Search Results

Search found 21817 results on 873 pages for 'last child'.

Page 711/873 | < Previous Page | 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714 715 716 717 718  | Next Page >

  • Offline Mapping API

    - by Aaron M
    Are there any services available that allow me to manipulate maps in an offline setting? I am working on a project that requires me to take a map and based on features on the map, generate a game world. I have looked at a few of the API's for different providers: Google, ms, etc. The API's I looked seem to be strictly showing a user a map. I am looking for something that allows me to create a derivative of a map (the Gameworld), that will never be seen by the public, and is only used by the game engine. However one caveat is that I would like to be able to link the derivative created for use by the game engine, with something I can show the user. As an example. Think of a cross country racing sim. Users cannot control the vehicles directly in this game, they can only control the cars setup, driver, etc. I create a gameworld from a map. The gameworld data (driver position, etc) is overlayed onto a real map. A race might last several days. The only interaction users have with the real map is viewing their position on the map, and where they are in relation to the others. I don't want to violate the terms of the API here. I read Googles API TOS, and it seems to me that creating the gameworld would violdate their TOS. The features I really need are the following The ability to locate a specific place on the map by lat/long The ability/rights to grab those maps and save them as an image file temporarily for processing The ability/rights to store a gameworld that is based on the real map The ability to show a user a map with an overlay (this is optional. I can use googles API, or any other one that supports lat/long.)

    Read the article

  • Using Reflection.Emit to emit a "using (x) { ... }" block?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I'm trying to use Reflection.Emit in C# to emit a using (x) { ... } block. At the point I am in code, I need to take the current top of the stack, which is an object that implements IDisposable, store this away in a local variable, implement a using block on that variable, and then inside it add some more code (I can deal with that last part.) Here's a sample C# piece of code I tried to compile and look at in Reflector: public void Test() { TestDisposable disposable = new TestDisposable(); using (disposable) { throw new Exception("Test"); } } This looks like this in Reflector: .method public hidebysig instance void Test() cil managed { .maxstack 2 .locals init ( [0] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable disposable, [1] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable CS$3$0000, [2] bool CS$4$0001) L_0000: nop L_0001: newobj instance void LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable::.ctor() L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: nop L_000a: ldstr "Test" L_000f: newobj instance void [mscorlib]System.Exception::.ctor(string) L_0014: throw L_0015: ldloc.1 L_0016: ldnull L_0017: ceq L_0019: stloc.2 L_001a: ldloc.2 L_001b: brtrue.s L_0024 L_001d: ldloc.1 L_001e: callvirt instance void [mscorlib]System.IDisposable::Dispose() L_0023: nop L_0024: endfinally .try L_0009 to L_0015 finally handler L_0015 to L_0025 } I have no idea how to deal with that ".try ..." part at the end there when using Reflection.Emit. Can someone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Left/Right/Inner joins using C# and LINQ

    - by Keith Barrows
    I am trying to figure out how to do a series of queries to get the updates, deletes and inserts segregated into their own calls. I have 2 tables, one in each of 2 databases. One is a Read Only feeds database and the other is the T-SQL R/W Production source. There are a few key columns in common between the two. What I am doing to setup is this: List<model.AutoWithImage> feedProductList = _dbFeed.AutoWithImage.Where(a => a.ClientID == ClientID).ToList(); List<model.vwCompanyDetails> companyDetailList = _dbRiv.vwCompanyDetails.Where(a => a.ClientID == ClientID).ToList(); foreach (model.vwCompanyDetails companyDetail in companyDetailList) { List<model.Product> productList = _dbRiv.Product.Include("Company").Where(a => a.Company.CompanyId == companyDetail.CompanyId).ToList(); } Now that I have a (source) list of products from the feed, and an existing (target) list of products from my prod DB I'd like to do 3 things: Find all SKUs in the feed that are not in the target Find all SKUs that are in both, that are active feed products and update the target Find all SKUs that are in both, that are inactive and soft delete from the target What are the best practices for doing this without running a double loop? Would prefer a LINQ 4 Objects solution as I already have my objects. EDIT: BTW, I will need to transfer info from feed rows to target rows in the first 2 instances, just set a flag in the last instance. TIA

    Read the article

  • C# Hiding, overriding and calling function from base class.

    - by Lukasz Lysik
    I'm learning C# and I encountered the following problem. I have two classes: base and derived: class MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyBase::MyMethod()"); } } class MyDerived: MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyDerived::MyMethod()"); } } For now, without virtual and override key words. When I compile this I get the warning (which is of course expected) that I try to hide MyMethod from MyBase class. What I want to do is to call the method from the base class having an instance of derived class. I do this like this: MyDerived myDerived = new MyDerived(); ((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod(); It works fine when I do not specify any virtual, etc. keywords in the methods. I tried to put combination of the keywords and I got the following results: | MyBase::MyMethod | MyDerived::MyMethod | Result printed on the console | | -----------------|---------------------|-------------------------------| | - | - | MyBase::MyMethod() | | - | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | override | MyDerived::MyMethod() | I hope the table is clear to you. I have two questions: Is it the correct way to call the function from the base class (((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod();)? I know about base keyword, but it can be called only from the inside of the derived class. Is it right? Why in the last case (with virtual and override modifiers) the method which was called came from the derived class? Would you please explain that?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Patterns

    - by Sam Striano
    Hello, I am fairly new to MVC, but after playing with it (MVC 3/Razor), I am hooked. I have a few questions: 1) What is the best, or most widely used pattern to develop MVC apps in? Repository, DDD, UOW? 2) I am using the Entity Framework 4, so could some please explain to me or point me to a good source that will explain the Repository Pattern w/EF4? Doesn't EF4 take place as the business layer and the data access layer? Does the Repository Pattern even provide a benefit? 3) Also, one last question, could someone explain the whole relationship between the Controller, the Model and the View? I get the basics, but maybe a little more in depth of the correct way to use it. View Models - Say I have a view that displays customer info, and one that edits it, should I have a view model and an edit model, or can the be passed around? 4) Examples?? Thanks for the help up front, $("Sam") ** EDIT ** Am I on the right track here: Public Class HomeController Inherits System.Web.Mvc.Controller Function Index(ByVal id As Integer) As ActionResult Return View(New HomeModel) End Function <HttpPost()> _ Function Index(ByVal Model As HomeModel) As ActionResult Return View(Model) End Function End Class Public Class HomeModel Private _Repository As IRepository(Of Customer) Public Property Customer As Customer Public Sub New() End Sub Public Sub New(ByVal ID As Integer) _Repository = New CustomerRepository Customer = _Repository.GetByID(ID) End Sub End Class Public Interface IRepository(Of T) Function GetByID(ByVal ID As Integer) As T Sub Add(ByVal Entity As T) Sub Delete(ByVal Entity As T) End Interface Public Class CustomerRepository Implements IRepository(Of Customer) Public Sub Add(ByVal Entity As Customer) Implements IRepository(Of Customer).Add End Sub Public Sub Delete(ByVal Entity As Customer) Implements IRepository(Of Customer).Delete End Sub Public Function GetByID(ByVal ID As Integer) As Customer Implements IRepository(Of Customer).GetByID Return New Customer With {.ID = ID, .FirstName = "Sam", .LastName = "Striano"} End Function End Class Public Class Customer Public Property ID As Integer Public Property FirstName As String Public Property LastName As String End Class

    Read the article

  • Custom pager in my Gridview 1st time works, next doesn't :

    - by gre3ns0ul
    Hi guys, i'm with one strange problem. I am extending a control from a Gridview, and adding a dropdown to paging to the page i want. In my custom gridview i added a ITemplate than contains 4 image buttons and one dropdownlist (4 images - 1st, prev, next, last) (1 ddl - to page) and add him to my custom gridview.. I added a selectindexchange event to dropdown, to fire when a index is changed The problem is: The first time i load the page with my control it is really ok.. but when i change index, in debug i see to run constructor of control, creating footer template, and guess.. the method of indexchange isn't fired and returns an exception saying: Unable to cast object of type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.ImageButton' to type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.Table'. [InvalidCastException: Unable to cast object of type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.ImageButton' to type 'System.Web.UI.WebControls.Table'.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.PrepareControlHierarchy() +122 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer, Boolean renderPanel) +50 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +33 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControlInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +27 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer, ControlAdapter adapter) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +134 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +19 System.Web.UI.Control.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +10 ... apreciate for the help, thanks

    Read the article

  • Stuggling with webkit-transition in javascript

    - by Mungbeans
    I've tried a few variations of using webkit-transition that I've found from googling but I've not been able to get any to work. I have some audio controls that I make appear on a click event, they appear suddenly and jerky so I want to fade them in. The target browser is iOS so I am trying webkit extensions. This is what I currently have: <div id = "controls"> <audio id = "audio" controls></audio> </div> #controls { position:absolute; top: 35px; left:73px; height: 20px; width: 180px; display:none; } #audio { opacity:0.0; } audio.src = clip; audio.addEventListener('pause', onPauseOrStop, false); audio.addEventListener('ended', onPauseOrStop, false); audio.play(); audioControls.style.display = 'block'; audio.style.setProperty("-webkit-transition", "opacity 0.4s"); audio.style.opacity = 0.7; The documentation for webkit-transition says it takes effect on a change in the property, so I was assuming changing style.opacity in the last line would kick it off. The controls appear with an opacity of 0.7 but I want it to fade in and that animation isn't happening. I also tried this: #audio { opacity:0.0; -webkit-transition-property: opacity; -webkit-transition-duration: 1s; -webkit-timing-function: ease-in; } Also tried audio.style.webkitTransition = "opacity 1.4s"; from this posting How to set CSS3 transition using javascript? I can't get anything to work, I'm testing on iOS, Safari desktop and Chrome. Same non result on all of them.

    Read the article

  • Given a main function and a cleanup function, how (canonically) do I return an exit status in Bash/Linux?

    - by Zac B
    Context: I have a bash script (a wrapper for other scripts, really), that does the following pseudocode: do a main function if the main function returns: $returncode = $? #most recent return code if the main function runs longer than a timeout: kill the main function $returncode = 140 #the semi-canonical "exceeded allowed wall clock time" status run a cleanup function if the cleanup function returns an error: #nonzero return code exit $? #exit the program with the status returned from the cleanup function else #cleanup was successful .... Question: What should happen after the last line? If the cleanup function was successful, but the main function was not, should my program return 0 (for the successful cleanup), or $returncode, which contains the (possibly nonzero and unsuccessful) return code of the main function? For a specific application, the answer would be easy: "it depends on what you need the script for." However, this is more of a general/canonical question (and if this is the wrong place for it, kill it with fire): in Bash (or Linux in general) programming, do you typically want to return the status that "means" something (i.e. $returncode) or do you ignore such subjectivities and simply return the code of the most recent function? This isn't Bash-specific: if I have a standalone executable of any kind, how, canonically should it behave in these cases? Obviously, this is somewhat debatable. Even if there is a system for these things, I'm sure that a lot of people ignore it. All the same, I'd like to know. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Change default java installation

    - by user1501700
    I have many Java versions installed on a Windows 7 machine. Some of them are 32 bits, some are 64 bits. Now as default it starts one of those last versions (1.7 64 bits). How do I tell my Windows 7 machine to use another version of Java? One of the reasons is that I'm developing a JNI project from Microsoft Visual Studio C++ - it uses also java 1.7 64 bits. Best regards, Andrej I have set: User variable: JAVA_HOME=C:\j2sdk1.4.2_04 PATH=%JAVA_HOME%\bin;%PATH% and system variable: JAVA_HOME=C:\j2sdk1.4.2_04 PATH=...a_lot_of_paths...;%JAVA_HOME%\bin;%PATH% I had no idea which is better to set - for user or system settings. Done both. System restart. And...it didn't helped :( When I run "java -version" from cmd i have java 1.7, but not java 1.4 like defined in PATH. after run C:where java I got two results: C:\Windows\System32\java.exe C:\j2sdk1.4.2_04\bin\java.exe Who let Java go to my windows directory ???!!! How to deal with that?

    Read the article

  • Ultra-Portable Laptop or Tablet PC for Development and Sketching

    - by Nelson LaQuet
    I am a software developer that primarily writes in PHP, [X]HTML, CSS, Javascript, C# and C++. I use Eclipse for web development, Visual Studio 2008 for C++ and C# work, TortoiseSVN, Subversion server for local repositories, SQL Server Express, Apache and MYSQL. I also use Office 2007 for word processing and spreadsheets and use Vista Ultimate 64 as my primary operating system. The only other things I do on my laptop are watch movies, surf the internet and listen to music. I currently have a Acer Aspire 5100 (1.4 GHz AMD Turion X2, 2 GB of RAM and a 15.4" screen). This thing does not cut it in performance or portability, and in addition, my DVD drive failed. And before anybody posts about vista: I have had XP Professional 32 on it for the last two years, and recently upgraded to Vista 64. It is actually faster (with areo disabled) then XP; so it is not the OS that is causing the laptop to be slow. I usually sketch a lot, for explaining things, developing user interfaces and software architecture. Because of my requirements, I was thinking about a Lenovo X61 Tablet PC. It outperforms my current laptop, is significantly more portable, and... is a tablet. My question is: do any other software developers use this (or other tablets) for programming? Does it help to be able to sketch on the computer itself? And is it capable of being a good development machine? Will it handle the above software listed? If not, what is the best ultra-portable laptop that is good for programming? Or are ultra-portable laptops even good for programming? I could manage with my 15.4" screen, but am spoiled by my two 19" at my home desktop and my job's workstation.

    Read the article

  • ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

    - by anomareh
    I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

    Read the article

  • In app purchase on iphone.: How to receive your available products *before* someone may be able to b

    - by Thorsten S.
    Currently I am loading my supported products from a plist and after that I send a SKProductsRequest to guarantee that my SKProducts are still valid. So I set up the request, start it and get the response in: (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response Now, so far all functions correctly. Problem: From calling the request until receiving the response it may last several seconds. Until that my app is already loaded and the user may be able to choose and buy a product. But because no products have been received, the available products are not in sync with the validated products - unlikely, but possible error. So my idea is to wait until the data is loaded and only continue when the list is validated. (Just a few seconds waiting...). I have a singleton instance managing all products. + (MyClass *) sharedInstance { if (!sharedInstance) sharedInstance = [MyClass new]; // Now wait until we have our data [condition lock]; while (noEntriesYet) // is yes at begin [condition wait]; [condition unlock]; return sharedInstance; } - productsRequest: didReceiveResponse: { [condition lock]; // I have my data noEntriesYet = false; [condition signal]; [condition unlock]; } Problem: The app freezes. Everything works fine if didReceiveResponse is completed before the sharedInstance is queried. There are different threads, the lock is working if wait is reached during didReceiveResponse, everything fine. But if not, didReceiveResponse is never called even if the request was sent. The lock is released, everything looks ok. I have tried to send the product request in a separate NSThread, with NSOperationQueue...without avail. Why ? What is happening ? How to solve the problem ?

    Read the article

  • svnsync looses revision properties although hook installed

    - by roesslerj
    Hello all! I have a pretty weird problem. We have setup an SVN-Mirror via cronjob (because it needs to go from inside to outside of a firewall, so no post-commit-hook possible) and svnsync. We installed a pre-revprop-hook just as told. Everything seems to work fine, except that it doesn't. E.g. when manually executing the script. # svnsync --non-interactive sync file://<path-to-mirror> --source-username <usr> --source-password <pwd> Committed revision 19817. Copied properties for revision 19817. No error, no complaints. But if checking for the revision properties it says: # svnlook info <path-to-mirror> 0 # svn info -r HEAD file://<path-to-mirror> 2>&1 Path: <root-of-mirror> URL: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository Root: file://<path-to-mirror> Repository UUID: <uid> Revision: 19817 Node Kind: directory Last Changed Rev: 19817 So somehow the author and timestamp information gets lost. But we need that information for our internal processes. Since no error or warning is produced I have absolutely no idea even where to start to look. Everything is local (except for the remote master), so there are no server-logs to look at. Any ideas how I could approach that problem, or even better -- how to solve it? Any ideas appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How Do I Escape Apostrophes in Field Valued in SQL Server?

    - by Mikecancook
    I asked a question a couple days ago about creating INSERTs by running a SELECT to move data to another server. That worked great until I ran into a table that has full on HTML and apostrophes in it. What's the best way to deal with this? Lucking there aren't too many rows so it is feasible as a last resort to 'copy and paste'. But, eventually I will need to do this and the table by that time will probably be way too big to copy and paste these HTML fields. This is what I have now: select 'Insert into userwidget ([Type],[UserName],[Title],[Description],[Data],[HtmlOutput],[DisplayOrder],[RealTime],[SubDisplayOrder]) VALUES (' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Type)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Username)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Title)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Description)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Data)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),HTMLOutput)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),DisplayOrder)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),RealTime)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),SubDisplayOrder)+'''','NULL') + ')' from userwidget Which is works fine except those pesky apostrophes in the HTMLOutput field. Can I escape them by having the query double up on the apostrophes or is there a way of encoding the field result so it won't matter?

    Read the article

  • Constant CMS Session Expiry On 1&1 Cloud Server?

    - by leen3o
    I have a couple of 1&1's 'Dynamic Cloud Servers' and running Win2008R2 and they are setup as web servers, I have a number of Umbraco CMS installs on them and they have been running fine for over a year. On Saturday on BOTH servers, a very strange thing happened - As soon as I login to the CMS/Umbraco admin I am logged out with about 5 seconds? It's as if my session expires the moment I login? I have checked everything I can as I'm not really a server admin, and everything seems to be exactly as it was last week? Like I say this has happened EXACTLY the same time (Saturday) on TWO different servers? I'm just looking for ideas of what I should be looking for? Also the front end of the sites seem fine... Its only the backend when I login. I have gone to 1&1 about this, and as usual they have washed their hands saying its nothing to do with them - When I am certain it is. How can this happen on two different servers, and affect the same sites in exactly the same way? Any help, tips, things to try would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Flash Without a SWF File?

    - by PeterAllenWebb
    Is there any way to embed Flash completely in HTML, without reference to an external SWF file? I ask because I would like to send an HTML file as an email attachment that the recipient will open in a browser and fill out as a form. The last step is that they will copy the result to their clipboard, paste it into a new message, and email it back. I cannot reliably copy to the clipboard with JavaScript because of the security issues, but there are simple Flash apps to add that capability. I know I could just display the response text (which will be Base64 encoded) to the recipient and have them copy/paste, but it would be nice to provide this small convenience to them. Also, so you are aware, the text is often too large to include in an email using mailto. Yes. This needs to be done via email. The users have slow, occasional satellite email access and no other data connection to the interwebs. To make things worse, I cannot make them install anything. It is a difficult situation.

    Read the article

  • Catching / blocking SIGINT during system call

    - by danben
    I've written a web crawler that I'd like to be able to stop via the keyboard. I don't want the program to die when I interrupt it; it needs to flush its data to disk first. I also don't want to catch KeyboardInterruptedException, because the persistent data could be in an inconsistent state. My current solution is to define a signal handler that catches SIGINT and sets a flag; each iteration of the main loop checks this flag before processing the next url. However, I've found that if the system happens to be executing socket.recv() when I send the interrupt, I get this: ^C Interrupted; stopping... // indicates my interrupt handler ran Traceback (most recent call last): File "crawler_test.py", line 154, in <module> main() ... File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/socket.py", line 397, in readline data = recv(1) socket.error: [Errno 4] Interrupted system call and the process exits completely. Why does this happen? Is there a way I can prevent the interrupt from affecting the system call?

    Read the article

  • XUL: fit all elements vertically in prefpane

    - by Michael
    here goes the XUL part of one of the preference panes. <prefpane id="alt-about" label="About" image="chrome://alt/skin/about.png"> <hbox> <vbox> <image id="armliveticker-about-logo" /> </vbox> <vbox> <description id="addonName">Bla bla bla, bla bla</description> <description id="version"/> <description>Author: bla bla bla</description> <description>ICQ: bla</description> <description>E-mail: [email protected]</description> <description>Website: www.bla-bla.com</description> <separator class="groove" flex="1"/> <description>News feed powered by Bla agency</description> <description>Exchange Rates are powered by Blaaaa Blaa of Blabla</description> </vbox> </hbox> </prefpane> and for some reason the window is not being vertically resized to fit last description element I tried many attributes, many combinations of vbox/hbox.. same. How to solve it guys?

    Read the article

  • MVC 3, View Model for user registration process. Password validation not working properly

    - by sec_goat
    I am trying to create a user registration page using MVC 3, so that I can better understand the process of how it works, what's going on behind the scenes etc. I am running into some issues when trying to use [Compare] to check to see that the user entered the same password twice. I tried adding the ComparePassword field to my user model first, and found that would not work the way I wanted as I did not have the field in the database, so the obvious answer was to create a View Model using the same information including the ComparePassword field. So I now have created a User model and a RegistrationViewModel, however it appears that the [Compare] on the password is not returning anything, for instance no matter what I put in the two boxes, when I click create it gives no error, which seems to me to mean it was successfully validated. I am not sure what I am doing or not doing to make this work properly. I have tried updating the jQuery.Validate to the newest version as there were some bugs reported in older version, this has not helped my efforts. Below is a wall of code, that is what I am working with. } public class RegistrationViewModel { [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "User Name")] [RegularExpression(@"(\S)+", ErrorMessage = " White Space is not allowed in User Names")] [ScaffoldColumn(false)] public String Username { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "First Name")] public String firstName { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "Last Name")] public String lastName { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Email")] public String email { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Password")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] public String password { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [Display(Name = "Re-enter Password")] [Compare("Password", ErrorMessage = "Passwords do not match.")] public String comparePassword { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • Does this language feature already exists?

    - by Pindatjuh
    I'm currently developing a new language for programming in a continuous environment (compare it to electrical engineering), and I've got some ideas on a certain language construction. Let me explain the feature by explanation and then by definition; x = a | b; Where x is a variable and a and b are other variables (or static values). if(x == a) { // all references to "x" are essentially references to "a". } if(x == b) { // same but with "b" } if(x != a) { // ... } if(x == a | b) { // guaranteed that "x" is '"a" | "b"'; interacting with "x" // will interact with both "a" and "b". } // etc. In the above, all code-blocks are executed, but the "scope" changes in each block how x is interpreted. In the first block, x is guaranteed to be a: thus interacting with x inside that block will interact on a. The second and the third code-block are only equal in this situation (because not b only remains a). The last block guarantees that x is at least a or b. Further more; | is not the "bitwise or operator", but I've called it the "and/or"-operator. It's definition is: "|" = "and" | "or" (On my blog, http://cplang.wordpress.com/2009/12/19/binop-and-or/, is more (mathematical) background information on this operator. It's loosely based on sets.) I do not know if this construction already exists, so that's my question: does this language feature already exists?

    Read the article

  • operators computing direction

    - by amiad
    Hi all! I enqunterd something that I can't understand. I have this code: cout << "f1 * f1 + f2 * f1 - f1 / f2 is: "<< f1 * f1 + f2 * f1 - f1 / f2 << endl; All the "f"s are objects, and all the operators are overloaded. The weird this is that the first computarion is of the "/" operator, then the second "" and then the first "", after that - the operator "+" and at last - operator "-". So basicly - the "/" and "*" worked from right to left, and the "+" and "-" operators worked from left to right. I made another test... I checked this code: cout << "f1 * f1 / f2 is: " << f1 * f1 / f2 << endl; Now, the first operator was "*" and only then oerator "/". So now, it worked from left to right. Can someone help me underatand why is there diffrence in the directions? 10X!

    Read the article

  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

    Read the article

  • Segmentation in Linux : Segmentation & Paging are redundant?

    - by claws
    Hello, I'm reading "Understanding Linux Kernel". This is the snippet that explains how Linux uses Segmentation which I didn't understand. Segmentation has been included in 80 x 86 microprocessors to encourage programmers to split their applications into logically related entities, such as subroutines or global and local data areas. However, Linux uses segmentation in a very limited way. In fact, segmentation and paging are somewhat redundant, because both can be used to separate the physical address spaces of processes: segmentation can assign a different linear address space to each process, while paging can map the same linear address space into different physical address spaces. Linux prefers paging to segmentation for the following reasons: Memory management is simpler when all processes use the same segment register values that is, when they share the same set of linear addresses. One of the design objectives of Linux is portability to a wide range of architectures; RISC architectures in particular have limited support for segmentation. All Linux processes running in User Mode use the same pair of segments to address instructions and data. These segments are called user code segment and user data segment , respectively. Similarly, all Linux processes running in Kernel Mode use the same pair of segments to address instructions and data: they are called kernel code segment and kernel data segment , respectively. Table 2-3 shows the values of the Segment Descriptor fields for these four crucial segments. I'm unable to understand 1st and last paragraph.

    Read the article

  • Fastest way to modify a decimal-keyed table in MySQL?

    - by javanix
    I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

    Read the article

  • Append json data to html class name

    - by user2898514
    I have a problem with my json code. I want to append each json value comes from a key to be appended to an html class name which matches the key of json data. here's my Live demo if you see the result in the life demo. it's only appending the last record. is it possible to make it show all records in order? json var json = '[{"castle":"big","commercial":"large","common":"sergio","cultural":"2009"},' + '{"castle":"big2","commercial":"large2","common":"sergio2","cultural":"20092"}]'; html <div class="castle"></div> <div class="commercial"></div> <div class="common"></div> <div class="cultural"></div> javascript var data = $.parseJSON(json); $.each(data, function(l,v) { $.each(v, function(k,o) { $('.'+k).attr('id', k+o); console.log($('#'+k+o).attr('id')); $('#'+k+o).text(o); }); }); for more illustration... I want the result in the live demo to look like this big large sergio 2009, big2 large2 sergio2 20092

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 707 708 709 710 711 712 713 714 715 716 717 718  | Next Page >