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• What harm can javascript do?

  - by The King

  I just happen to read the joel's blog here... So for example if you have a web page that says “What is your name?” with an edit box and then submitting that page takes you to another page that says, Hello, Elmer! (assuming the user’s name is Elmer), well, that’s a security vulnerability, because the user could type in all kinds of weird HTML and JavaScript instead of “Elmer” and their weird JavaScript could do narsty things, and now those narsty things appear to come from you, so for example they can read cookies that you put there and forward them on to Dr. Evil’s evil site. Since javascript runs on client end. All it can access or do is only on the client end. It can read informations stored in hidden fields and change them. It can read, write or manipulate cookies... But I feel, these informations are anyway available to him. (if he is smart enough to pass javascript in a textbox. So we are not empowering him with new information or providing him undue access to our server... Just curious to know whether I miss something. Can you list the things that a malicious user can do with this security hole. Edit : Thanks to all for enlightening . As kizzx2 pointed out in one of the comments... I was overlooking the fact that a JavaScript written by User A may get executed in the browser of User B under numerous circumstances, in which case it becomes a great risk.

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• Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

  - by David Jeske

  .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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• Finding missing symbols in libstd++ on Debian/squeeze

  - by Florian Le Goff

  I'm trying to use a pre-compiled library provided as a .so file. This file is dynamically linked against a few librairies : $ ldd /usr/local/test/lib/libtest.so linux-gate.so.1 = (0xb770d000) libstdc++-libc6.1-1.so.2 = not found libm.so.6 = /lib/i686/cmov/libm.so.6 (0xb75e1000) libc.so.6 = /lib/i686/cmov/libc.so.6 (0xb7499000) /lib/ld-linux.so.2 (0xb770e000) libgcc_s.so.1 = /lib/libgcc_s.so.1 (0xb747c000) Unfortunately, in Debian/squeeze, there is no libstdc++-libc6.1-1.so.* file. Only a libstdc++.so.* file provided by the libstdc++6 package. I tried to link (using ln -s) libstdc++-libc6.1-1.so.2 to the libstdc++.so.6 file. It does not work, a batch of symbols seems to be lacking when I'm trying to ld my .o files with this lib. /usr/local/test/lib/libtest.so: undefined reference to `__builtin_vec_delete' /usr/local/test/lib/libtest.so: undefined reference to `istrstream::istrstream(int, char const *, int)' /usr/local/test/lib/libtest.so: undefined reference to `__rtti_user' /usr/local/test/lib/libtest.so: undefined reference to `__builtin_new' /usr/local/test/lib/libtest.so: undefined reference to `istream::ignore(int, int)' What would you do ? How may I find in which lib those symbols are exported ?

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• Solution for cleaning an image cache directory on the SD card

  - by synic

  I've got an app that is heavily based on remote images. They are usually displayed alongside some data in a ListView. A lot of these images are new, and a lot of the old ones will never be seen again. I'm currently storing all of these images on the SD card in a custom cache directory (ala evancharlton's magnatune app). I noticed that after about 10 days, the directory totals ~30MB. This is quite a bit more than I expected, and it leads me to believe that I need to come up with a good solution for cleaning out old files... and I just can't think of a great one. Maybe you can help. These are the ideas that I've had: Delete old files. When the app starts, start a background thread, and delete all files older than X days. This seems to pose a problem, though, in that, if the user actively uses the app, this could make the device sluggish if there are hundreds of files to delete. After creating the files on the SD card, call new File("/path/to/file").deleteOnExit(); This will cause all files to be deleted when the VM exits (I don't even know if this method works on Android). This is acceptable, because, even though the files need to be cached for the session, they don't need to be cached for the next session. It seems like this will also slow the device down if there are a lot of files to be deleted when the VM exits. Delete old files, up to a max number of files. Same as #1, but only delete N number of files at a time. I don't really like this idea, and if the user was very active, it may never be able to catch up and keep the cache directory clean. That's about all I've got. Any suggestions would be appreciated.

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• Which Table Should be Master and Child in Database Design

  - by Jason

  I am quickly learning the ins and outs of database design (something that, as of a week ago, was new to me), but I am running across some questions that don't seem immediately obvious, so I was hoping to get some clarification. The question I have right is about foreign keys. As part of my design, I have a Company table. Originally, I had included address information directly within the table, but, as I was hoping to achieve 3NF, I broke out the address information into its own table, Address. In order to maintain data integrity, I created a row in Company called "addressId" as an INT and the Address table has a corresponding addressId as its primary key. What I'm a little bit confused about (or what I want to make sure I'm doing correctly) is determining which table should be the master (referenced) table and which should be the child (referencing) table. When I originally set this up, I made the Address table the master and the Company the child. However, I now believe this is wrong due to the fact that there should be only one address per Company and, if a Company row is deleted, I would want the corresponding Address to be removed as well (CASCADE deletion). I may be approaching this completely wrong, so I would appreciate any good rules of thumb on how to best think about the relationship between tables when using foreign keys. Thanks!

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• iPhone app rejection for using ICU (Unicode extensions)

  - by nickbit

  I received the following mail form Apple, considering my application: *Thank you for submitting your update to ??µ??es?a to the App Store. During our review of your application we found it is using private APIs, which is in violation of the iPhone Developer Program License Agreement section 3.3.1; "3.3.1 Applications may only use Documented APIs in the manner prescribed by Apple and must not use or call any private APIs." While your application has not been rejected, it would be appropriate to resolve this issue in your next update. The following non-public APIs are included in your application: u_isspace ubrk_close ubrk_current ubrk_first ubrk_next ubrk_open If you have defined methods in your source code with the same names as the above mentioned APIs, we suggest altering your method names so that they no longer collide with Apple's private APIs to avoid your application being flagged with future submissions. Please resolve this issue in your next update to ??µ??es?a. Sincerely, iPhone App Review Team* The functions mentioned in this mail are used in the ICU library (International Components for Unicode). Although my app is not rejected at this point, I don't feel very secure for the future of my app, because it relies heavily on the Unicode protocol and on this components in particular. Another thing is that I do not call these functions directly, but they are called by a custom 'sqlite' build (with FTS3 extensions enabled). Am I missing something here? Any suggestions?

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• How to terminate all [grand]child processes using C# on WXP (and newer MSWindows)

  - by NVRAM

  Question: How can I determine all processes in the child's Process Tree to kill them? I have an application, written in C# that will: Get a set of data from the server, Spawn a 3rd party utility to process the data, then Return the results to the server. This is working fine. But since a run consumes a lot of CPU and may take as long as an hour, I want to add the ability to have my app terminate its child processes. Some issues that make the simple solutions I've found elsewhere are: My app's child process "A" (InstallAnywhere EXE I think) spawns the real processing app "B" (a java.exe), which in turns spawns more children "C1".."Cn" (most of which are also written in Java). There will likely be multiple copies of my application (and hence, multiple sets of its children) running on the same machine. The child process is not in my control so there might be some "D" processes in the future. My application must run on 32-bit and 64-bit versions of MSWindows. On the plus side there is no issue of data loss, a "clean" shutdown doesn't matter as long as the processes end fairly quickly.

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• MVVM: Thin ViewModels and Rich Models

  - by Dan Bryant

  I'm continuing to struggle with the MVVM pattern and, in attempting to create a practical design for a small/medium project, have run into a number of challenges. One of these challenges is figuring out how to get the benefits of decoupling with this pattern without creating a lot of repetitive, hard-to-maintain code. My current strategy has been to create 'rich' Model classes. They are fully aware that they will be consumed by an MVVM pattern and implement INotifyPropertyChanged, allow their collections to be observed and remain cognizant that they may always be under observation. My ViewModel classes tend to be thin, only exposing properties when data actually needs to be transformed, with the bulk of their code being RelayCommand handlers. Views happily bind to either ViewModels or Models directly, depending on whether any data transformation is required. I use AOP (via Postsharp) to ease the pain of INotifyPropertyChanged, making it easy to make all of my Model classes 'rich' in this way. Are there significant disadvantages to using this approach? Can I assume that the ViewModel and View are so tightly coupled that if I need new data transformation for the View, I can simply add it to the ViewModel as needed?

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• How do I change the CellErrorStyle for an Xceed Datagrid?

  - by Bob

  So in the Xceed documentation there is a code example that does not work for me. It may be because my grid is bound to a DataGridCollectionView. The objects in the collection used by the datagridcollection are what implement IDataErrorInfo. The errors are showing up just fine. The problem is that they are using the default orange background for errors...I need a red border. Below is the XAML instantiation of my grid. I set the DataCell background property to red just so I could be sure I had access to the grid's properties... I do. I just can't find the way to identify the cell's w/ errors so I can style them. Thanks! <XceedDG:DataGridControl Grid.Row="1" Grid.ColumnSpan="5" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = ABGDataGridCollectionView, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Background="{x:Static Views:DataGridControlBackgroundBrushes.ElementalBlue}" IsDeleteCommandEnabled="True" FontSize="16" AutoCreateColumns="False" x:Name="EncounterDataGrid" AllowDrop="True"> <XceedDG:DataGridControl.View> <Views:TableView ColumnStretchMode="All" ShowRowSelectorPane="True" ColumnStretchMinWidth="100"> <Views:TableView.FixedHeaders> <DataTemplate> <XceedDG:InsertionRow Height="40"/> </DataTemplate> </Views:TableView.FixedHeaders> </Views:TableView> </XceedDG:DataGridControl.View> <!--Group Header formatting--> <XceedDG:DataGridControl.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type XceedDG:GroupByControl}"> <Setter Property="Visibility" Value="Collapsed"/> </Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type XceedDG:DataCell}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red"/> </Style> </XceedDG:DataGridControl.Resources> ...

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• Getting the highest owner of a ToolStripDropDownItem

  - by andyperfect

  I'm currently working on a project in which at one point, the user may right click a button which brings up a contextMenuStrip. I am already able to find the owner accurately from that strip, and manipulate the button clicked as follows: Dim myItem As ToolStripMenuItem = CType(sender, ToolStripMenuItem) Dim cms As ContextMenuStrip = CType(myItem.Owner, ContextMenuStrip) Dim buttonPressed As DataButton = DirectCast(cms.SourceControl, DataButton) But now for the tricky part. Within this contextmenuStrip, I have a DropDown menu with multiple items in there. I would assume you would be able to work your way up the ladder doing casts like above in the manner of ToolStripDrowpDownItem > ToolStripDropDownMenu > ToolStripMenuItem > ContextMenuStrip Unfortunately, when I try to get the sourcecontrol from this menuStrip, it return Nothing. Any ideas on how I can get the button that was pressed from this toolStripMenuItem? My current code is as follows (in which the sourceControl is Nothing) Dim myItem As ToolStripDropDownItem = CType(sender, ToolStripDropDownItem) Dim dropDown As ToolStripDropDownMenu = CType(myItem.Owner, ToolStripDropDownMenu) Dim menuItem As ToolStripMenuItem = CType(dropDown.OwnerItem, ToolStripMenuItem) Dim cms As ContextMenuStrip = CType(menuItem.Owner, ContextMenuStrip) Dim buttonPressed As DataButton = DirectCast(cms.SourceControl, DataButton) Any ideas on how to go about doing what I did in that first method, but just working my way up from further down the ladder?

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• Sharing session variables from http and https versio

  - by tangurena

  I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

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• Is there an event that raises after a View/PartialView executes in ASP.NET MVC 2 RC2?

  - by sabanito

  I have the following problem: We have an ASP.NET MVC 2 RC 2 application that programmatically impersonates an AD Account that the user specifies at logon. This account is used to access the DB. At first we had the impersonating code in the begin_request and we were undoing the impersonation at the end_request, but when we tried to use IIS 7.5 in integrated mode, we learned that it's not possible to impersonate in the Global.asax so we tried different things. We have succesfully moved our code from the BeginRequest to the ActionExecuting event and the EndRequest to the ResultExecuted, and now, about 80% of our code works. We've just discovered that since we're passing the Entity Framework objects as models for our views, there's this remaining 20% that won't work because some Navigation Properties are not loaded when the view begins it's execution, so we're getting connection exceptions from Sql Server. Is there any event or method that executes AFTER the view, so we can undo the impersonation in it? We thought ResultExecuted will do just that, but it doesn't. We've been told that passing the plain Entities into the view as models is not a good idea, but we have A LOT of views that may have this problem and there's not automated way to know it. If some of you could explain why it's not a good idea, maybe we can convince the team to fix it!

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• Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

  - by Stefan Hendriks

  Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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• A way for a file to have its own MD5 inside? Or a string that is it's own MD5?

  - by Eli

  Hi all, In considering several possible solutions to a recent task, I found myself considering how to get a php file that includes it's own MD5 hash. I ended up doing something else, but the question stayed with me. Something along the lines of: <?php echo("Hello, my MD5 is [MD5 OF THIS FILE HERE]"); ?> Whatever placeholder you have in the file, the second you take its MD5 and insert it, you've changed it, which changes it's MD5, etc. Edit: Perhaps I should rephrase my question: Does anyone know if it has been proven impossible, or if there has been any research on an algorithm that would result in a file containing it's own MD5 (or other hash)? I suppose if the MD5 was the only content in the file, then the problem can be restated as how to find a string that is it's own MD5. It may well be impossible for us to create a process that will result in such a thing, but I can't think of any reason the solution itself can't exist. The question is basically whether it really is impossible, simply improbable (on the order of monkeys randomly typing Shakespeare), or actually solvable by somebody smarter than myself.

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• Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

  - by Oddthinking

  Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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• WPF validation red border doesn't show If UserControl collapsed first

  - by Creepy Gnome

  There seems to be a bug with WPF in 3.5, and I was hoping someone may have found a workaround. Basically if you have a custom UserControl that contains a TextBox and it is in a Window but initialized to be Collapsed by default in the xaml or code behind if it fails validation when you make the control visible it will not show the red border until it fails while visible. However, this works correctly when visibility is set to Hidden, just no when Collapsed. I am already overriding the ErrorTemplate with a style to workaround the Adornment issue with the red border staying visibile when you collapse the control. Below is my full style for the TextBox. If there is any additional changes or additions to make it work correctly with collapsed controls that would be great. <Style TargetType="TextBox"> <Setter Property="Margin" Value="3" /> <Setter Property="Validation.ErrorTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <ControlTemplate.Resources> <BooleanToVisibilityConverter x:Key="converter" /> </ControlTemplate.Resources> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <Border BorderThickness="2" BorderBrush="Red" Visibility="{ Binding ElementName=placeholder, Mode=OneWay, Path=AdornedElement.IsVisible, Converter={StaticResource converter}}" > <AdornedElementPlaceholder x:Name="placeholder" /> </Border> </DockPanel> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true" > <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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• Why do I get "Error 6060" when I try to use DBD::Advantage with a 64-bit perl on Linux?

  - by WarheadsSE

  I realize that I am attempting to go beyond the "supported" behavior of the manf's released drivers for Perl, after all they have only released it in package with x86 .so's. However, since I cannot use their package with x64 Perl on a RHEL 5.4 x86_64 box, and maintaining a seperate install of x86 Perl just for this one package, I have made an attempt to get this puppy working thanks to released 64-bit .so's that accompany other driver packages for Advantage. What I have done to this point: download beta 10 DBI drivers, in 32 download beta 10 PHP extension (it contains 32 and x86_64) copy the required DLLs into the ads-lib location (eg /usr/local/ads/lib64) compile the Perl DBI driver with the path to the lib64's .so's Good compilation, good install, good use. The problem is that I always get : failed: [iAnywhere Solutions][Advantage SQL][ASA] Error 6060: Advantage Database Server not available on specified server. axServerConnect (SQL-HY000)(DBD: db_login/SQLConnect err=-1) Does anyone have any ideas? EDIT: fixed package name in post title EDIT: Updated title. It appears that it's not just the x64 perl, but the RHEL 5.4 underneath that may be interfering. As commented below, I managed to shoe-horn a x86 perl onto the system, and compile the DBD::Advantage 9.99, and later replacing that with 9.10, and none of these x86 would connect either. Neither library (9.99 or 9.10) in either bit-edness will connect from this x86_64 server to the windows server's UNC path. I have successfully mounted this share without problems, but still I cannot seem to connect to the 9.1. I have tried: \hostname\PATH \FQDN\PATH \IP\PATH and all of these variations with the port (default) 6262 included. My windows machine connects fine, with both 9.1 and 9.99 from strawberry perl.

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• Writing fortran robust and "modern" code

  - by Blklight

  In some scientific environments, you often cannot go without FORTRAN as most of the developers only know that idiom, and there is lot of legacy code and related experience. And frankly, there are not many other cross-platform options for high performance programming ( C++ would do the task, but the syntax, zero-starting arrays, and pointers are too much for most engineers ;-) ). I'm a C++ guy but I'm stuck with some F90 projects. So, let's assume a new project must use FORTRAN (F90), but I want to build the most modern software architecture out of it. while being compatible with most "recent" compilers (intel ifort, but also including sun/HP/IBM own compilers) So I'm thinking of imposing: global variable forbidden, no gotos, no jump labels, "implicit none", etc. "object-oriented programming" (modules with datatypes + related subroutines) modular/reusable functions, well documented, reusable libraries assertions/preconditions/invariants (implemented using preprocessor statements) unit tests for all (most) subroutines and "objects" an intense "debug mode" (#ifdef DEBUG) with more checks and all possible Intel compiler checks possible (array bounds, subroutine interfaces, etc.) uniform and enforced legible coding style, using code processing tools C stubs/wrappers for libpthread, libDL (and eventually GPU kernels, etc.) C/C++ implementation of utility functions (strings, file operations, sockets, memory alloc/dealloc reference counting for debug mode, etc.) ( This may all seem "evident" modern programming assumptions, but in a legacy fortran world, most of these are big changes in the typical programmer workflow ) The goal with all that is to have trustworthy, maintainable and modular code. Whereas, in typical fortran, modularity is often not a primary goal, and code is trustworthy only if the original developer was very clever, and the code was not changed since then ! (i'm a bit joking here, but not much) I searched around for references about object-oriented fortran, programming-by-contract (assertions/preconditions/etc.), and found only ugly and outdated documents, syntaxes and papers done by people with no large-scale project involvement, and dead projects. Any good URL, advice, reference paper/books on the subject?

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• Avoiding null point exception in el in JSF

  - by Buddhika Ariyaratne

  I am developing a JSF application with JPA(EclipseLink 2.0) and Primefaces. I want to know is there any way to avoid null point exception when el calls a property of a null object. I have described the situation. I have Bill class. There may be no or more BillItem objects with a Bill objects. Each BillItem object have Objects like Make, Country, Manufacturer, etc objects. I am displaying several properties of a bill within a single JSF file like this. "#{billControlled.bill.billItem.modal.name}" But if a bill is not selected, or when there are no bill items for a selected bill, the properties accessing in the el are null. I can avoid this by creating new objects for every bill, for example, new make for a new bill item, etc or by creating new properties in the controller itself for all the properties. But that is a very long way and feel like rudimentory. Is there any good practice to avoid this null point exception in el in JSF?

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• reading excel using scriptom for groovy, producing xml

  - by john

  Dear friends, I got a program from http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml but I got some very strange results: 1) I can still print xml but two records are not readable. 2) I got exception suggesting some thing missing could some experts enlighten me about what might go wrong? I copied the program and result below. thanks! import org.codehaus.groovy.scriptom.ActiveXObject def addresses = new File('addresses1.xls').canonicalPath def xls = new ActiveXObject('Excel.Application') def workbooks = xls.Workbooks def workbook = workbooks.Open(addresses) // select the active sheet def sheet = workbook.ActiveSheet sheet.Visible = true // get the XML builder ready def builder = new groovy.xml.MarkupBuilder() builder.people { for (row in 2..1000) { def ID = sheet.Range("A${row}").Value.value if (!ID) break // use the builder to write out each person person (id: ID) { name { firstName sheet.Range("B${row}").Value.value lastName sheet.Range("C${row}").Value.value } address { street sheet.Range("D${row}").Value.value city sheet.Range("E${row}").Value.value state sheet.Range("F${row}").Value.value zip sheet.Range("G${row}").Value.value } } } } // close the workbook without asking for saving the file workbook.Close(false, null, false) // quits excel xls.Quit() xls.release() however, i got the following results: <people> <person id='1234.0'> <name> <firstName>[C@128a25</firstName> <lastName>[C@5e45</lastName> </name> <address> <street>[C@179ef7c</street> <city>[C@12f95de</city> <state>[C@138b554</state> <zip>12345.0</zip> </address> </person> </person> Exception thrown May 12, 2010 4:07:15 AM org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.StackTraceUtils sanitize WARNING: Sanitizing stacktrace: java.lang.NullPointerException at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.acceptGetProperty(GetEffectivePojoFieldSite.java:43) at org.codehaus.groovy.runtime.callsite.AbstractCallSite.callGetProperty(AbstractCallSite.java:237) at sriptom4_excel$_run_closure1.doCall(sriptom4_excel.groovy:18) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) [1]: http://kousenit.wordpress.com/2007/03/27/groovyness-with-excel-and-xml/

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• How does the overall view hierarchy change when using UIKit view manipulations?

  - by executor21

  I've been trying to figure out what happens in the view hierarchy when methods like pushViewController:animated, presentModalViewController:animated, and tab switches in UITabBarViewController are used, as well as UIAlertView and UIActionSheet. (Side note: I'm doing this because I need to know whether a specific UIView of my creation is visible on screen when I do not know anything about how it or its superview may have been added to the view hierarchy. If someone knows a good way to determine this, I'd welcome the knowledge.) To figure it out, I've been logging out the hierarchy of [[UIApplication sharedApplication] keyWindow] subviews in different circumstances. Is the following correct: When a new viewController is pushed onto the stack of a UINavigationController, the old viewController's view is no longer in the view hierarchy. That is, only the top view controller's view is a subview of UINavigationController's view (according to logs, it's actually several private classes such as UILayoutContainerView). Are the views of view controllers below the top controller of the stack actually removed from the window? A very similar thing happens when a new viewController is presented via presentModalViewController:animated. The new viewController's view is the only subview of the kew window. Is this correct? The easiest thing to understand: a UIAlertView creates its own window and makes it key. The strangest thing I encountered: a UIActionSheet is shown via showInView: method, the actionSheet isn't in the view hierarchy at all. It's not a subview of the view passed as an argument to showInView:, it isn't added as a subview of the key window, and it doesn't create its own window. How does it appear, then? I haven't tried this yet, so I'd like to know what happens in the keyWindow hierarchy when tabs in a UITabBarController are switched. Is the view of the selected UIViewController moved to the top, or does it work like with pushViewController:animated and presentModalViewController:animated, where only the displayed view is in the window hierarchy?

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• How can I factor out repeated expressions in an SQL Query? Column aliases don't seem to be the ticke

  - by Weston C

  So, I've got a query that looks something like this: SELECT id, DATE_FORMAT(CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00'),'%b %d %Y') as callDate, DATE_FORMAT(CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00'),'%H:%i') as callTimeOfDay, SEC_TO_TIME(callLength) as callLength FROM cs_calldata WHERE customerCode='999999-abc-blahblahblah' AND CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') >= '2010-04-25' AND CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') <= '2010-05-25' If you're like me, you probably start thinking that maybe it would improve readability and possibly the performance of this query if I wasn't asking it to compute CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') four separate times. So I try to create a column alias for that expression and replace further occurances with that alias: SELECT id, CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') as callTimeZoned, DATE_FORMAT(callTimeZoned,'%b %d %Y') as callDate, DATE_FORMAT(callTimeZoned,'%H:%i') as callTimeOfDay, SEC_TO_TIME(callLength) as callLength FROM cs_calldata WHERE customerCode='5999999-abc-blahblahblah' AND callTimeZoned >= '2010-04-25' AND callTimeZoned <= '2010-05-25' This is when I learned, to quote the MySQL manual: Standard SQL disallows references to column aliases in a WHERE clause. This restriction is imposed because when the WHERE clause is evaluated, the column value may not yet have been determined. So, that approach would seem to be dead in the water. How is someone writing queries with recurring expressions like this supposed to deal with it?

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• What algorithm should i follow to retrieve data in the prescribed format?

  - by Prateek

  I have to retrieve data from a database in which tables are consisting of fields like "ttc, rm, atc and lta" namely. Actually these values are stored on daily basis with a 15 min interval like From_time to_time ttc rm atc lta 00:00 00:15 45 10 35 25, 00:15 00:30 35 10 25 25 and so on .. These values are stored for every day of every month and i want it to be previewed in the prescribed format then what algorithm should i follow. I am confused about how to do comparisons for a format like below mentioned. The format is at this link https://drive.google.com/a/itbhu.ac.in/file/d/0B_J0Ljq64i4Za2J1V0lvbDZ4eGc/edit?usp=sharing To be specific once again, my question is, I have to prepare a report from the retrieved data which is being stored in the databases as explained above. But the report which is going to be prepared will be of entire month. So, to say the least, there may be cases that for two particular days the value of "ttc" would be same for some time so i want it to be listed together (as shown in format). And the confusing part is any of the values "ttc", "rm", "atc", "lta" can be same for any particular interval. So what algorithm should i follow for such comparisons. And if still any query with question, u can ask your doubt. Thanks

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• Valueurl Binding On Large Arrays Causes Sluggish User Interface

  - by Hooligancat

  I have a large data set (some 3500 objects) that returns from a remote server via HTTP. Currently the data is being presented in an NSCollectionView. One aspect of the data is a path pack to the server for a small image that represents the data (think thumbnail for simplicity). Bindings works fantastically for the data that is already returned, and binding the image via a valueurl binding is easy to do. However, the user interface is very sluggish when scrolling through the data set - which makes me think that the NSCollectionView is retrieving all the image data instead of just the image data used to display the currently viewable images. I was under the impression that Cocoa controls were smart enough to only retrieve data for the information that is actually being output to the user interface through lazy loading. This certainly seems to be the case with NSTableView - but I could be misguided on this thought. Should valueurl binding act lazily and, moreover, should it act lazily in an NSCollectionView? I could create a caching mechanism (in fact I already have such a thing in place for another application - see my post here if you are interested http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1740209/populating-nsimage-with-data-from-an-asynchronous-nsurlconnection) but I really don't want to go this route if I don't have to for this specific implementation as the user could potentially change data sets often and may only want small sub-sets of the data. Any suggested approaches? Thanks!

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• Can someone copyright an SQL query?

  - by Samutz

  I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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