Search Results

Search found 19115 results on 765 pages for 'region specific'.

Page 720/765 | < Previous Page | 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727  | Next Page >

  • Printing a variable only when it changes?

    - by user1781639
    First off, my question was a little vague or confusing since I'm not really sure how to phrase my question to be specific. I'm trying to query a database of stockists for a Knitting company (school project using PHP) but I'm looking to print the city as a heading instead of with each stockists information. Here is what I have at the moment: $sql = "SELECT * FROM mc16korustockists where locale = 'south'"; $result = pg_exec($sql); $nrows = pg_numrows($result); print $nrows; $items = pg_fetch_all($result); print_r($items); for ($i=0; $i<$nrows2; $i++) { print "<h2>"; print $items[$i]['city']; print "</h2>"; print $items[$i]['name']; print $items[$i]['address']; print $items[$i]['city']; print $items[$i]['phone']; print "<br />"; print "<br />"; } I'm querying the database for all of the data in it, the rows being ref, name, address, city and phone, and executing it. Querying the number of rows then using that to determine how many iterations for the loop to run is all fine but what I'd like to have is for the h2 heading to appear above the for ($i=0;) line. Trying just breaks my page so that might be out of the question. I figure I'd have to count the number of entries in 'city' until it detects a change then change the heading to that name I think? That or make a heap of queries and set a variable for each name but at point, I might as well do it manually (and I highly doubt it would be best practice). Oh, and I'd welcome any critiques to my PHP since I'm just starting out. Thanks and if you need any more information, just ask! P.S. Our class is learning with PostgreSQL instead of MySQL as you can see in the tags.

    Read the article

  • Select latest group by in nhibernate

    - by Kendrick
    I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I find the Next Closest Date to today from a list of dates in a Plist on iOS?

    - by user1173823
    Situation: In short, I have a football schedule. I would like to use a custom cell which provides more info for only the next game date in the schedule. Issue: How do I find only the next closest game in the schedule (for iOS)? I've watched the WWDC 2013 video for "Solutions to Common Date and Time Issues" however this primarily applies to the Mac. I've searched numerous posts here and some are close but not what I need to find ONLY the next date from my list of dates in the schedule. From other posts I see where I can compare two specific dates, but this is not what I want to do. I want to find the next closest date that is equal to or after today from a list of dates. This is where I am now. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //Populate the table from the plist NSDictionary *season = _schedContentArray[indexPath.section]; NSArray *schedule = season[@"Schedule"]; NSDictionary *game = schedule[indexPath.row]; //find the closest game date after today's date ?? NSString *gameDateStr = game[@"GameDate"]; NSCalendar *calendar = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; dateFormatter.calendar=calendar; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"MM/dd/yy"]; NSDate *today = [NSDate date]; NSDate *gameDate = [dateFormatter dateFromString:gameDateStr]; //NSString *nextGame = NSLog(@"game date is %@",gameDate); The NSLog returns the game dates (except for the open date): 2013-11-11 16:10:05.979 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-08-31 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.982 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-07 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.985 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is (null) 2013-11-11 16:10:05.987 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-19 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.988 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-09-28 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.990 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-05 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.992 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-12 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.993 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-19 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.995 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-10-26 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.996 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-02 04:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:05.998 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-09 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.000 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-14 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.001 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-23 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.003 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-11-30 05:00:00 +0000 2013-11-11 16:10:06.005 Clemson Football[24060:70b] game date is 2013-12-07 05:00:00 +0000 Thanks in advance for any assistance you can provide. This seems like it should be simple but has been fairly frustrating. Let me know if you need additional info.

    Read the article

  • Displaying an Image in an activity using URI

    - by evkwan
    Hi, I'm writing an application that uses Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE) to capture and image. On the process of capturing the image, I noted the output of the image's URI. Right after finishing the camera activity, I wish to display the image using this specific URI. The method I used to capture images is: private void saveFullImage() { Intent intent = new Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE); File file = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(), "test.jpg"); outputFileUri = Uri.fromFile(file); intent.putExtra(MediaStore.EXTRA_OUTPUT, outputFileUri); startActivityForResult(intent, TAKE_PICTURE); } Which is a method taken from Reto Meier's book Professional Android 2 Application Development. The method works fine, and I assume that the URI of the picture I just took is stored in the outputFileUri variable. Then at this point of the code is where I want to display the picture: @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { if (requestCode == TAKE_PICTURE) { //I want to display the picture I just took here //using the URI } } I'm not sure how to do it. I tried creating a new layout object and a new ImageView object using the method setImageURI(outputFileUri). My main layout (xml) did not have a ImageView object. But even when I set the contentView to the new layout with the ImageView attached to it, it doesn't display anything. I tried creating a Bitmap object from the URI and set it to the ImageView, but I get an unexpected error and forced exit. I have seen examples from here here which creates a Bitmap from URI, but it's not displaying it? My question is just how to display an image in the middle of a running activity? Do I need to get the File Path (like this) in order to display it? If I make a Bitmap out of the URI, how do I display the Bitmap? I'm just probably missing something simple...so any help would be a greatly appreciated! Also additional question for thought: If I were to take multiple pictures, would you recommend me to use the SimpleCursorAdapter instead? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What is an overloaded operator in c++?

    - by Jeff
    I realize this is a basic question but I have searched online, been to cplusplus.com, read through my book, and I can't seem to grasp the concept of overloaded operators. A specific example from cplusplus.com is: // vectors: overloading operators example #include <iostream> using namespace std; class CVector { public: int x,y; CVector () {}; CVector (int,int); CVector operator + (CVector); }; CVector::CVector (int a, int b) { x = a; y = b; } CVector CVector::operator+ (CVector param) { CVector temp; temp.x = x + param.x; temp.y = y + param.y; return (temp); } int main () { CVector a (3,1); CVector b (1,2); CVector c; c = a + b; cout << c.x << "," << c.y; return 0; } from http://www.cplusplus.com/doc/tutorial/classes2/ but reading through it I'm still not understanding them at all. I just need a basic example of the point of the overloaded operator (which I assume is the "CVector CVector::operator+ (CVector param)"). There's also this example from wikipedia: Time operator+(const Time& lhs, const Time& rhs) { Time temp = lhs; temp.seconds += rhs.seconds; if (temp.seconds >= 60) { temp.seconds -= 60; temp.minutes++; } temp.minutes += rhs.minutes; if (temp.minutes >= 60) { temp.minutes -= 60; temp.hours++; } temp.hours += rhs.hours; return temp; } from "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Operator_overloading" The current assignment I'm working on I need to overload a ++ and a -- operator. Thanks in advance for the information and sorry about the somewhat vague question, unfortunately I'm just not sure on it at all.

    Read the article

  • Writing a managed wrapper for unmanaged (C++) code - custom types/structs

    - by Bobby
    faacEncConfigurationPtr FAACAPI faacEncGetCurrentConfiguration( faacEncHandle hEncoder); I'm trying to come up with a simple wrapper for this C++ library; I've never done more than very simple p/invoke interop before - like one function call with primitive arguments. So, given the above C++ function, for example, what should I do to deal with the return type, and parameter? FAACAPI is defined as: #define FAACAPI __stdcall faacEncConfigurationPtr is defined: typedef struct faacEncConfiguration { int version; char *name; char *copyright; unsigned int mpegVersion; unsigned long bitRate; unsigned int inputFormat; int shortctl; psymodellist_t *psymodellist; int channel_map[64]; } faacEncConfiguration, *faacEncConfigurationPtr; AFAIK this means that the return type of the function is a reference to this struct? And faacEncHandle is: typedef struct { unsigned int numChannels; unsigned long sampleRate; ... SR_INFO *srInfo; double *sampleBuff[MAX_CHANNELS]; ... double *freqBuff[MAX_CHANNELS]; double *overlapBuff[MAX_CHANNELS]; double *msSpectrum[MAX_CHANNELS]; CoderInfo coderInfo[MAX_CHANNELS]; ChannelInfo channelInfo[MAX_CHANNELS]; PsyInfo psyInfo[MAX_CHANNELS]; GlobalPsyInfo gpsyInfo; faacEncConfiguration config; psymodel_t *psymodel; /* quantizer specific config */ AACQuantCfg aacquantCfg; /* FFT Tables */ FFT_Tables fft_tables; int bitDiff; } faacEncStruct, *faacEncHandle; So within that struct we see a lot of other types... hmm. Essentially, I'm trying to figure out how to deal with these types in my managed wrapper? Do I need to create versions of these types/structs, in C#? Something like this: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] struct faacEncConfiguration { uint useTns; ulong bitRate; ... } If so then can the runtime automatically "map" these objects onto eachother? And, would I have to create these "mapped" types for all the types in these return types/parameter type hierarchies, all the way down until I get to all primitives? I know this is a broad topic, any advice on getting up-to-speed quickly on what I need to learn to make this happen would be very much appreciated! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is order of parameters for database Command object really important?

    - by nawfal
    I was debugging a database operation code and I found that proper UPDATE was never happening though the code never failed as such. This is the code: condb.Open(); OleDbCommand dbcom = new OleDbCommand("UPDATE Word SET word=?,sentence=?,mp3=? WHERE id=? AND exercise_id=?", condb); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("id", wd.ID); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("exercise_id", wd.ExID); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("word", wd.Name); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("sentence", wd.Sentence); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("mp3", wd.Mp3); But after some tweaking this worked: condb.Open(); OleDbCommand dbcom = new OleDbCommand("UPDATE Word SET word=?,sentence=?,mp3=? WHERE id=? AND exercise_id=?", condb); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("word", wd.Name); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("sentence", wd.Sentence); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("mp3", wd.Mp3); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("id", wd.ID); dbcom.Parameters.AddWithValue("exercise_id", wd.ExID); Why is it so important that the parameters in WHERE clause has to be given the last in case of OleDb connection? Having worked with MySQL previously, I could (and usually do) write parameters of WHERE clause first because that's more logical to me. Is parameter order important when querying database in general? Some performance concern or something? Is there a specific order to be maintained in case of other databases like DB2, Sqlite etc? Update: I got rid of ? and included proper names with and without @. The order is really important. In both cases only when WHERE clause parameters was mentioned last, actual update happened. To make matter worse, in complex queries, its hard to know ourselves which order is Access expecting, and in all situations where order is changed, the query doesnt do its intended duty with no warning/error!!

    Read the article

  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is a Multi-DAL Approach the way to go here?

    - by Krisc
    Working on the data access / model layer in this little MVC2 project and trying to think things out to future projects. I have a database with some basic tables and I have classes in the model layer that represent them. I obviously need something to connect the two. The easiest is to provide some sort of 'provider' that can run operations on the database and return objects. But this is for a website that would potentially be used "a lot" (I know, very general) so I want to cache results from the data layer and keep the cache updated as new data is generated. This question deals with how best to approach this problem of dual DALS. One that returns cached data when possible and goes to the data layer when there is a cache miss. But more importantly, how to integrate the core provider (thing that goes into database) with the caching layer so that it too can rely on cached objects rather than creating new ones. Right now I have the following interfaces: IDataProvider is used to reach the database. It doesn't concern itself with the meaning of the objects it produces, but simply the way to produce them. interface IDataProvider{ // Select, Update, Create, et cetera access IEnumerable<Entry> GetEntries(); Entry GetEntryById(int id); } IDataManager is a layer that sits on top of the IDataProvider layer and manages the cache interface IDataManager : IDataProvider{ void ClearCache(); } Note that in practice the IDataManager implementation will have useful helper functions to add objects to their related cache stores. (In the future I may define other functions on the interface) I guess what I am looking for is the best way to approach a loop back from the IDataProvider implementations so that they can access the cache. Or a different approach entirely may be in order? I am not very interested in 3rd party products at the moment as I am interested in the design of these things much more than this specific implementation. Edit: I realize the title may be a bit misleading. I apologize for that... not sure what to call this question.

    Read the article

  • Closing a process that open in code

    - by AmirHossein
    I create a WordTemplate with some placeholders for field,in code I insert value in this placeholders and show it to user. protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string DocFilePath = ""; //string FilePath = System.Windows.Forms.Application.StartupPath; object fileName = @"[...]\asset\word templates\FormatPeygiri1.dot"; DocFilePath = fileName.ToString(); FileInfo fi = new FileInfo(DocFilePath); if (fi.Exists) { object readOnly = false; object isVisible = true; object PaperNO = "PaperNO"; object PaperDate = "PaperDate"; object Peyvast = "Peyvast"; object To = "To"; object ShoName = "ShoName"; object DateName = "DateName"; Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Document aDoc = WordApp.Documents.Open(ref fileName, ref missing, ref readOnly, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing, ref isVisible, ref isVisible, ref missing, ref missing, ref missing); WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref PaperNO).Result = TextBox_PaperNO.Text; string strPaperDate = string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2}", PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainDay(DateTimePicker_PaperDate.SelectedDate), PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainMonth(DateTimePicker_PaperDate.SelectedDate), PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainYear(DateTimePicker_PaperDate.SelectedDate)); WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref PaperDate).Result = strPaperDate; WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref Peyvast).Result = TextBox_Peyvast.Text; WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref To).Result = TextBox_To.Text; ; WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref ShoName).Result = TextBox_ShoName.Text; string strDateName = string.Format("{0}/{1}/{2}", PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainDay(DateTimePicker_DateName.SelectedDate), PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainMonth(DateTimePicker_DateName.SelectedDate), PersianDateTimeHelper.GetPersainYear(DateTimePicker_DateName.SelectedDate)); WordApp.ActiveDocument.FormFields.get_Item(ref DateName).Result = strDateName; aDoc.Activate(); WordApp.Visible = true; aDoc = null; WordApp = null; } else { MessageBox1.Show("File Not Exist!"); } it work good and successfully! but when a user close the Word,her Process not closed and exists in Task Manager Process list. this process name is WINWORD.exe I know that I can close process whit code [process.Kill()] but I don't know which process that I should to kill. if I want to kill all process with name [WINWORD.exe] all Word window closed.but I want to close specific Word window and kill process that I opened. How to do it?

    Read the article

  • Using drawAtPoint with my CIImage not doing anything on screen

    - by Adam
    Stuck again. :( I have the following code crammed into a procedure invoked when I click on a button on my application main window. I'm just trying to tweak a CIIMage and then display the results. At this point I'm not even worried about exactly where / how to display it. I'm just trying to slam it up on the window to make sure my Transform worked. This code seems to work down through the drawAtPoint message. But I never see anything on the screen. What's wrong? Thanks. Also, as far as displaying it in a particular location on the window ... is the best technique to put a frame of some sort on the window, then get the coordinates of that frame and "draw into" that rectangle? Or use a specific control from IB? Or what? Thanks again. // earlier I initialize a NSImage from JPG file on disk. // then create NSBitmapImageRep from the NSImage. This all works fine. // then ... CIImage * inputCIimage = [[CIImage alloc] initWithBitmapImageRep:inputBitmap]; if (inputCIimage == Nil) NSLog(@"could not create CI Image"); else { NSLog (@"CI Image created. working on transform"); CIFilter *transform = [CIFilter filterWithName:@"CIAffineTransform"]; [transform setDefaults]; [transform setValue:inputCIimage forKey:@"inputImage"]; NSAffineTransform *affineTransform = [NSAffineTransform transform]; [affineTransform rotateByDegrees:3]; [transform setValue:affineTransform forKey:@"inputTransform"]; CIImage * myResult = [transform valueForKey:@"outputImage"]; if (myResult == Nil) NSLog(@"Transformation failed"); else { NSLog(@"Created transformation successfully ... now render it"); [myResult drawAtPoint: NSMakePoint ( 0,0 ) fromRect: NSMakeRect ( 0,0,128,128 ) operation: NSCompositeSourceOver fraction: 1.0]; //100% opaque [inputCIimage release]; } }

    Read the article

  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

    Read the article

  • WinForm-style Invoke() in unmanaged C++

    - by Matt Green
    I've been playing with a DataBus-type design for a hobby project, and I ran into an issue. Back-end components need to notify the UI that something has happened. My implementation of the bus delivers the messages synchronously with respect to the sender. In other words, when you call Send(), the method blocks until all the handlers have called. (This allows callers to use stack memory management for event objects.) However, consider the case where an event handler updates the GUI in response to an event. If the handler is called, and the message sender lives on another thread, then the handler cannot update the GUI due to Win32's GUI elements having thread affinity. More dynamic platforms such as .NET allow you to handle this by calling a special Invoke() method to move the method call (and the arguments) to the UI thread. I'm guessing they use the .NET parking window or the like for these sorts of things. A morbid curiosity was born: can we do this in C++, even if we limit the scope of the problem? Can we make it nicer than existing solutions? I know Qt does something similar with the moveToThread() function. By nicer, I'll mention that I'm specifically trying to avoid code of the following form: if(! this->IsUIThread()) { Invoke(MainWindowPresenter::OnTracksAdded, e); return; } being at the top of every UI method. This dance was common in WinForms when dealing with this issue. I think this sort of concern should be isolated from the domain-specific code and a wrapper object made to deal with it. My implementation consists of: DeferredFunction - functor that stores the target method in a FastDelegate, and deep copies the single event argument. This is the object that is sent across thread boundaries. UIEventHandler - responsible for dispatching a single event from the bus. When the Execute() method is called, it checks the thread ID. If it does not match the UI thread ID (set at construction time), a DeferredFunction is allocated on the heap with the instance, method, and event argument. A pointer to it is sent to the UI thread via PostThreadMessage(). Finally, a hook function for the thread's message pump is used to call the DeferredFunction and de-allocate it. Alternatively, I can use a message loop filter, since my UI framework (WTL) supports them. Ultimately, is this a good idea? The whole message hooking thing makes me leery. The intent is certainly noble, but are there are any pitfalls I should know about? Or is there an easier way to do this?

    Read the article

  • How to store multiple variables from a File Input of unknown size in Java?

    - by AlphaOmegaStrife
    I'm a total beginner with my first programming assignment in Java. For our programming assignment, we will be given a .txt file of students like so: 3 345 Lisa Miller 890238 Y 2 <-(Number of classes) Mathematics MTH345 4 A Physics PHY357 3 B Bill Wilton 798324 N 2 English ENG378 3 B Philosophy PHL534 3 A Dandy Goat 746333 Y 1 History HIS101 3 A" The teacher will give us a .txt file on the day of turning it in with a list of unknown students. My problem is: I have a specific class for turning the data from the file into variables to be used for a different class in printing it to the screen. However, I do not know of a good way to get the variables from the input file for the course numbers, since that number is not predetermined. The only way I can think of to iterate over that unknown amount is using a loop, but that would just overwrite my variables every time. Also, the teacher has requested that we not use any JCL classes (I don't really know what this means.) Sorry if I have done a poor job of explaining this, but I can't think of a better way to conceptualize it. Let me know if I can clarify. Edit: public static void analyzeData() { Scanner inputStream = null; try { inputStream = new Scanner(new FileInputStream("Programming Assignment 1 Data.txt")); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { System.out.println("File Programming Assignment 1 Data.txt could not be found or opened."); System.exit(0); } int numberOfStudents = inputStream.nextInt(); int tuitionPerHour = inputStream.nextInt(); String firstName = inputStream.next(); String lastname = inputStream.next(); String isTuitionPaid = inputStream.next(); int numberOfCourses = inputStream.nextInt(); String courseName = inputStream.next(); String courseNumber = inputStream.next(); int creditHours = inputStream.nextInt(); String grade = inputStream.next(); To show the methods I am using now, I am just using a Scanner to read from the file and for Scanner inputStream, I am using nextInt() or next() to get variables from the file. Obviously this will not work when I do not know exactly how many classes each student will have.

    Read the article

  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

    Read the article

  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

    Read the article

  • unable to calculate textfield values

    - by user1726508
    i am trying to change the input field when users changes the quantity of items in a text field. Here i am iterating my list from my database. Now i have to make invoice for customer. In my code , if i am changing quantity of a single item, then it is effecting all the other items in the list. I want to change only to the specific items,where its quantity has been change. Below code is giving me error. It is changing all the items value on single change of item quantity. my code; <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(function() { $('input[name="quantity"]').change(function() { var unitprice = $('input[name^="unitprice"]').val(); $(this).parents('tr').find('input[name^="price"]').val($(this).val() * unitprice); }); }); }); </script> <tr> <td height="65%" valign="top" width="100%"> <table width="100%" height="100%" border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <s:iterator value="#session.BOK" status="userStatus"> <tr style="height: 10px;"> <td width="65%" align="left"><s:property value="bookTitile"/></td> <td width="10%" align="left"><s:textfield name="unitprice" value="%{price}" size="4"/></td> <td width="10%" align="center"><s:textfield name="quantity" value="%{quantity}" size="2"/></td> <td width="15%" align="center"><s:textfield name="price" size="6"></s:textfield> </td> </tr> </s:iterator> </table> </td> </tr> output looks like this image...

    Read the article

  • How can I create a Searchstring for a Google AJAX Search API?

    - by elmaso
    Hello, i have this code to get the search resutls from the api: querygoogle.php: <?php session_start(); // Here's the Google AJAX Search API url for curl. It uses Google Search's site:www.yourdomain.com syntax to search in a specific site. I used $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] to find my domain automatically. Change $_POST['searchquery'] to your posted search query $url = 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/services/search/web?rsz=large&v=1.0&start=20&q=' . urlencode('' . $_POST['searchquery']); // use fopen and fread to pull Google's search results $handle = fopen($url, 'rb'); $body = ''; while (!feof($handle)) { $body .= fread($handle, 8192); } fclose($handle); // now $body is the JSON encoded results. We need to decode them. $json = json_decode($body); // now $json is an object of Google's search results and we need to iterate through it. foreach($json->responseData->results as $searchresult) { if($searchresult->GsearchResultClass == 'GwebSearch') { $formattedresults .= ' <div class="searchresult"> <h3><a href="' . $searchresult->unescapedUrl . '">' . $searchresult->titleNoFormatting . '</a></h3> <p class="resultdesc">' . $searchresult->content . '</p> <p class="resulturl">' . $searchresult->visibleUrl . '</p> </div>'; } } $_SESSION['googleresults'] = $formattedresults; header('Location: ' . $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER']); exit; ?> search.php <?php session_start(); ?> <form method="post" action="querygoogle.php"> <label for="searchquery"><span class="caption">Search this site</span> <input type="text" size="20" maxlength="255" title="Enter your keywords and click the search button" name="searchquery" /></label> <input type="submit" value="Search" /> </form> <?php if(!empty($_SESSION['googleresults'])) { echo $_SESSION['googleresults']; unset($_SESSION['googleresults']); } ?> but with this code, I cant add a searchstring.. how can i add a search string like search.php?search=keyword ? thanks

    Read the article

  • How to pass operators as parameters

    - by Rodion Ingles
    I have to load an array of doubles from a file, multiply each element by a value in a table (different values for different elements), do some work on it, invert the multiplication (that is, divide) and then save the data back to file. Currently I implement the multiplication and division process in two separate methods. Now there is some extra work behind the scenes but apart from the specific statements where the multiplication/division occurs, the rest of the code is identical. As you can imagine, with this approach you have to be very careful making any changes. The surrounding code is not trivial, so its either a case of manually editing each method or copying changes from one method to the other and remembering to change the * and / operators. After too many close calls I am fed up of this and would like to make a common function which implements the common logic and two wrapper functions which pass which operator to use as a parameter. My initial approach was to use function pointers: MultiplyData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator *)); } DivideData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator /)); } TransformData(double data, double (*func)(double op1, double op2)) { /* Do stuff here... */ } However, I can't pass the operators as pointers (is this because it is an operator on a native type?), so I tried to use function objects. Initially I thought that multiplies and divides functors in <functional> would be ideal: MultiplyData(double data) { std::multiplies<double> multFunct; TransformData(data, &multFunct); } DivideData(double data) { std::divides<double> divFunct; TransformData(data, &divFunct); } TransformData(double data, std::binary_function<double, double, double> *funct) { /* Do stuff here... */ } As you can see I was trying to use a base class pointer to pass the functor polymorphically. The problem is that std::binary_function does not declare an operator() member for the child classes to implement. Is there something I am missing, or is the solution to implement my own functor heirarchy (which really seems more trouble than it is worth)?

    Read the article

  • How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

    - by Greg
    I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

    Read the article

  • Can I write a test that succeeds if and only if a statement does not compile?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'd like to prevent clients of my class from doing something stupid. To that end, I have used the type system, and made my class only accept specific types as input. Consider the following example (Not real code, I've left off things like virtual destructors for the sake of example): class MyDataChunk { //Look Ma! Implementation! }; class Sink; class Source { virtual void Run() = 0; Sink *next_; void SetNext(Sink *next) { next_ = next; } }; class Sink { virtual void GiveMeAChunk(const MyDataChunk& data) { //Impl }; }; class In { virtual void Run { //Impl } }; class Out { }; //Note how filter and sorter have the same declaration. Concrete classes //will inherit from them. The seperate names are there to ensure only //that some idiot doesn't go in and put in a filter where someone expects //a sorter, etc. class Filter : public Source, public Sink { //Drop objects from the chain-of-command pattern that don't match a particular //criterion. }; class Sorter : public Source, public Sink { //Sorts inputs to outputs. There are different sorters because someone might //want to sort by filename, size, date, etc... }; class MyClass { In i; Out o; Filter f; Sorter s; public: //Functions to set i, o, f, and s void Execute() { i.SetNext(f); f.SetNext(s); s.SetNext(o); i.Run(); } }; What I don't want is for somebody to come back later and go, "Hey, look! Sorter and Filter have the same signature. I can make a common one that does both!", thus breaking the semantic difference MyClass requires. Is this a common kind of requirement, and if so, how might I implement a test for it?

    Read the article

  • Race condition for thread startup

    - by Ozzah
    A similar question was asked here, but the answers generally all seem to relate to the lambda notation. I get a similar result without the lambda so I thought I'd ask for some clarification: Say I have something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); One would expect the following output: Thread 0 Thread 1 Thread 2 Thread 3 Thread 4 Now I realise that the threads aren't started in any particular order, so let's just assume that the above lines can come out in any order. But that is not what happens. What instead happens: Thread 3 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 or something similar, which leads me to believe that rather than passing the value if i, it is passing the reference. (Which is weird, since an int is a value type). Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { int j = i; Console.WriteLine("Thread " + j); }))).Start(); does not help either, even though we have made a copy of i. I am assuming the reason is that it hasn't made a copy of i in time. Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); Thread.Sleep(50); } seems to fix the problem, however it is extremely undesirable as we're wasting 50ms on each iteration, not to mention the fact that if the computer is heavily loaded then maybe 50ms may not be enough. Here is a sample with my current, specific problem: Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(delgate() { threadLogic(param1, param2, param3, param4); })); t.Start(); param1 = param2 = param3 = param4 = null; with: void threadLogic(object param1, object param2, object param3, object param4) { // Do some stuff here... } I want threadLogic() to run in its own thread, however the above code gives a null reference exception. I assume this is because the values are set to null before the thread has had a chance to start. Again, putting a Thread.Sleep(100) works, but it is an awful solution from every aspect. What do you guys recommend for this particular type of race condition?

    Read the article

  • MATLAB image corner coordinates & referncing to cell arrays

    - by James
    Hi, I am having some problems comparing the elements in different cell arrays. The context of this problem is that I am using the bwboundaries function in MATLAB to trace the outline of an image. The image is of a structural cross section and I am trying to find if there is continuity throughout the section (i.e. there is only one outline produced by the bwboundaries command). Having done this and found where the is more than one section traced (i.e. it is not continuous), I have used the cornermetric command to find the corners of each section. The code I have is: %% Define the structural section as a binary matrix (Image is an I-section with the web broken) bw(20:40,50:150) = 1; bw(160:180,50:150) = 1; bw(20:60,95:105) = 1; bw(140:180,95:105) = 1; Trace = bw; [B] = bwboundaries(Trace,'noholes'); %Traces the outer boundary of each section L = length(B); % Finds number of boundaries if L > 1 disp('Multiple boundaries') % States whether more than one boundary found end %% Obtain perimeter coordinates for k=1:length(B) %For all the boundaries perim = B{k}; %Obtains perimeter coordinates (as a 2D matrix) from the cell array end %% Find the corner positions C = cornermetric(bw); Areacorners = find(C == max(max(C))) % Finds the corner coordinates of each boundary [rowindexcorners,colindexcorners] = ind2sub(size(Newgeometry),Areacorners) % Convert corner coordinate indexes into subcripts, to give x & y coordinates (i.e. the same format as B gives) %% Put these corner coordinates into a cell array Cornerscellarray = cell(length(rowindexcorners),1); % Initialises cell array of zeros for i =1:numel(rowindexcorners) Cornerscellarray(i) = {[rowindexcorners(i) colindexcorners(i)]}; %Assigns the corner indicies into the cell array %This is done so the cell arrays can be compared end for k=1:length(B) %For all the boundaries found perim = B{k}; %Obtains coordinates for each perimeter Z = perim; % Initialise the matrix containing the perimeter corners Sectioncellmatrix = cell(length(rowindexcorners),1); for i =1:length(perim) Sectioncellmatrix(i) = {[perim(i,1) perim(i,2)]}; end for i = 1:length(perim) if Sectioncellmatrix(i) ~= Cornerscellarray Sectioncellmatrix(i) = []; %Gets rid of the elements that are not corners, but keeps them associated with the relevent section end end end This creates an error in the last for loop. Is there a way I can check whether each cell of the array (containing an x and y coordinate) is equal to any pair of coordinates in cornercellarray? I know it is possible with matrices to compare whether a certain element matches any of the elements in another matrix. I want to be able to do the same here, but for the pair of coordinates within the cell array. The reason I don't just use the cornercellarray cell array itself, is because this lists all the corner coordinates and does not associate them with a specific traced boundary.

    Read the article

  • Wrong data retrieved from database

    - by holyredbeard
    So, I want to retrieve the order of the elements of a list. The order is set before by the user, and are stored in the table below. Because I also want to retrieve name and description of the list elements I need to combine two tables (see below). However, what is actually retrieved is an array containing 16 elements (should be four because it only exists four elements as for now). The array is too long to post here, but I put it in a phpFiddle to be found here if you're interested. Well, I have really tried to find what's wrong (probably something easy as always), but with no luck. Thanks a lot for your time and help! listModel.php: public function GetOrderedElements($userId, $listId) { // $userId = 46 // $listId = 1 $query = "SELECT le.listElemId, le.listElemName, le.listElemDesc, lo.listElemOrderPlace FROM listElement AS le INNER JOIN listElemOrder AS lo ON le.listId = lo.listId WHERE lo.userId = ? AND lo.listId = ? ORDER BY listElemId"; $stmt = $this->m_db->Prepare($query); $stmt->bind_param("ii", $userId, $listId); $listElements = $this->m_db->GetOrderedElements($stmt); return $listElements; } database.php: public function GetOrderedElements(\mysqli_stmt $stmt) { if ($stmt === FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->execute() == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } if ($stmt->bind_result($listElemId, $listElemName, $listElemDesc, $listElemOrderPlace) == FALSE) { throw new \Exception($this->mysqli->error); } $listElements = array(); while ($stmt->fetch()) { $listElements[] = array('listElemId' => $listElemId, 'listElemName' => $listElemName, 'listElemDesc' => $listElemDesc, 'listElemOrderPlace' => $listElemOrderPlace); } var_dump($listElements); $stmt->Close(); return $listElements; } from the database: listElemOrder: listElemOrderId | listId | listElemId | userId | listElemOrderPlace 1 1 1 46 1 2 1 2 46 4 3 1 3 46 2 4 1 4 46 3 listElement: listElemId | listElemName | listId | listElemDesc | listElemOrderPlace 1 Elem A 1 Derp NULL 2 Elem B 1 Herp NULL 3 Elem C 1 Lorum NULL 4 Elem D 1 Ipsum NULL Note: 'listElemOrderPlace' in the table listElement is the final order of the elements (all users average), not to be mixed with the one with the same name in the other table, that's only a specific user's order of the list elements (which is the interesting one in this case).

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with this attempt of sending a break-signal?

    - by Jook
    I have quite a headache about this seemingly easy task: send a break signal to my device, like the wxTerm (or any similar Terminal application) does. This signal has to be 125ms long, according to my tests and the devices specification. It should result in a specific response, but what I get is a longer response than expected, and the transmitted date is false. e.g.: what it should respond 08 00 81 00 00 01 07 00 what it does respond 08 01 0A 0C 10 40 40 07 00 7F What really boggles me is, that after I have used wxTerm to look at my available com-ports (without connecting or sending anything), my code starts to work! I can send then as many breaks as I like, I get my response right from then on. I have to reset my PC in order to try it again. What the heck is going on here?! Here is my code for a reset through a break-signal: minicom_client(boost::asio::io_service& io_service, unsigned int baud, const string& device) : active_(true), io_service_(io_service), serialPort(io_service, device) { if (!serialPort.is_open()) { cerr << "Failed to open serial port\n"; return; } boost::asio::serial_port_base::flow_control FLOW( boost::asio::serial_port_base::flow_control::hardware ); boost::asio::serial_port_base::baud_rate baud_option(baud); serialPort.set_option(FLOW); serialPort.set_option(baud_option); read_start(); std::cout << SetCommBreak(serialPort.native_handle()) << std::endl; std::cout << GetLastError() << std::endl; boost::posix_time::ptime mst1 = boost::posix_time::microsec_clock::local_time(); boost::this_thread::sleep(boost::posix_time::millisec(125)); boost::posix_time::ptime mst2 = boost::posix_time::microsec_clock::local_time(); std::cout << ClearCommBreak(serialPort.native_handle()) << std::endl; std::cout << GetLastError() << std::endl; boost::posix_time::time_duration msdiff = mst2 - mst1; std::cout << msdiff.total_milliseconds() << std::endl; } Edit: It was only necessary to look at the combo-box selection of com-ports of wxTerm - no active connection was needed to be established in order to make my code work. I am guessing, that there is some sort of initialisation missing, which is done, when wxTerm is creating the list for the serial-port combo-box.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 716 717 718 719 720 721 722 723 724 725 726 727  | Next Page >