Read the article

  • Using Fancybox with Google Static Maps

    - by Levi Hackwith
    Setup I have multiple links on a page with the class location_link Each Links rel attribute is equal to a city state combo (i.e.,Omaha, NE) Once the page is loaded, a JavaScript function loops through all of the location_link items and binds a click event to them using jQuery. This click event fires a call to the Fancybox constructor that is supposed to show a Google Map of the location that link is associated with The Problem: Whenever I click on one of the "location links", I get the following error message: The requested content cannot be loaded. Please try again later. Code I've Already Written: function setUpLocationLinks() { locationLinks = $("a.location_link"); locationLinks.click( function() { var me = $(this); console.log(me.attr("href")); $.fancybox( { "showCloseButton" : true, "hideOnContentClick" : true, "titlePosition" : "inside", "title" : me.attr("rel"), "type" : "image" } ) return false; } ); } Research I've Already Done: The Google Static Map API no longer requires an API Key. The following is from the Google Static Maps API Page Note: The Google Static Maps API no longer requires a Maps API key! (Google Maps API Premier customers should instead sign their URLs using a new cryptographic key which will be sent to you. See the Premier documentation for more information.) The The Image URL I'm using does resolve and pulls back the data I need When I put the above mentioned URL into a standard <img> tag, the map shows up just fine. I'd like to pull this off without having to create some sort of dummy <img> tag that I'm constantly switching the src attribute out of. Hopefully, you'll find this information helpful. Please let me know if you have any other questions.

    Read the article

  • 'click' observer in Prototype

    - by Tom
    I have a page which contains several divs (each with a unique ID and the same class, 'parent'). Underneath each "parent" div, is a div with class "child" and unique ID name -child. This DIV is upon page load empty. Whenever you click on a parent DIV, the following code is executed. $$('div.parent').each(function(s){ $(s).observe('click', function(event){ event.stop(); var filer = $(s).readAttribute('filer'); var currentElement = $(s).id; var childElement = currentElement + '-children'; new Ajax.Updater ({success: childElement}, root + '/filers/interfacechildren', { parameters: {parentId: currentElement, filer: filer} }); }); }); Of course, it's possible that a child node is again a parent ont its own. The response looks like this (Smarty with Zend Framework): {foreach from=$ifaces item=interface} <div id="{$interface->name}" filer="{$interface->system_id}" class="parent">{$interface->name}</div> <div id="{$interface->name}-children" class="child"></div> {/foreach} Whenever I click on a "parent" div that is loaded inside a child, nothing happens :( Any suggestions / fixes how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • Javascript html5 database transaction problem in loops

    - by Marek
    I'm hittig my head on this and i will be glad for any help. I need to store in a database a context (a list of string ids) for another page. I open a page with a list of artworks and this page save into the database those artowrks ids. When i click on an artwork i open its webpage but i can access the database to know the context and refer to the next and prev artwork. This is my code to retrieve the contex: updateContext = function () { alert("updating context"); try { mydb.transaction( function(transaction) { transaction.executeSql("select artworks.number from artworks, collections where collections.id = artworks.section_id and collections.short_name in ('cro', 'cra', 'crp', 'crm');", [], contextDataHandler, errorHandler); }); } catch(e) { alert(e.message); } } the contextDatahandler function then iterates through the results and fill again the current_context table: contextDataHandler = function(transaction, results) { try { mydb.transaction( function(transaction) { transaction.executeSql("drop table current_context;", [], nullDataHandler, errorHandler); transaction.executeSql("create table current_context(id String);", [], nullDataHandler, errorHandler); } ) } catch(e) { alert(e.message); } var s = ""; for (var i=0; i < results.rows.length; i++) { var item = results.rows.item(0); s += item['number'] + " "; mydb.transaction( function(tx) { tx.executeSql("insert into current_context(id) values (?);", [item['number']]); } ) } alert(s); } the result is, i get the current_context table deleted, recreated, and filled, but all the rows are filled with the LAST artwork id. the query to retrieve the artworks ids works, so i think it's a transaction problem, but i cant figure out where. thanks for any help

    Read the article

  • Hyper-V File Server Clustering - at my wit’s end

    - by René Kåbis
    I am at my wit’s end with File Server clustering under Hyper-V. I am hoping that someone might be able to help me figure out this Gordian Knot of a technology that seems to have dead ends (like forcing cluster VMs to use iSCSI drives where normally-attached VHDX drives could suffice) where logic and reason would normally provide a logical solution. My hardware: I will be running three servers (in the end), but right now everything is taking place on one server. One of the secondary servers will exist purely as a witness/quorum, and another slightly more powerful one will be acting as an emergency backup (with additional storage, just not redundant) to hold the secondary AD VM and the other halves of a set of clustered VMs: the SQL VM and the file system VM. Please note, these each are the depreciated nodes of a cluster, the main nodes will be on the most powerful first machine. My heavy lifter is a machine that also contains all of the truly redundant storage on the network. If this gives anyone the heebie-geebies, too bad. It has a 6TB (usable) RAID-10 array, and will (in the end) hold the primary nodes of both aforementioned clusters, but is right now holding all VMs. This is, right now: DC01, DC02, SQL01, SQL02, FS01 & FS02. Eventually, I will be adding additional VMs to handle Exchange, Sharepoint and Lync, but only to this main server (the secondary server won't be able to handle more than three or four VMs, so why burden it? The AD, SQL & FS VMs are the most critical for the business). If anyone is now saying, “wait, what about a SAN or a NAS for the file servers?”, well too bad. What exists on the main machine is what I have to deal with. I followed these instructions, but I seem to be unable to get things to work. In order to make the file server truly redundant, I cannot trust any one machine to hold the only data store on the network. Therefore, I have created a set of iSCSI drives on the VM-host of the main machine, and attached one to each file server VM. The end result is that I want my FS01 to sit on the heavy lifter, along with its iSCSI “drive”, and FS02 will sit on the secondary machine with its own iSCSI “drive” there as well. That is, neither iSCSI drive will end up sitting on the same machine as the other. As such, the clustered FS will utterly duplicate the contents of the iSCSI drives between each other, so that if one physical machine (or the FS VM) goes toes-up, the other has got a full copy of the data on its own iSCSI drive. My problem occurs when I try to apply the file server role within the failover cluster manager. Actually, it is even before that -- it occurs when adding the disks. Since I have added each disk preferentially to a specific VM (by limiting the initiator by DNS hostname, and by adding two-way CHAP authentication), this forces each VM to be in control of its own iSCSI disk. However, when I try to add the disks to the Disks section of Storage within Failover Cluster Manager, the entire process fails for a random disk of the pair. That is, one will get online, but the other will remain offline because it does not have the correct “owner node”. I mean, really -- WTF? Of course it doesn’t have the right owner node, both drives are showing the same node name!! I cannot seem to have one drive show up with one node name as owner, and the other drive show up with the other node name as owner. And because both drives are not “online”, I cannot create a pool to apply to a cluster role. Talk about getting stuck between a rock and a hard place! I’ve got more to add, but my work is closing for the day and I have to wrap things up. I will try to add more tomorrow morning when I get in. My main objective is to have a file server VM on each machine, the storage on each machine, but a transparent failover in case one physical machine fails. Essentially, a failover FS that doesn’t care which machine fails -- the storage contents are replicated equally on each machine. Am I even heading in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Rle Encoding...What's the wrong?

    - by FILIaS
    I'm trying to make a Rle Encoder Programme.I read the way it works on notes on net. And i tried to fix my code! Regardless I think that the structure and logic of code are right,the code doesnt work! It appears some strange 'Z' as it runs. I really cant find what;s wrong! Could u please give me a piece of advice? Thanx in advance... #include <stdio.h> int main() { int count; unsigned char currChar,prevChar=EOF; while(currChar=getchar() != EOF) { if ( ( (currChar='A')&&(currChar='Z') ) || ( (currChar='a')&&(currChar='z') ) ) { printf("%c",currChar); if(prevChar==currChar) { count=0; currChar=getchar(); while(currChar!='EOF') { if (currChar==prevChar) count++; else { if(count<=9) printf("%d%c",count,prevChar); else { printf("%d%c",reverse(count),prevChar); } prevChar=currChar; break; } } } else prevChar=currChar; if(currChar=='EOF') { printf("%d",count); break; } } else { printf("Error Message:Only characters are accepted! Please try again! False input!"); break; } } return 0; } int reverse(int x) { int piliko,ypoloipo,r=0; x=(x<0)?-x:x; while (x>0) { ypoloipo=x%10; piliko=x/10; r=10*r+ypoloipo; x=piliko; } printf("%d",r); return 0; }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 706 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714 715 716 717  | Next Page >