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  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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  • Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

    - by Mason
    I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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  • Google Code + SVN or GitHub + Git

    - by Nazgulled
    Let me start by telling you that I never used anything besides SVN and I'm also a Windows user. I have a couple of simple projects that are open-source, others are on there way when I'm happy enough to release their source code but either way, I was thinking of using Google Code and SVN to share the source code of my projects instead of providing a link to the source on my website. This as always been a pain cause I had to update the binaries and the code every time I released a new version. This would also help me out to have a backup of my code some where instead of just my local machine (I used to have a local Subversion server running). What I want from a service like this is very simple... I just want a place to store my source code that people can download if they want, allows me to control revisions and provide a simple and easy issue system so people can submit bugs and stuff like that. I guess both of them have this. But I don't want to host any binaries in their websites, I want this to be hosted on my website so I can control download statistics with my own scripts, I also don't have the need for wiki pages as I prefer to have all the documentation in my own website. Does anyone of this services provide a way to "disable" features like wiki and downloads and don't show them at all for my project(s)? Now, I'm sure there are lots of pros and cons about using Google Code with SVN and GitHub with Git (of course) but here's what it's important for me on each one and why I like them: Google Code: As with any Google page, the complexity is almost non-existent Everyone (or almost) as a Google account and this is nice if people want to report problems using the issues system GitHub: May (or may not) be a little more complex (not a problem for me though) than Google's pages but... ...has a much prettier interface than Google's service It needs people to be registered on GitHub to post about issues I like the fact that with Git, you have your own revisions locally (can I use TortoiseGit for this or?) Basically that's it, not much I know... What other, most common, pros and cons can you tell me about each site/software? Keep in mind that my projects are simple, I'm probably the only one who will ever develop these projects on these repositories (or maybe not, for now I will)

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  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Debugging a basic OpenGL texture fail? (iphone)

    - by Ben
    Hey all, I have a very basic texture map problem in GL on iPhone, and I'm wondering what strategies there are for debugging this kind of thing. (Frankly, just staring at state machine calls and wondering if any of them is wrong or misordered is no way to live-- are there tools for this?) I have a 512x512 PNG file that I'm loading up from disk (not specially packed), creating a CGBitmapContext, then calling CGContextDrawImage to get bytes out of it. (This code is essentially stolen from an Apple sample.) I'm trying to map the texture to a "quad", with code that looks essentially like this-- all flat 2D stuff, nothing fancy: glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_REPEAT); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); GLfloat vertices[8] = { viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.size.height, viewRect.origin.x, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.origin.y, viewRect.size.width, viewRect.size.height }; GLfloat texCoords[8] = { 0, 1.0, 0, 0, 1.0, 0, 1.0, 1.0 }; glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, myTextureRef); // This was previously bound to glVertexPointer(2, GL_FLOAT , 0, vertices); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, texCoords); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_FAN, 0, 4); glDisableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); My supposedly textured area comes out just black. I see no debug output from the CG calls to set up the texture. glGetError reports nothing. If I simplify this code block to just draw the verts, but set up a pure color, the quad area lights up exactly as expected. If I clear the whole context immediately beforehand to red, I don't see the red-- which means something is being rendered there, but not the contents of my PNG. What could I be doing wrong? And more importantly, what are the right tools and techniques for debugging this sort of thing, because running into this kind of problem and not being able to "step through it" in a debugger in any meaningful way is a bummer. Thanks!

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  • session management: problem displaying username in the header

    - by aeonsleo
    hi, I am working on a simple login and logout module for my website without any security. I am using wamp on a windows xp machine. I am creating session when a user submits the login informaton it redirects to a process.php file which creates the session variables and starts session. Now if the login is successful user is redirected to the welcome page which includes a header file(which displays the header involving signin logout help options) The problem is the header is not changing the signin link to logout as the user logs successfully. The below code is from process.php which initiates a login. $username = $_POST['username']; $password = $_POST['password']; //echo "{$username}:{$password}"; $connection = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if(!$connection) { die("Database Connection Failed".mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db("tester",$connection); if(!$db_select) { die("Database Selection Failed".mysql_error()); } $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM user",$connection); if(!$result) { die("Database Selection Failed".mysql_error()); } $q = "SELECT * FROM user " ."WHERE Name='".$username."' AND Password='".$password. "' "; // Run query $r = mysql_query($q); if ( $obj = @mysql_fetch_object($r) ) { session_start(); // Login good, create session variables $_SESSION["valid_id"] = session_id(); $_SESSION["valid_user"] = $_POST["username"]; $_SESSION["valid_time"] = time(); Header('Location: welcome.php'); The following code is from header.php which is included in welcome.php </div> <div id = "userdetail"> <?php if(isset($_SESSION["valid_user"])) { echo($_SESSION["valid_user"]." " ); echo("<a href=logout.php>Logout</a>"); } else { echo("<a href = login.php>Sign In</a>"); } ?> | Help | Search <input type = "text" name = "searchbox" value = "" /> </div> </div>

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  • Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

    - by gWiz
    I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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  • SOAP WCF Webservice behaves differently when called locally or remotely

    - by Idriss
    I have a WCF SOAP 1.1 Webservice with the configuration specified below. A concurrent call to any method of this endpoint hangs until the other returns when called remotely (from another computer on the network). I cannot replicate this when these methods are called locally (with a client located on the same machine). I tried to increase the maxConcurrentCalls with no luck ... the service behavior seems to be different according to the client local/remote location. Any guess? Thanks, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="MyCustomBehavior" name="CONTOSO.CONTOSOServerApi.IContosoServiceApiImplV1"> <endpoint address="" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="WebBinding" bindingNamespace="http://contoso.com" contract="CONTOSO.CONTOSOServerApiInterfaceV1.IContosoServiceApiV1" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="MyCustomBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" httpGetUrl="http://localhost:8080/MyEndPointV1" /> <serviceDebug httpHelpPageEnabled="false" includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentSessions="10000" maxConcurrentCalls="1000"/> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="WebBinding"> <textMessageEncoding messageVersion="Soap11" maxReadPoolSize="2147483647" maxWritePoolSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> </textMessageEncoding> <httpsTransport /> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> </system.serviceModel> </configuration>

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • Linux configurations that would affect Java memory usage?

    - by wmacura
    Hi, Background: I have a set of java background workers I start as part of my webapp. I develop locally on Ubuntu 10.10 and deploy to an Ubuntu 10.04LTS server (a media temple (ve) instance). They're both running the same JVM: Sun JVM 1.6.0_22-b04. As part of the initialization script each worker is started with explicit Xmx, Xms, and XX:MaxPermGen settings. Yet somehow locally all 10 workers use 250MB, while on the server they use more than 2.7GB. I don't know how to begin to track this down. I thought the Ubuntu (and thus, kernel) version might make a difference, but I tried an old 10.04 VM and it behaves as expected. I've noticed that the machine does not seem to ever use memory for buffer or cache (according to htop), which seems a bit strange, but perhaps normal for a server? (edited) Some info: (server) root@devel:/app/axir/target# uname -a Linux devel 2.6.18-028stab069.5 #1 SMP Tue May 18 17:26:16 MSD 2010 x86_64 GNU/Linux (local) wiktor@beastie:~$ uname -a Linux beastie 2.6.35-25-generic #44-Ubuntu SMP Fri Jan 21 17:40:44 UTC 2011 x86_64 GNU/Linux (edited) Comparing PS output: (ps -eo "ppid,pid,cmd,rss,sz,vsz") PPID PID CMD RSS SZ VSZ (local) 1588 1615 java -cp axir-distribution. 25484 234382 937528 1615 1631 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 83472 163059 652236 1615 1657 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 70624 89135 356540 1615 1658 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 37652 77625 310500 1615 1669 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38096 77733 310932 1615 1675 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 37420 61395 245580 1615 1684 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38000 77736 310944 1615 1703 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 39180 78060 312240 1615 1712 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38488 93882 375528 1615 1719 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38312 77874 311496 1615 1726 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38656 77958 311832 1615 1727 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 78016 89429 357716 (server) 22522 23560 java -cp axir-distribution. 24860 285196 1140784 23560 23585 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 100764 161629 646516 23560 23667 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 72408 92682 370728 23560 23670 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 39948 97671 390684 23560 23674 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 40140 81586 326344 23560 23739 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 39688 81542 326168 They look very similar. In fact, the question now is why, if I add up the virtual memory usage on the server (3.2GB) does it more closely reflect 2.4GB of memory used (according to free), yet locally the virtual memory used adds up to a much more substantial 4.7GB but only actually uses ~250MB. It seems that perhaps memory isn't being shared as aggressively. (if that's even possible) Thank you for your help, Wiktor

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  • Primary language - C++/Qt, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Rails learn's confusion

    - by Steve
    This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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  • .NET datetime issue with SQL stored procedure

    - by DanO
    I am getting the below error when executing my application on a Windows XP machine with .NET 2.0 installed. On my computer Windows 7 .NET 2.0 - 3.5 I am not having any issues. The target SQL server version is 2005. This error started occurring when I added the datetime to the stored procedure. I have been reading alot about using .NET datetime with SQL datetime and I still have not figured this out. If someone can point me in the right direction I would appreciate it. Here is the where I believe the error is coming from. private static void InsertRecon(string computerName, int EncryptState, TimeSpan FindTime, Int64 EncryptSize, DateTime timeWritten) { SqlConnection DBC = new SqlConnection("server=server;UID=InventoryServer;Password=pass;database=Inventory;connection timeout=30"); SqlCommand CMD = new SqlCommand(); try { CMD.Connection = DBC; CMD.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; CMD.CommandText = "InsertReconData"; CMD.Parameters.Add("@CNAME", SqlDbType.NVarChar); CMD.Parameters.Add("@ENCRYPTEXIST", SqlDbType.Int); CMD.Parameters.Add("@RUNTIME", SqlDbType.Time); CMD.Parameters.Add("@ENCRYPTSIZE", SqlDbType.BigInt); CMD.Parameters.Add("@TIMEWRITTEN", SqlDbType.DateTime); CMD.Parameters["@CNAME"].Value = computerName; CMD.Parameters["@ENCRYPTEXIST"].Value = EncryptState; CMD.Parameters["@RUNTIME"].Value = FindTime; CMD.Parameters["@ENCRYPTSIZE"].Value = EncryptSize; CMD.Parameters["@TIMEWRITTEN"].Value = timeWritten; DBC.Open(); CMD.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException e) { PostMessage(e.Message); } finally { DBC.Close(); CMD.Dispose(); DBC.Dispose(); } } Unhandled Exception: System.ArgumentOutOfRangeException: The SqlDbType enumeration value, 32, is invalid. Parameter name: SqlDbType at System.Data.SqlClient.MetaType.GetMetaTypeFromSqlDbType(SqlDbType target) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameter.set_SqlDbType(SqlDbType value) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameter..ctor(String parameterName, SqlDbType dbType) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameterCollection.Add(String parameterName, SqlDbType sqlDbType) at ReconHelper.getFilesInfo.InsertRecon(String computerName, Int32 EncryptState, TimeSpan FindTime, Int64 EncryptSize, DateTime timeWritten) at ReconHelper.getFilesInfo.Main(String[] args)

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  • Xcode + Perforce: it frequently shows me the spinning wheel for no reason! What can i do?

    - by GamingHorror
    While working on an Xcode project i keep getting the spinning wheel while switching files, scrolling, searching, typing, debugging, removing breakpoints, switching back from another app or saving. It also happens before compiling but usually it just happens from time to time for no apparent reason. This is the second time this started happening in a Xcode project and it's driving me nuts. It completely breaks my flow of work to have to wait for the spinning wheel to go away (2-5 seconds). What on earth could i possibly do to ... figure out what's causing the problem? resolve the problem? More details: When any project is small, everything is super-smooth with Xcode and Perforce. Two of my projects eventually had this spinning wheel problem after about 4 weeks of work. It only happened with those two projects so far. They consist of around 1000-1200 files in source control, most of them assets. The problem occurs even if i manually check out the whole project in Perforce. The problem is gone when i copy the project directory and work in the copy which is no longer under source control, or if i create a branch in Perforce and work in the branch (under source control). One of these projects i shared with a colleague, and he had exactly the same issues on his Mac. We eventually switched to Subversion and the spinning-wheel issue immediately went away. Now that i've received an updated copy of the project and simply put it under Perforce as a new project, the problem also went away (so far it did not resurface). It leads me to think that it may be caused by a larger number of file revisions. The server itself (version 2009.1) is on a different (Windows) machine on my LAN, so there's definetely no Internet lag involved. The complete repository is just 1 GB in size spread over a dozen projects or so. I'm sorry if the question seems more like a support inquiry for Perforce. However i'm using the free version of Perforce so i'm not entitled to get support from them. I hope no one minds me asking here. I'm really bummed out by this. I don't want to have to create a new branch for the project each time the spinning wheel problem surfaces.

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  • FILE_NOT_FOUND when trying to open COM port C++

    - by Moutabreath
    I am trying to open a com port for reading and writing using C++ but I can't seem to pass the first stage of actually opening it. I get an INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE on the handle with GetLastError FILE_NOT_FOUND. I have searched around the web for a couple of days I'm fresh out of ideas. I have searched through all the questions regarding COM on this website too. I have scanned through the existing ports (or so I believe) to get the name of the port right. I also tried combinations of _T("COM1") with the slashes, without the slashes, with colon, without colon and without the _T I'm using windows 7 on 64 bit machine. this is the code i got I'll be glad for any input on this void SendToCom(char* data, int len) { DWORD cbNeeded = 0; DWORD dwPorts = 0; EnumPorts(NULL, 1, NULL, 0, &cbNeeded, &dwPorts); //What will be the return value BOOL bSuccess = FALSE; LPCSTR COM1 ; BYTE* pPorts = static_cast<BYTE*>(malloc(cbNeeded)); bSuccess = EnumPorts(NULL, 1, pPorts, cbNeeded, &cbNeeded, &dwPorts); if (bSuccess){ PORT_INFO_1* pPortInfo = reinterpret_cast<PORT_INFO_1*>(pPorts); for (DWORD i=0; i<dwPorts; i++) { //If it looks like "COMX" then size_t nLen = _tcslen(pPortInfo->pName); if (nLen > 3) { if ((_tcsnicmp(pPortInfo->pName, _T("COM"), 3) == 0) ){ COM1 =pPortInfo->pName; //COM1 ="\\\\.\\COM1"; HANDLE m_hCommPort = CreateFile( COM1 , GENERIC_READ|GENERIC_WRITE, // access ( read and write) 0, // (share) 0:cannot share the COM port NULL, // security (None) OPEN_EXISTING, // creation : open_existing FILE_FLAG_OVERLAPPED, // we want overlapped operation NULL // no templates file for COM port... ); if (m_hCommPort==INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { DWORD err = GetLastError(); if (err == ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND) { MessageBox(hWnd,"ERROR_FILE_NOT_FOUND",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } else if(err == ERROR_INVALID_NAME) { MessageBox(hWnd,"ERROR_INVALID_NAME",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } else { MessageBox(hWnd,"unkown error",NULL,MB_ABORTRETRYIGNORE); } } else{ WriteAndReadPort(m_hCommPort,data); } } pPortInfo++; } } } }

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  • A question about making a C# class persistent during a file load

    - by Adam
    Apologies for the indescriptive title, however it's the best I could think of for the moment. Basically, I've written a singleton class that loads files into a database. These files are typically large, and take hours to process. What I am looking for is to make a method where I can have this class running, and be able to call methods from within it, even if it's calling class is shut down. The singleton class is simple. It starts a thread that loads the file into the database, while having methods to report on the current status. In a nutshell it's al little like this: public sealed class BulkFileLoader { static BulkFileLoader instance = null; int currentCount = 0; BulkFileLoader() public static BulkFileLoader Instance { // Instanciate the instance class if necessary, and return it } public void Go() { // kick of 'ProcessFile' thread } public void GetCurrentCount() { return currentCount; } private void ProcessFile() { while (more rows in the import file) { // insert the row into the database currentCount++; } } } The idea is that you can get an instance of BulkFileLoader to execute, which will process a file to load, while at any time you can get realtime updates on the number of rows its done so far using the GetCurrentCount() method. This works fine, except the calling class needs to stay open the whole time for the processing to continue. As soon as I stop the calling class, the BulkFileLoader instance is removed, and it stops processing the file. What I am after is a solution where it will continue to run independently, regardless of what happens to the calling class. I then tried another approach. I created a simple console application that kicks off the BulkFileLoader, and then wrapped it around as a process. This fixes one problem, since now when I kick off the process, the file will continue to load even if I close the class that called the process. However, now the problem I have is that cannot get updates on the current count, since if I try and get the instance of BulkFileLoader (which, as mentioned before is a singleton), it creates a new instance, rather than returning the instance that is currently in the executing process. It would appear that singletons don't extend into the scope of other processes running on the machine. In the end, I want to be able to kick off the BulkFileLoader, and at any time be able to find out how many rows it's processed. However, that is even if I close the application I used to start it. Can anyone see a solution to my problem?

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  • Running OpenMPI on Windows XP

    - by iamweird
    Hi there. I'm trying to build a simple cluster based on Windows XP. I compiled OpenMPI-1.4.2 successfully, and tools like mpicc and ompi_info work too, but I can't get my mpirun working properly. The only output I can see is Z:\orterun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname [host0:04728] Failed to initialize COM library. Error code = -2147417850 [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\mca\ess\hnp\ess_hnp_module.c at line 218 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_plm_init failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\runtime\orte_init.c at line 132 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_ess_set_name failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\..\..\openmpi -1.4.2\orte\tools\orterun\orterun.c at line 543 Where z:\hosts.txt appears as follows: host0 host1 Z: is a shared network drive available to both host0 and host1. What my problem is and how do I fix it? Upd: Ok, this problem seems to be fixed. It seems to me that WideCap driver and/or software components causes this error to appear. A "clean" machine runs local task successfully. Anyway, I still cannot run a task within at least 2 machines, I'm getting following message: Z:\mpirun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname connecting to host1 username:cluster password:******** Save Credential?(Y/N) y [host0:04728] This feature hasn't been implemented yet. [host0:04728] Could not connect to namespace cimv2 on node host1. Error code =-2147024891 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- mpirun was unable to start the specified application as it encountered an error. More information may be available above. -------------------------------------------------------------------------- I googled a little and did all the things as described here: http://www.open-mpi.org/community/lists/users/2010/03/12355.php but I'm still getting the same error. Can anyone help me? Upd2: Error code -2147024891 might be WMI error WBEM_E_INVALID_PARAMETER (0x80041008) which occures when one of the parameters passed to the WMI call is not correct. Does this mean that the problem is in OpenMPI source code itself? Or maybe it's because of wrong/outdated wincred.h and credui.lib I used while building OpenMPI from the source code?

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  • Dynamically find other hosts in a LAN in Java

    - by Federico Cristina
    A while ago I developed a little LAN chat app. in Java which allows chatting with other hosts, send images, etc. Although it was created just for fun, now it's being used where I work. Currently, there is no "chat server" on the app. where each client registers, updates it's status, etc. (I liked the idea of symmetric design and not depending on a server running on some other machine). Instead, each host is a client/server which has a hosts.properties file with the hostname of the other hosts, and - for instance - broadcasts to each one of them when sending a massive message/image/whatever. In the beginning there were just a couple of hosts, so this hosts.properties file wasn't an issue. But as the amount of users increased, the need of updating that file was a bit daunting. So now I've decided to get rid of it, and each time the app. starts, dynammically find the other active hosts. However, I cannot find the correct way of implement this. I've tried starting different threads, each one of them searching for other hosts in a known range of IP addresses. Something like this (simplified for the sake of readability): /** HostsLocator */ public static void searchForHosts(boolean waitToEnd) { for (int i=0; i < MAX_IP; i+= MAX_IP / threads) { HostsLocator detector = new HostsLocator(i, i+(MAX_IP / threads - 1)); // range: from - to new Thread(detector).start(); } } public void run() { for (int i=from; i<=to; i++) findHosts( maskAddress + Integer.toString(i) ); } public static boolean findHosts(String IP) { InetAddress address = InetAddress.getByName(IP); if ( address.isReachable(CONNECTION_TIME_OUT) ) // host found! } However: With a single thread and a low value in CONNECTION_TIME_OUT (500ms) I get wrong Host Not Found status for for hosts actually active. With a high value in CONNECTION_TIME_OUT (5000ms) and only one single thread takes forever to end With several threads I've also found problems similar like the first one, due to collisions. So... I guess there's a better way of solving this problem but I couldn't find it. Any advice? Thanks!

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • How do I create a safe local development environment?

    - by docgnome
    I'm currently doing web development with another developer on a centralized development server. In the past this has worked alright, as we have two separate projects we are working on and rarely conflict. Now, however, we are adding a third (possible) developer into the mix. This is clearly going to create problems with other developers changes affecting my work and vice versa. To solve this problem, I'm thinking the best solution would be to create a virtual machine to distribute between the developers for local use. The problem I have is when it comes to the database. Given that we all develop on laptops, simply keeping a local copy of the live data is plain stupid. I've considered sanitizing the data, but I can't really figure out how to replace the real data, with data that would be representative of what people actually enter with out repeating the same information over and over again, e.g. everyone's address becomes 123 Testing Lane, Test Town, WA, 99999 or something. Is this really something to be concerned about? Are there tools to help with this sort of thing? I'm using MySQL. Ideally, if I sanitized the db it should be done from a script that I can run regularly. If I do this I'd also need a way to reduce the size of the db itself. (I figure I could select all the records created after x and whack them and all the records in corresponding tables out so that isn't really a big deal.) The second solution I've thought of is to encrypt the hard drive of the vm, but I'm unsure of how practical this is in terms of speed and also in the event of a lost/stolen laptop. If I do this, should the vm hard drive file itself be encrypted or should it be encrypted in the vm? (I'm assuming the latter as it would be portable and doesn't require the devs to have any sort of encryption capability on their OS of choice.) The third is to create a copy of the database for each developer on our development server that they are then responsible to keep the schema in sync with the canonical db by means of migration scripts or what have you. This solution seems to be the simplest but doesn't really scale as more developers are added. How do you deal with this problem?

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  • How can I connect to MSMQ over a workgroup?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm writing a simple console client-server app using MSMQ. I'm attempting to run it over the workgroup we have set up. They run just fine when run on the same computer, but I can't get them to connect over the network. I've tried adding Direct=, OS:, and a bunch of combinations of other prefaces, but I'm running out of ideas, and obviously don't know the right way to do it. My queue's don't have GUIDs, which is also slightly confusing. Whenever I attempt to connect to a remote machine, I get an invalid queue name message. What do I have to do to make this work? Server: class Program { static string _queue = @"\Private$\qim"; static MessageQueue _mq; static readonly object _mqLock = new object(); static void Main(string[] args) { _queue = Dns.GetHostName() + _queue; lock (_mqLock) { if (!MessageQueue.Exists(_queue)) _mq = MessageQueue.Create(_queue); else _mq = new MessageQueue(_queue); } Console.Write("Starting server at {0}:\n\n", _mq.Path); _mq.Formatter = new BinaryMessageFormatter(); _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); while (Console.ReadKey().Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { } _mq.Close(); } static void OnReceive(IAsyncResult result) { Message msg; lock (_mqLock) { try { msg = _mq.EndReceive(result); Console.Write(msg.Body); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write("\n" + ex.Message + "\n"); } } _mq.BeginReceive(new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0), new object(), OnReceive); } } Client: class Program { static MessageQueue _mq; static void Main(string[] args) { string queue; while (_mq == null) { Console.Write("Enter the queue name:\n"); queue = Console.ReadLine(); //queue += @"\Private$\qim"; try { if (MessageQueue.Exists(queue)) _mq = new MessageQueue(queue); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write("\n" + ex.Message + "\n"); _mq = null; } } Console.Write("Connected. Begin typing.\n\n"); _mq.Formatter = new BinaryMessageFormatter(); ConsoleKeyInfo key = new ConsoleKeyInfo(); while (key.Key != ConsoleKey.Escape) { key = Console.ReadKey(); _mq.Send(key.KeyChar.ToString()); } } }

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  • Basic data alignment question

    - by Broken Logic
    I've been playing around to see how my computer works under the hood. What I'm interested in is seeing is what happens on the stack inside a function. To do this I've written the following toy program: #include <stdio.h> void __cdecl Test1(char a, unsigned long long b, char c) { char c1; unsigned long long b1; char a1; c1 = 'b'; b1 = 4; a1 = 'r'; printf("%d %d - %d - %d %d Total: %d\n", (long)&b1 - (long)&a1, (long)&c1 - (long)&b1, (long)&a - (long)&c1, (long)&b - (long)&a, (long)&c - (long)&b, (long)&c - (long)&a1 ); }; struct TestStruct { char a; unsigned long long b; char c; }; void __cdecl Test2(char a, unsigned long long b, char c) { TestStruct locals; locals.a = 'b'; locals.b = 4; locals.c = 'r'; printf("%d %d - %d - %d %d Total: %d\n", (long)&locals.b - (long)&locals.a, (long)&locals.c - (long)&locals.b, (long)&a - (long)&locals.c, (long)&b - (long)&a, (long)&c - (long)&b, (long)&c - (long)&locals.a ); }; int main() { Test1('f', 0, 'o'); Test2('f', 0, 'o'); return 0; } And this spits out the following: 9 19 - 13 - 4 8 Total: 53 8 8 - 24 - 4 8 Total: 52 The function args are well behaved but as the calling convention is specified, I'd expect this. But the local variables are a bit wonky. My question is, why wouldn't these be the same? The second call seems to produce a more compact and better aligned stack. Looking at the ASM is unenlightening (at least to me), as the variable addresses are still aliased there. So I guess this is really a question about the assembler itself allocates the stack to local variables. I realise that any specific answer is likely to be platform specific. I'm more interested in a general explanation unless this quirk really is platform specific. For the record though, I'm compiling with VS2010 on a 64bit Intel machine.

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  • AuthenticationForm - cookie cross site

    - by bit
    I've 2 web site, the first one myFirst.domain.com and the second one mySecondSite.domain.com. They stay on two different web server and my goal is allow a cross site authentication (my real need is shared authenticationForm Cookie). I've correctly setted web config (machine key node, forms node). The only different is about loginUrl where on myFirstSite appears like "~/login.aspx", instead on mySecondSite it appears like "http://myFirstSite.com/login.aspx". Note that I've not a virtual directory, I've just 2 different web apps. The problem: When I reach myFirstSite login page from mySecondSite I never get redirect from login page, it seems like if cookie doesn't being written. The following is a few of snippet about the issue: MyFirsSite: <machineKey validationKey="..." decryptionKey="..." validation="SHA1" decryption="AES" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="login.aspx" name="authCookie" enableCrossAppRedirects="true"></forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> MyFirstSite code behind: FormsAuthenticationTicket fat = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, "userName..", DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(30), true, "roles.."); string ticket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(fat); HttpCookie authCookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, ticket); authCookie.Expires = fat.Expiration; authCookie.Domain = "myDomain.com"; Response.Cookies.Add(authCookie); // here other stuff about querystring checking in order to execute exact redirect, however it's not work, I always return on login page MySecondSite: <machineKey validationKey="..." decryptionKey="..." validation="SHA1" decryption="AES"/> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="http://myFirstSite.domain.com/login.aspx?queryStringToIndicateUrlPage" enableCrossAppRedirects="true"></forms> </authentication> <authorization> Well, that's all. Unfortunately it doesn't works. please, don't pay attention to "queryStringToIndicateUrlPage", it's only simple workaround in order to know whether I must redirect on the same app or on the another one.

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  • How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

    - by kevinegham
    Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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  • How can I run an android frame animation without it skewing?

    - by GameDev123
    I have a small state machine that runs a series of frame by frame animations in an ImageView, in a nested hierarchy of layouts. There is more than adequate space to display each frame of the animation. Each frame of the animation is cropped to fit the minimum amount of area, in order to save memory. If a frame only contains 50x50 worth of pixels then the png is 50x50. There is no transparent padding to keep them the same size. The ImageView is directly within a RelativeLayout, and is anchored to the bottom left with some padding. The general idea being that the character in the animation performs some action, which results in individual frames of the animation growing or shrinking. The issue is that individual frames of animation are skewed, and there does not appear to be any way of preventing this. If I set the source of the imageview directly to one of the frames of animation, it displays fine in the layout manager. I have tried this with Adjust View Bounds set to true, false, and undefined. I have tried using the background and the src attribute of imageview to set the animation drawable, I have tried every configuration of layout manager and setting minimum/maximum size that I can think of, and it still stretches the character on various frames depending on the size of the source png. In essence, all I want to do is say "I want this ImageView to anchor in the bottom left and then display any frame that happens to be in it without stretching or skewing it in any way aside from that which occurred when the frame png's were loaded." Seems simple, but I have yet to come across any way of doing it. Here is the layout of the imageview as of my last test, I had to remove bits of the XML to get it to display but nothing pertinent: RelativeLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_above="@+id/MenuOptions" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:id="@+id/AnimationLayout" android:clipChildren="false" android:minHeight="180dp" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/GameBarLayout" ImageView android:id="@+id/animatedImg" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:visibility="visible" android:baselineAlignBottom="true" android:minHeight="180dp" android:minWidth="200dp" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:paddingLeft="30dp" android:paddingBottom="10dp" android:src="@drawable/idle01"/ImageView /RelativeLayout Here is how an animation is set up: animationDrawable = new AnimationDrawable(); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle01), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle02), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle03), 16);

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