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  • Stop Rewrite htaccess create random pages

    - by Vistol
    Recently I saw in my Webmaster tools that some random sites are linking to my site. Actually this is not an big issue. The issue comes when the pages that are linked are not real pages because of my httaccess file. This is the htaccess code that Im running: <pre> #Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^([^/\.]+)/?$ index.php?id=$1 [L] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)/(.*)$ index.php?id=$1 [L] </pre> So the real URLs would be: mysite.com/folder/999/TITLE-OR-NAME But cecause I only check the 1st folder ($1) which is an I numberD, this htaccess file is allowing hackers linking to my site with random URLs like: mysite.com/folder/999/TITLE-OR-NAME1 mysite.com/folder/999/TITLE-OR-NAME2 mysite.com/folder/999/TITLE-OR-NAME3 mysite.com/folder/999/TITLE-OR-NAME4 mysite.com/folder/999/TITLE-OR-NAME5 The worst part comes when google tells me that I am duplicating content!!! Actually I am not duplicating content, the htaccess is duplicating it for me. And yes I know, Im a bad newbie programmer but Id really appreciate your help with this cause Im struggling to find a solution but it never. Thank you very much for all your support to this newbie :)

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  • std::ifstream buffer caching

    - by ledokol
    Hello everybody, In my application I'm trying to merge sorted files (keeping them sorted of course), so I have to iterate through each element in both files to write the minimal to the third one. This works pretty much slow on big files, as far as I don't see any other choice (the iteration has to be done) I'm trying to optimize file loading. I can use some amount of RAM, which I can use for buffering. I mean instead of reading 4 bytes from both files every time I can read once something like 100Mb and work with that buffer after that, until there will be no element in buffer, then I'll refill the buffer again. But I guess ifstream is already doing that, will it give me more performance and is there any reason? If fstream does, maybe I can change size of that buffer? added My current code looks like that (pseudocode) // this is done in loop int i1 = input1.read_integer(); int i2 = input2.read_integer(); if (!input1.eof() && !input2.eof()) { if (i1 < i2) { output.write(i1); input2.seek_back(sizeof(int)); } else input1.seek_back(sizeof(int)); output.write(i2); } } else { if (input1.eof()) output.write(i2); else if (input2.eof()) output.write(i1); } What I don't like here is seek_back - I have to seek back to previous position as there is no way to peek 4 bytes too much reading from file if one of the streams is in EOF it still continues to check that stream instead of putting contents of another stream directly to output, but this is not a big issue, because chunk sizes are almost always equal. Can you suggest improvement for that? Thanks.

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  • Centralizing Messagebox handling for application

    - by DRapp
    I'm wondering how others deal with trying to centralize MessageBox function calling. Instead of having long text embedded all over the place in code, in the past (non .net language), I would put system and application base "messagebox" type of messages into a database file which would be "burned" into the executable, much like a resource file in .Net. When a prompting condition would arise, I would just do call something like MBAnswer = MyApplication.CallMsgBox( IDUserCantDoThat ) then check the MBAnswer upon return, such as a yes/no/cancel or whatever. In the database table, I would have things like what the messagebox title would be, the buttons that would be shown, the actual message, a special flag that automatically tacked on a subsequent standard comment like "Please contact help desk if this happens.". The function would call the messagebox with all applicable settings and just return back the answer. The big benefits of this was, one location to have all the "context" of messages, and via constants, easier to read what message was going to be presented to the user. Does anyone have a similar system in .Net to do a similar approach, or is this just a bad idea in the .Net environment.

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  • Freetype2 (error-)return value documentation

    - by Awaki
    In short, I'm looking for documentation that would limit the error situations to check for after a Freetype library function failed, much like the OpenGL and Win32 APIs document the error codes generated by their respective functions. I can't seem to find such documentation though, so I was wondering how to best handle translation of Freetype errors to typed exceptions. Background: I am currently in the process of implementing font-rendering capability (using Freetype) for my GUI framework, which makes strong use of typed exceptions to indicate error situations. However, the Freetype docs seem to completely omit what errors can be expected from what functions. That, if such documentation does indeed not exist, would basically leave me with two options: either guessing which errors make sense for a certain Freetype function (obviously prone to mistakes on my part), or considering every error code for translation into appropriate exceptions (less verbose since I would have to write the translation only once). Performance isn't really critical in the code that calls the Freetype library, so even the latter option would probably be acceptable, but surely there must be some kind of documentation on which library calls may return what Freetype error? Is there any such documentation which I just somehow managed to not find? Should I go the route of generically expecting every error code for translation? Or are there other ways to approach this problem? By the way, I wanted to avoid introducing some kind of generic FreetypeException (containing a description of the Freetype error) since I intended to completely hide what libraries I'm using (not from a legal point-of-view, mind you), but I guess I can be convinced to do this anyway if the consensus is that it would be the best option. I don't think it matters for this question, but I'm writing in C++.

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  • Is this linear search implementation actually useful?

    - by Helper Method
    In Matters Computational I found this interesting linear search implementation (it's actually my Java implementation ;-)): public static int linearSearch(int[] a, int key) { int high = a.length - 1; int tmp = a[high]; // put a sentinel at the end of the array a[high] = key; int i = 0; while (a[i] != key) { i++; } // restore original value a[high] = tmp; if (i == high && key != tmp) { return NOT_CONTAINED; } return i; } It basically uses a sentinel, which is the searched for value, so that you always find the value and don't have to check for array boundaries. The last element is stored in a temp variable, and then the sentinel is placed at the last position. When the value is found (remember, it is always found due to the sentinel), the original element is restored and the index is checked if it represents the last index and is unequal to the searched for value. If that's the case, -1 (NOT_CONTAINED) is returned, otherwise the index. While I found this implementation really clever, I wonder if it is actually useful. For small arrays, it seems to be always slower, and for large arrays it only seems to be faster when the value is not found. Any ideas?

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  • In perl, how can I call a method whose name I have in a string?

    - by Ryan Thompson
    I'm trying to write some abstract code for searching through a list of similar objects for the first one whose attributes match specific values. In order to do this, I need to call a bunch of accessor methods and check all their values one by one. I'd like to use an abstraction like this: sub verify_attribute { my ($object, $attribute_method, $wanted_value) = @_; if ( call_method($object, $attribute_method) ~~ $wanted_value ) { return 1; } else { return; } } Then I can loop through a hash whose keys are accessor method names and whose values are the values I'm looking for for those attributes. For example, if that hash is called %wanted, I might use code like this to find the object I want: my $found_object; FINDOBJ: foreach my $obj (@list_of_objects) { foreach my $accessor (keys %wanted) { next FINDOBJ unless verify_attribute($obj, $accessor, $wanted{$accessor}); } # All attrs verified $found_object = $obj; last FINDOBJ; } Of course, the only problem is that call_method does not exsit. Or does it? How can I call a method if I have a string containing its name? Or is there a better solution to this whole problem?

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  • EventAggregator, is it thread-safe?

    - by pfaz
    Is this thread-safe? The EventAggregator in Prism is a very simple class with only one method. I was surprised when I noticed that there was no lock around the null check and creation of a new type to add to the private _events collection. If two threads called GetEvent simultaneously for the same type (before it exists in _events) it looks like this would result in two entries in the collection. /// <summary> /// Gets the single instance of the event managed by this EventAggregator. Multiple calls to this method with the same <typeparamref name="TEventType"/> returns the same event instance. /// </summary> /// <typeparam name="TEventType">The type of event to get. This must inherit from <see cref="EventBase"/>.</typeparam> /// <returns>A singleton instance of an event object of type <typeparamref name="TEventType"/>.</returns> public TEventType GetEvent<TEventType>() where TEventType : EventBase { TEventType eventInstance = _events.FirstOrDefault(evt => evt.GetType() == typeof(TEventType)) as TEventType; if (eventInstance == null) { eventInstance = Activator.CreateInstance<TEventType>(); _events.Add(eventInstance); } return eventInstance; }

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  • Cached data accessed by reference?

    - by arthurdent510
    I am running into an odd problem, and this is the only thing I can think of. I'm storing a list in cache, and I am randomly losing items from my list as users use the site. I have a class that is called that either goes to cache and returns the list from there, or if the cache is over a certain time frame old, it goes to the database and refreshes the cache. So when I pull the data from cache, this is what it looks like.... results = (List<Software>)cache["software"]; And then I return results and do some processing, filter for security, and eventually it winds up on the screen. For each Software record, there can be multiple resources attached to it, and based on how the security goes they may see some, all, or none of the records. So in the security check it will remove some of those resources from the software record. So my question is.... when I return my results list, is it a reference directly to the cache object? So when I remove a resource from the software object, it is really removing from cache as well? If that is the case, is there any way to not return it as a reference? Thanks!

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  • How to Prevent PostBack Event Handler from Firing

    - by user331744
    I have a custom class (ServerSideValidator.vb) that validates user input on server side (it doesn't use any of the .NET built in validators, therefore Page.Validate() is not an option for me). I am calling the Validate() method on page.IsPostback event and the class performs without any problem My issue is, when validation fails (returns false), I want to stop the postback event handler from firing, but load the page along with all the controls and user-input values in them. If I do, Response.End(), the page comes up blank. I can programmatically instruct the page to go to the previous page (original form before postback), but it loses all user-inputs. I thought of creating a global boolean variable in the page code behind file and check the value before performing any postback method, but this approach takes away from my plan to provide all functionalities inside the class itself. The page object is being referenced to ServerSideValidator. Seems like all the postback related properties/variables I come across inside Page class are 'Readonly' and I can't assign value(s) to control/prevent postback event from firing. Any idiea on how I can accomplish this? Please let me know if you need further details

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  • How to cancel a deeply nested process

    - by Mystere Man
    I have a class that is a "manager" sort of class. One of it's functions is to signal that the long running process of the class should shut down. It does this by setting a boolean called "IsStopping" in class. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { // do work... } } } Now, DoWork() was a gigantic function, and I decided to refactor it out and as part of the process broke some of it into other classes. The problem is, Some of these classes also have long running functions that need to check if isStopping is true. public class Foo { bool isStoping void DoWork() { while (!isStopping) { MoreWork mw = new MoreWork() mw.DoMoreWork() // possibly long running // do work... } } } What are my options here? I have considered passing isStopping by reference, which I don't really like because it requires there to be an outside object. I would prefer to make the additional classes as stand alone and dependancy free as possible. I have also considered making isStopping a property, and then then having it call an event that the inner classes could be subscribed to, but this seems overly complex. Another option was to create a "Process Cancelation Token" class, similar to what .net 4 Tasks use, then that token be passed to those classes. How have you handled this situation? EDIT: Also consider that MoreWork might have a EvenMoreWork object that it instantiates and calls a potentially long running method on... and so on. I guess what i'm looking for is a way to be able to signal an arbitrary number of objects down a call tree to tell them to stop what they're doing and clean up and return.

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  • Ajax request not receiving xml from Django

    - by amougeot
    I have a Django server which handles requests to a URL which will return some HTML for use in an image gallery. I can navigate to the URL and the browser will display the HTML that is returned, but I can't get that same HTML by doing an AJAX call (using jQuery) to the same URL. This is the view that generates the response: def gallery_images(request, gallery_name): return render_to_response('galleryimages.html', {'images': get_images_of_gallery(gallery_name)}, mimetype='text/xml') This is the 'galleryimages.html' template: {% for image in images %} <div id="{{image.name}}big"> <div class="actualImage" style="background-image:url({{image.image.name}});"> <h1>{{image.caption|safe}}</h1> </div> </div> {% endfor %} This is the jQuery call I am making: $("#allImages").load("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web"); However, this loads nothing into my #allImages div. I've used firebug and ran jQuery's Ajax method .get("http://localhost:8000/galleryimages/Web") and firebug says that the response text is completely empty. When I check my Django server log, this is the entry I see for when I navigate to the URL manually, through my browser: [16/Jan/2010 17:34:10] "GET /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 This is the entry in the server log for when I make the AJAX call: [16/Jan/2010 17:36:19] "OPTIONS /galleryimages/Web HTTP/1.1" 200 215 Why does the AJAX request not get the xml that my Django page is serving?

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  • before filter not working as expected

    - by Jimmy
    Hey guys I have a ruby on rails app with a before filter setup in my application controller to ensure only the owner can edit a document, but my permission check is always failing even when it shouldn't. Here is the code: def get_logged_in_user id = session[:user_id] unless id.nil? @current_user = User.find(id) end end def require_login get_logged_in_user if @current_user.nil? session[:original_uri] = request.request_uri flash[:notice] = "You must login first." redirect_to login end end def check_current_user_permission require_login logger.debug "user id is #{params[:user_id]}" logger.debug "current user id is #{session[:user_id]}" if session[:user_id] != params[:user_id] flash[:notice] = "You don't have permission to do that." redirect_to :controller => 'home' end end The code to note is in the check_current_user_permission. Here is an example of my log output: user id is 3 current user id is 3 Redirected to http://localhost:3000/home Filter chain halted as [:check_current_user_permission] rendered_or_redirected. Can anyone shed some light into why this is failing? Obviously the user_id of 3 is equal to the session's user_id of 3. What is going wrong?

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  • How to configure ldap login with php

    - by Drew G
    I'm attempting to implement a login that works with ldap, My extension=php_ldap.dll is uncommented in both of my php config files, ldap shows up in my phpinfo() I have access to AD and I've been using dsquery to snoop around. So I believe I'm very close to achieving my goal function authenticate($user, $password) { $ldap_host = "na.ad.mycompanyname.com"; $ldap_dn = "CN=USA-USERS,DC=ad,DC=mycompanyname,DC=com"; $ldap_user_group = "Domain Users"; $ldap_manager_group = "Domain Admins"; $ldap_usr_dom = "@na.ad.mycompany.com"; So for now when I enter my login credentials, it fails and I get the appropriate error, my question is, what information do I need to enter and which dsquery commands should I use? Without being spoonfed, could someone point me in the right direction? I've done some extensive research, but nothing I could find really assists with figuring out which CN's and OU's to use. Yes I realize I need to be using the correct CN's and OU's that correspond to my location, but I've been trying the guess and check method to no avail, so I figured I would ask. Any assistance is appreciated. THANKS!!!

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  • Does anyone still believe in the Capability Maturity Model for Software?

    - by Ed Guiness
    Ten years ago when I first encountered the CMM for software I was, I suppose like many, struck by how accurately it seemed to describe the chaotic "level one" state of software development in many businesses, particularly with its reference to reliance on heroes. It also seemed to provide realistic guidance for an organisation to progress up the levels improving their processes. But while it seemed to provide a good model and realistic guidance for improvement, I never really witnessed an adherence to CMM having a significant positive impact on any organisation I have worked for, or with. I know of one large software consultancy that claims CMM level 5 - the highest level - when I can see first hand that their processes are as chaotic, and the quality of their software products as varied, as other, non-CMM businesses. So I'm wondering, has anyone seen a real, tangible benefit from adherence to process improvement according to CMM? And if you have seen improvement, do you think that the improvement was specifically attributable to CMM, or would an alternative approach (such as six-sigma) have been equally or more beneficial? Does anyone still believe? As an aside, for those who haven't yet seen it, check out this funny-because-its-true parody

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  • ASP.NET Web Service returning XML result and nodevalue is always null

    - by kburnsmt
    I have an ASP.NET web service which returns an XMLDocument. The web service is called from a Firefox extension using XMLHttpRequest. var serviceRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); serviecRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "text/xml; charset=utf-8"); I consume the result using responseXML. So far so good. But when I iterate through the XML I retrieve nodeValue - nodeValue is always null. When I check the nodeType the nodeType is type 1 (Node.ELEMENT_NODE == 1). Node.NodeValue states all nodes of type Element will return null. In my webservice I have created a string with the XML i.e. xml="Hank" I then create the XmlDocument XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.LoadXML(string); I know I can specify the nodetype using using CreateNode. But when I am just building the xml by appending string values is there a way to change the nodeType to Text so Node.nodeValue will be "content of the text node".

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  • JavaScript Keycode 46 is DEL Function key or (.) period sign?

    - by Omar
    Im writing some logic in JavaScript using jquery, where i must check the input content against a REGEX pattern ex: "^[a-zA-Z0-9_]*$" //Alpha-numeric and _ The logic is almost done, i just have a little problem filtering the function key DEL, my logic goes like this: var FunctionsKey = new Array(8, 9, 13, 16, 35, 36, 37, 39, 46); function keypressValidation(key) { if (config.regexExp != null) { if ($.inArray(key, FunctionsKey) != -1) { return true; } else { var keyChar = String.fromCharCode(key); return RegexCheck(keyChar); } } return true; } If the KeyCode is one of those in the array, i let it pass, if not i get the char and compare it against the REGEX. The problem is: in some Browsers the DEL and '.' (period sign) have the same key Code 46. So is there a better logic to filter the function keys or must i write a condition for that case, maybe removing the 46 from the array and try to convert it to char and if is (.) let it go to the Regex function if not let it pass? The other question will be are there more shared Key Codes in some browsers? EDIT: My suggested solution wont work because it doesn't matter which key the user pressed (DEL or period) i always get (.) as CHAR at least on OPERA and FF =(.

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  • Bruteforcing Blackberry PersistentStore?

    - by Haoest
    Hello, I am experimenting with Blackberry's Persistent Store, but I have gotten nowhere so far, which is good, I guess. So I have written a a short program that attempts iterator through 0 to a specific upper bound to search for persisted objects. Blackberry seems to intentionally slow the loop. Check this out: String result = "result: \n"; int ub = 3000; Date start = Calendar.getInstance().getTime(); for(int i=0; i<ub; i++){ PersistentObject o = PersistentStore.getPersistentObject(i); if (o.getContents() != null){ result += (String) o.getContents() + "\n"; } } result += "end result\n"; result += "from 0 to " + ub + " took " + (Calendar.getInstance().getTime().getTime() - start.getTime()) / 1000 + " seconds"; From 0 to 3000 took 20 seconds. Is this enough to conclude that brute-forcing is not a practical method to breach the Blackberry? In general, how secure is BB Persistent Store?

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  • Measure text size in JavaScript

    - by kayahr
    I want to measure the size of a text in JavaScript. So far this isn't so difficult because I can simply put a temporary invisible div into the DOM tree and check the offsetWidth and offsetHeight. The problem is, I want to do this BEFORE the DOM is ready. Here is a stub: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var text = "Hello world"; var fontFamily = "Arial"; var fontSize = 12; var size = measureText(text, fontSize, fontFamily); function measureText(text, fontSize, fontFamily) { // TODO Implement me! } </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> Again: I KNOW how to do it asynchronously when DOM (or body) signals that it is ready. But I want to do it synchronously right in the header as shown in the stub above. Any ideas how I can accomplish this? My current opinion is that this is impossible but maybe someone has a crazy idea.

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  • Why is my code stopping and not returning an exception?

    - by BeckyLou
    I have some code that starts a couple of threads to let them execute, then uses a while loop to check for the current time passing a set timeout period, or for the correct number of results to have been processed (by checking an int on the class object) (with a Thread.Sleep() to wait between loops) Once the while loop is set to exit, it calls Abort() on the threads and should return data to the function that calls the method. When debugging and stepping through the code, I find there can be exceptions in the code running on the separate threads, and in some cases I handle these appropriately, and at other times I don't want to do anything specific. What I have been seeing is that my code goes into the while loop and the thread sleeps, then nothing is returned from my function, either data or an exception. Code execution just stops completely. Any ideas what could be happening? Code sample: System.Threading.Thread sendThread = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(Send)); sendThread.Start(); System.Threading.Thread receiveThread = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(Receive)); receiveThread.Start(); // timeout Int32 maxSecondsToProcess = this.searchTotalCount * timeout; DateTime timeoutTime = DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(maxSecondsToProcess); Log("Submit() Timeout time: " + timeoutTime.ToString("yyyyMMdd HHmmss")); // while we're still waiting to receive results & haven't hit the timeout, // keep the threads going while (resultInfos.Count < this.searchTotalCount && DateTime.Now < timeoutTime) { Log("Submit() Waiting..."); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10 * 1000); // 1 minute } Log("Submit() Aborting threads"); // <== this log doesn't show up sendThread.Abort(); receiveThread.Abort(); return new List<ResultInfo>(this.resultInfos.Values);

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  • Zend XML parsing

    - by Vincent
    I have an xml file called error.xml like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <errorList> <error> <code>0</code> <desc>Fault</desc> <ufmessage>Fault</ufmessage> </error> <error> <code>1</code> <desc>Unknown</desc> <ufmessage>Unknown</ufmessage> </error> <error> <code>2</code> <desc>Internal Error</desc> <ufmessage>Internal Error</ufmessage> </error> </errorList> I am using Zend and have the above xml file stored in a Zend Registry variable called "apperrors" like this: $apperrors = new Zend_Config_Xml( 'error.xml'); Zend_Registry::set('apperrors', $apperrors->errorList); If my code throws an error code of 2, I want a snippet of code to check the error code with "code" key in "apperrors" array and echo the ufmessage value corresponding to it. How can I do this? Ex: //Error thrown by the code. Hardcoded for now... $errorThrownByCode = 2; //Get the Zend Registry value for all errors $errorList = Zend_Registry::get('apperrors'); //Write some code to compare $errorThrownByCode with $errorList->error->code //If found echo $errorList->error->ufmessage, else echo "An Unknown error occured"; Thanks

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  • Play! 1.2.5 with mongodb | Model Validation not happening

    - by TGV
    I have a simple User model whose fields are annotated with play validation annotations and morphia annotations like below. import play.data.validation.*; import play.modules.morphia.Model; import com.google.code.morphia.annotations.*; @Entity public class User extends Model{ @Id @Indexed(name="USERID", unique=true) public ObjectId userId; @Required public String userName; @Email @Indexed(name="USEREMAIL", unique=true) @Required public String userEmail; } Now I have a service which has a CreateNewUser method responsible for persisting the data. I have used Morphia plugin for the dao support. But the problem is that User Document gets persisted in mongo-db even if userName or userEmail is NULL. Also @Email validation does not happen // Below code is in app/controllers/Application.java User a = new User(); a.userName = "user1"; // calling bean to create user, userService is in app/service/UserService userService.createNewUser(a); It does not work even after adding @valid and validation.hasErrors() check.Below code is in app/service/UserService public void createNewUser(@Valid User user) { if (Validation.hasErrors()) { System.out.println("has errors"); } else { // TODO Auto-generated method stub userDao.save(user); } }

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  • How to differentiate between exceptions i can show the user, and ones i can't?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i have some business logic that traps some logically invalid situations, e.g. trying to reverse a transaction that was already reversed. In this case the correct action is to inform the user: Transaction already reversed or Cannot reverse a reversing transaction or You do not have permission to reverse transactions or This transaction is on a session that has already been closed or This transaction is too old to be reversed The question is, how do i communicate these exceptional cases back to the calling code, so they can show the user? Do i create a separate exception for each case: catch (ETransactionAlreadyReversedException) MessageBox.Show('Transaction already reversed') catch (EReversingAReversingTransactionException) MessageBox.Show('Cannot reverse a reversing transaction') catch (ENoPermissionToReverseTranasctionException) MessageBox.Show('You do not have permission to reverse transactions') catch (ECannotReverseTransactionOnAlredyClosedSessionException) MessageBox.Show('This transaction is on a session that has already been closed') catch (ECannotReverseTooOldTransactionException) MessageBox.Show('This transaction is too old to be reversed') Downside for this is that when there's a new logical case to show the user: Tranasctions created by NSL cannot be reversed i don't simply show the user a message, and instead it leaks out as an unhandled excpetion, when really it should be handled with another MessageBox. The alternative is to create a single exception class: `EReverseTransactionException` With the understanding that any exception of this type is a logical check, that should be handled with a message box: catch (EReverseTransactionException) But it's still understood that any other exceptions, ones that involve, for example, an memory ECC parity error, continue unhandled. In other words, i don't convert all errors that can be thrown by the ReverseTransaction() method into EReverseTransactionException, only ones that are logically invalid cause of the user.

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  • Auto Submitting a form (cURL)

    - by cast01
    Im writing a form to post data off to paypal, and this works fine, i create the form with hidden fields and then have a submit button that submits everything to paypal. However, when the user clicks that button, there is more that i want to do, for example change their cart status in the database. So, i want to be able to execute some code when they click submit and then post the data to paypal. I dont want to use javascript for this. My method at the moment is using cURL, the form posts back to the current page, i then check for $_POST data, do my other commands like updating the status of the cart, and then create a curl command, and post the form data to paypal. Now, it gets posted successfully, but the browser doesnt go off to paypal. At first i was just retirieving the result in a string and then echoing it out and i could see that the post was successful, then i set CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION to 1 assuming this would let the browser go off to paypal but it doesnt, what it seems to do is grab some stuff from paypal and put it on my page. Is using cURL the right thing for this? and if so, how do i get round this problem? I want to stay away from javascript for this as only users with javascript enabled would have their cart updated. The code im using for curl is below, the post_data is an array i created and then read key-value pairs into post_string. //Set cURL Options curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1)"); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, false); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_MAXREDIRS, 20); //Set Data to be Posted curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $post_string); //Execute Request curl_exec($curl_connection);

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  • Best practice for debug Asserts during Unit testing

    - by Steve Steiner
    Does heavy use of unit tests discourage the use of debug asserts? It seems like a debug assert firing in the code under test implies the unit test shouldn't exist or the debug assert shouldn't exist. "There can be only one" seems like a reasonable principle. Is this the common practice? Or do you disable your debug asserts when unit testing, so they can be around for integration testing? Edit: I updated 'Assert' to debug assert to distinguish an assert in the code under test from the lines in the unit test that check state after the test has run. Also here is an example that I believe shows the dilema: A unit test passes invalid inputs for a protected function that asserts it's inputs are valid. Should the unit test not exist? It's not a public function. Perhaps checking the inputs would kill perf? Or should the assert not exist? The function is protected not private so it should be checking it's inputs for safety.

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  • What causes markup-controls to be null?

    - by Earlz
    Ok, I have a very strange problem. I have a regular UserControl with some controls in the markup. At Page_Load these controls are still null. And I have tried EnsureChildControls It is laid out like this: Masterpage - Page - mycontrol1 - mycontrol2 - problemcontrol ProblemControl is where the controls are null. MyControl1 contains MyControl2. MyControl2 is another UserControl which contains ProblemControl in it's markup. Masterpage is nothing special and Page contains MyControl1 in it's markup. The only oddity is that ProblemControl is created dynamically at Page_Init. Everything works fine until I get to ProblemControl where none of the controls are being created. ProblemControl has the proper things all set such as the Page and Parent property. I do not see any problems. The source code for all of these(except ProblemControl) is pretty extensive, so I'm hoping someone can just give me some troubleshooting tips for this problem and if anyone has encountered it before. Also, I can place ProblemControl on another Page control and it will work fine, it's something about mycontrol1 and/or mycontrol2. But we've never had any problems with mycontrol1 and mycontrol2 doesn't have anything I can see wrong with it. (which I've been tediously analyzing for the past few hours). Has anyone else had this same problem? Are there any common things to check for?

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