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  • Using depends with the jQuery Validation plugin

    - by Glenn Slaven
    I've got a form with a bunch of textboxes that are disabled by default, then enabled by use of a checkbox next to each one. When enabled, the values in these textboxes are required to be a valid number, but when disabled they don't need a value (obviously). I'm using the jQuery Validation plugin to do this validation, but it doesn't seem to be doing what I expect. When I click the checkbox and disable the textbox, I still get the invalid field error despite the depends clause I've added to the rules (see code below). Oddly, what actually happens is that the error message shows for a split second then goes away. Here is a sample of the list of checkboxes & textboxes: <ul id="ItemList"> <li> <label for="OneSelected">One</label><input id="OneSelected" name="OneSelected" type="checkbox" value="true" /> <input name="OneSelected" type="hidden" value="false" /> <input disabled="disabled" id="OneValue" name="OneValue" type="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="TwoSelected">Two</label><input id="TwoSelected" name="TwoSelected" type="checkbox" value="true" /> <input name="TwoSelected" type="hidden" value="false" /> <input disabled="disabled" id="TwoValue" name="TwoValue" type="text" /> </li> </ul> And here is the jQuery code I'm using //Wire up the click event on the checkbox jQuery('#ItemList :checkbox').click(function(event) { var textBox = jQuery(this).siblings(':text'); textBox.valid(); if (!jQuery(this).attr("checked")) { textBox.attr('disabled', 'disabled'); textBox.val(''); } else { textBox.removeAttr('disabled'); textBox[0].focus(); } }); //Add the rules to each textbox jQuery('#ItemList :text').each(function(e) { jQuery(this).rules('add', { required: { depends: function(element) { return jQuery(element).siblings(':checkbox').attr('checked'); } }, number: { depends: function(element) { return jQuery(element).siblings(':checkbox').attr('checked'); } } }); }); Ignore the hidden field in each li it's there because I'm using asp.net MVC's Html.Checkbox method.

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  • Facebook Connect icon isn't showing up in Internet Explorer

    - by John Duff
    I'm working on a site that is using Facebook Connect and recently made some changes so that the main pages are cached and if you are not logged in (checked with an ajax call) it loads the Facebook Connect javascript and renders the connect button into the page. This works perfectly everywhere except Internet Explorer 7 and 8. The weird part is I render the buttons into a hidden Sign Up / Sign In form and when you show either of those the Connect buttons appear. You can take a look here and you will see the button in Firefox and not Internet Explorer. If you click Sign In the button will show up. This is a Rails app so on the server-side we're responding to an ajax call with rjs like this: page['signin-status'].replace(:partial => "common/layout/signin_menu") page.select('.facebook-connect').each do |value, index| value.replace(render(:partial => '/facebook/signin')) end page << <<-eos LazyLoader.load('http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php', function(){ FB.init('#{Facebooker.api_key}','/xd_receiver.html'); }); eos The first line is replacing the header, the second is the Connect buttons in the Modal dialogs. The partial being rendered into the header looks like this: <span id='signin-status'> <%= fb_login_button(remote_function(:url => "/facebook/connect"))%> | <%= link_to_function "Sign In", "showSignInForm();", :id => "signin" %> | <%= link_to_function "Sign Up", "showSignUpForm();", :id => "signup" %> </span> The Partial being rendered into the Modal dialogs looks like this: <div class='facebook-connect'> <div id="FB_HiddenContainer" style="position:absolute; top:-10000px; width:0px; height:0px;" ></div> <label>Or sign in with your Facebook account</label> <%= fb_login_button(remote_function(:url => "/facebook/connect"))%> </div> I find it very strange that showing the Modal dialog causes all the icons to show. Does anyone have any ideas or suggestions about what's going on?

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  • How to override C# DateTime serialization with class auto-generated from wsdl?

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I have a WSDL that the consumer of my web service expects will be adhered to strictly. I converted it into an interface with wsdl.exe and had my web service implement it. Except for this problem, I have been generally pleased with the results. A simple GetCurrentTime method will have the following response class generated from the WSDL in the interface definition: [System.CodeDobmCompiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("wsdl", "2.0.50727.3038")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.ComponentModel.DesignerCategoryAttribute("code")] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="[Client Namespace]")] public partial class GetCurrentTimeResponse { private System.DateTime timeStampField; [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified] public System.DateTime TimeStamp{ // [accesses timeStampField] } } When I put the response data into the automatically generated response class, it gets serialized into an appropriate XML response. (Most of the web methods have much more complicated return types with multiple levels of arrays.) The problem is that the default serialization of DateTime objects violates one of the requirements in the WSDL: ... <xsd:simpleType name="SearchTimeStamp"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:dateTime"> <xsd:pattern value="[0-9]{4}-[0-9]{2}-[0-9]{2}T[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}(.[0-9]{1,7})?Z"> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> ... Note the last part of the pattern where subseconds must be either 1 or 7 characters if they are included. The client seems to be rejecting the response because it does not match that requirement. The main issue is that when .NET serializes a DateTime object, it omits all trailing zeroes, meaning the resulting subsecond value varies in length. (e.g., "12:34:56.700" gets serialized as "<TimeStamp>12:34:56:7</TimeStamp>" by default). We use millisecond precision, so I need all timestamps to format with 7 subsecond digits in order to be compliant with the WSDL. It would be easy if I could specify a format string, but I'm not sure how to control the string that the DateTime object uses to serialize to XML, or to otherwise override the serialization behavior. How do I do this? Keeping in mind the following... I would like to modify the generated code as little as possible... preferably not at all if the change can be made through a partial class or inherited class. Using an inherited class for the return type of the web method will cause the web service to no longer implement the auto-generated interface. The TimeStamp type occurs in other, more complex response types. So, manually overriding the entire serialization process may be prohibitively time-consuming.

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  • Issues POSTing XML to OAuth and Signature Invalid with Ruby OAuth Gem

    - by thynctank
    [Cross-posted from the OAuth Ruby Google Group. If you couldn't help me there, don't worry bout it] I'm working on integrating a project with TripIt's OAuth API and am running into a weird issue. I authenticate fine, I store and retrieve the token/secret for a given user with no problem, I can even make GET requests to a number of services using the gem. But when I try using the one service I need POST for, I'm getting a 401 "invalid signature" response. Perhaps I'm not understanding how to pass in data to the AccessToken's post method, so here's a sample of my code: xml = <<-XML <Request> <Trip> <start_date>2008-12-09</start_date> <end_date>2008-12-27</end_date> <primary_location>New York, NY</primary_location> </Trip> </Request> XML` response = access_token.post('/v1/create', {:xml => xml}, {'Content-Type' => 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded'}) I've tried this with and without escaping the xml string before hand. The guys at TripIt seemed to think that perhaps the xml param wasn't getting included in the signature_base_string, but when I output that (from lib/signature/base.rb) I see: POST&https%3A%2F%2Fapi.tripit.com%2Fv1%2Fcreate&oauth_consumer_key %3D%26oauth_nonce %3Djs73Y9caeuffpmPVc6lqxhlFN3Qpj7OhLcfBTYv8Ww%26oauth_signature_method %3DHMAC-SHA1%26oauth_timestamp%3D1252011612%26oauth_token %3D%26oauth_version%3D1.0%26xml%3D%25253CRequest%25253E %25250A%252520%252520%25253CTrip%25253E%25250A %252520%252520%252520%252520%25253Cstart_date%25253E2008-12-09%25253C %252Fstart_date%25253E%25250A %252520%252520%252520%252520%25253Cend_date%25253E2008-12-27%25253C %252Fend_date%25253E%25250A %252520%252520%252520%252520%25253Cprimary_location%25253ENew %252520York%252C%252520NY%25253C%252Fprimary_location%25253E%25250A %252520%252520%25253C%252FTrip%25253E%25250A%25253C%252FRequest%25253E %25250A This seems to be correct to me. I output signature (from the same file) and the output doesn't match the oauth_signature param of the Auth header in lib/client/ net_http.rb. It's been URL-encoded in the auth header. Is this correct? Anyone know if the gem is broken/if there's a fix somewhere? I'm finding it hard to trace through some of the code.

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  • Spring Security - Persistent Remember Me Issue

    - by Taylor L
    I've been trying to track down why Spring Security isn't creating the Spring Security remember me cookie (SPRING_SECURITY_REMEMBER_ME_COOKIE). At first glance, the logs make it seem like the login is failing, but the login is actually successful in the sense that if I navigate to a page that requires authentication I am not redirected back to the login page. However, the logs appear to be saying the login credentials are invalid. I'm using Spring 3.0.1, Spring Security 3.0.1, and Google App Engine 1.3.1. Any ideas as to what is going on? Mar 16, 2010 10:05:56 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.PersistentTokenBasedRememberMeServices onLoginSuccess FINE: Creating new persistent login for user [email protected] Mar 16, 2010 10:10:07 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.AbstractRememberMeServices loginFail FINE: Interactive login attempt was unsuccessful. Mar 16, 2010 10:10:07 AM org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.AbstractRememberMeServices cancelCookie FINE: Cancelling cookie Below is the relevant portion of the applicationContext-security.xml. <http auto-config="false"> <intercept-url pattern="/css/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/img/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/js/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/admin/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/login/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/register/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/app/error/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="ROLE_USER" /> <logout logout-success-url="/" /> <form-login login-page="/app/login" default-target-url="/" authentication-failure-url="/app/login?login_error=1" /> <session-management invalid-session-url="/app/login" /> <remember-me services-ref="rememberMeServices" key="myKey" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider user-service-ref="userDetailsService"> <password-encoder hash="sha-256" base64="true"> <salt-source user-property="username" /> </password-encoder> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> <beans:bean id="userDetailsService" class="com.my.service.auth.UserDetailsServiceImpl" /> <beans:bean id="rememberMeServices" class="org.springframework.security.web.authentication.rememberme.PersistentTokenBasedRememberMeServices"> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="userDetailsService" /> <beans:property name="tokenRepository" ref="persistentTokenRepository" /> <beans:property name="key" value="myKey" /> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="persistentTokenRepository" class="com.my.service.auth.PersistentTokenRepositoryImpl" />

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  • Html.EditorFor not updating model on post

    - by Dave
    I have a complex type composed of two nullable DateTimes: public class Period { public DateTime? Start { get; set; } public DateTime? End { get; set; } public static implicit operator string(Period period) { /* converts from Period to string */ } public static implicit operator Period(string value) { /* and back again */ } } I want to display them together in a single textbox as a date range so I can provide a nice jQuery UI date range selector. To make that happen have the following custom editor template: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<Period>" %> <% string name = ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix; %> <%= Html.PeriodTextBox(name, Model.EarliestDate, Model.LatestDate) %> Where Html.PeriodTextBox is an extension method I've written that just concatenates the two dates sensibly, turns off autocomplete and generates a textbox, like so: public static MvcHelperString PeriodTextBox(this HtmlHelper helper, string name, DateTime? startDate, DateTime? endDate) { TagBuilder builder = new TagBuilder("input"); builder.GenerateId(name); builder.Attributes.Add("name", name); builder.Attributes.Add("type", "text"); builder.Attributes.Add("autocomplete", "off"); builder.Attributes.Add("value", ConcatDates(startDate, endDate)); return MvcHtmlString.Create(builder.ToString()); } That's working fine in that I can call <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.ReportPeriod) %> and I get my textbox, then when the form is submitted the FormCollection passed to the post action will contain an entry named ReportPeriod with the correct value. [HttpPost] public ActionResult ReportByRange(FormCollection formValues) { Period reportPeriod = formValues["ReportPeriod"]; // creates a Period, with the expected values } The problem is if I replace the FormCollection with the model type I'm passing to the view then the ReportPeriod property never gets set. [HttpPost] public ActionResult ReportByRange(ReportViewModel viewModel) { Period reportPeriod = viewModel.ReportPeriod; // this is null } I expected MVC would try to set the string from the textbox to that property and it would automatically generate a Period (as in my FormCollection example), but it's not. How do I tell the textbox I've generated in the custom editor to poplate that property on the model?

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  • IF adding new Entity gives error me : EntityCommandCompilationException was unhandled bu user code

    - by programmerist
    i have 5 tables in started projects. if i adds new table (Urun enttiy) writing below codes: project.BAL : public static List<Urun> GetUrun() { using (GenoTipSatisEntities genSatisUrunCtx = new GenoTipSatisEntities()) { ObjectQuery<Urun> urun = genSatisUrunCtx.Urun; return urun.ToList(); } } if i receive data form BAL in UI.aspx: using project.BAL; namespace GenoTip.Web.ContentPages.Satis { public partial class SatisUrun : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { FillUrun(); } } void FillUrun() { ddlUrun.DataSource = SatisServices.GetUrun(); ddlUrun.DataValueField = "ID"; ddlUrun.DataTextField = "Ad"; ddlUrun.DataBind(); } } } i added URun later. error appears ToList method: EntityCommandCompilationException was unhandled bu user code error Detail: Error 1 Error 3007: Problem in Mapping Fragments starting at lines 659, 873: Non-Primary-Key column(s) [UrunID] are being mapped in both fragments to different conceptual side properties - data inconsistency is possible because the corresponding conceptual side properties can be independently modified. C:\Users\pc\Desktop\GenoTip.Satis\GenoTip.DAL\ModelSatis.edmx 660 15 GenoTip.DAL Error 2 Error 3012: Problem in Mapping Fragments starting at lines 659, 873: Data loss is possible in FaturaDetay.UrunID. An Entity with Key (PK) will not round-trip when: (PK does NOT play Role 'FaturaDetay' in AssociationSet 'FK_FaturaDetay_Urun' AND PK is in 'FaturaDetay' EntitySet) C:\Users\pc\Desktop\GenoTip.Satis\GenoTip.DAL\ModelSatis.edmx 874 11 GenoTip.DAL Error 3 Error 3012: Problem in Mapping Fragments starting at lines 659, 873: Data loss is possible in FaturaDetay.UrunID. An Entity with Key (PK) will not round-trip when: (PK is in 'FaturaDetay' EntitySet AND PK does NOT play Role 'FaturaDetay' in AssociationSet 'FK_FaturaDetay_Urun' AND Entity.UrunID is not NULL) C:\Users\pc\Desktop\GenoTip.Satis\GenoTip.DAL\ModelSatis.edmx 660 15 GenoTip.DAL Error 4 Error 3007: Problem in Mapping Fragments starting at lines 748, 879: Non-Primary-Key column(s) [UrunID] are being mapped in both fragments to different conceptual side properties - data inconsistency is possible because the corresponding conceptual side properties can be independently modified. C:\Users\pc\Desktop\GenoTip.Satis\GenoTip.DAL\ModelSatis.edmx 749 15 GenoTip.DAL Error 5 Error 3012: Problem in Mapping Fragments starting at lines 748, 879: Data loss is possible in Satis.UrunID. An Entity with Key (PK) will not round-trip when: (PK does NOT play Role 'Satis' in AssociationSet 'FK_Satis_Urun' AND PK is in 'Satis' EntitySet) C:\Users\pc\Desktop\GenoTip.Satis\GenoTip.DAL\ModelSatis.edmx 880 11 GenoTip.DAL Error 6 Error 3012: Problem in Mapping Fragments starting at lines 748, 879: Data loss is possible in Satis.UrunID. An Entity with Key (PK) will not round-trip when: (PK is in 'Satis' EntitySet AND PK does NOT play Role 'Satis' in AssociationSet 'FK_Satis_Urun' AND Entity.UrunID is not NULL) C:\Users\pc\Desktop\GenoTip.Satis\GenoTip.DAL\ModelSatis.edmx 749 15 GenoTip.DAL

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  • SSRS Report from Oracle DB - Use stored procedure

    - by Emtucifor
    I am developing a report in Sql Server Reporting Services 2005, connecting to an Oracle 11g database. As you post replies perhaps it will help to know that I'm skilled in MSSQL Server and inexperienced in Oracle. I have multiple nested subreports and need to use summary data in outer reports and the same data but in detail in the inner reports. In order to spare the DB server from multiple executions, I thought to populate some temp tables at the beginning and then query just them the multiple times in the report and the subreports. In SSRS, Datasets are evidently executed in the order they appear in the RDL file. And you can have a dataset that doesn't return a rowset. So I created a stored procedure to populate my four temp tables and made this the first Dataset in my report. This SP works when I run it from SQLDeveloper and I can query the data from the temp tables. However, this didn't appear to work out because SSRS was apparently not reusing the same session, so even though the global temporary tables were created with ON COMMIT PRESERVE ROWS my Datasets were empty. I switched to using "real" tables and am now passing in an additional parameter, a GUID in string form, uniquely generated on each new execution, that is part of the primary key of each table, so I can get back just the rows for this execution. Running this from Sql Developer works fine, example: DECLARE ActivityCode varchar2(15) := '1208-0916 '; ExecutionID varchar2(32) := SYS_GUID(); BEGIN CIPProjectBudget (ActivityCode, ExecutionID); END; Never mind that in this example I don't know the GUID, this simply proves it works because rows are inserted to my four tables. But in the SSRS report, I'm still getting no rows in my Datasets and SQL Developer confirms no rows are being inserted. So I'm thinking along the lines of: Oracle uses implicit transactions and my changes aren't getting committed? Even though I can prove that the non-rowset returning SP is executing (because if I leave out the parameter mapping it complains at report rendering time about not having enough parameters) perhaps it's not really executing. Somehow. Wrong execution order isn't the problem or rows would appear in the tables, and they aren't. I'm interested in any ideas about how to accomplish this (especially the part about not running the main queries multiple times). I'll redesign my whole report. I'll stop using a stored procedure. Suggest anything you like! I just need help getting this working and I am stuck. If you want more details, in my SSRS report I have a List object (it's a container that repeats once for each row in a Dataset) that has some header values and then contains a subreport. Eventually, there will be four total reports: one main report, with three nested subreports. Each subreport will be in a List on the parent report.

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  • InteropServices COMException when executing a .net app from a web CGI script on Windows Server 2003

    - by Kurt W. Leucht
    Disclaimer: I'm completely clueless about .net and COM. I have a vendor's application that appears to be written in .net and I'm trying to wrap it with a web form (a cgi-bin Perl script) so I can eventually launch this vendor's app from a separate computer. I'm on a Windows Server 2003 R2 SE SP1 system and I'm using Apache 2.2 for the web server and ActivePerl 5.10.0.1004 for the cgi script. My cgi script calls the vendor's app that resides on the same machine using the Perl backtick operator. ... $result = "Result: " . `$vendorsPath/$vendorsExecutable $arg1 $arg2`; ... Right now I'm just running IE web browser locally on the server machine and accessing "http://localhost/cgi-bin/myPerlScript.pl". The vendor's app fails and logs a debug message that includes the following stack trace (I changed a couple names so as to not give away the vendor's identity): ... System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. ---> System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80043A1D): 0x80040154 - Class not registered --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.RuntimeType.InvokeDispMethod(String name, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Object target, Object[] args, Boolean[] byrefModifiers, Int32 culture, String[] namedParameters) at System.RuntimeType.InvokeMember(String name, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object target, Object[] args, ParameterModifier[] modifiers, CultureInfo culture, String[] namedParameters) at VendorsTool.Engine.Core.VendorsEngine.LoadVendorsServices(String fileName, String& projectCommPath) ... When I run the vendors app from the Windows command line on the server machine with the exact same arguments that the cgi script is passing it runs just fine, so there's something about invoking their app via the web script that is causing a problem. This problem is likely security related because the whole thing runs just fine on a Windows XP Pro machine (both command line and web invocation). I actually developed my web script there and got it completely working there before I tried moving it to the Windows Server 2003 machine. So what's different about the Windows Server 2003 machine that would keep the vendor's .net app from being executed successfully by a web cgi script? Can I fix this problem somehow to make it work on my server or will the vendor have to make a change to their .net app and ship out a new version? I'm probably the only person in the world who is trying to execute this vendor's app from a separate program, so I hate to bother the vendor with the issue if there's a workaround that I can implement myself here on my server machine. Plus, I'm in kind of a hurry and I don't want to wait 4 or 6 months for the vendor to put in a fix and deploy a new version. Thanks for any advise you can give.

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  • Drawing a TextBox in an extended Glass Frame (C# w/o WPF)

    - by Lazlo
    I am trying to draw a TextBox on the extended glass frame of my form. I won't describe this technique, it's well-known. Here's an example for those who haven't heard of it: http://www.danielmoth.com/Blog/Vista-Glass-In-C.aspx The thing is, it is complex to draw over this glass frame. Since black is considered to be the 0-alpha color, anything black disappears. There are apparently ways of countering this problem: drawing complex GDI+ shapes are not affected by this alpha-ness. For example, this code can be used to draw a Label on glass (note: GraphicsPath is used instead of DrawString in order to get around the horrible ClearType problem): public class GlassLabel : Control { public GlassLabel() { this.BackColor = Color.Black; } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { GraphicsPath font = new GraphicsPath(); font.AddString( this.Text, this.Font.FontFamily, (int)this.Font.Style, this.Font.Size, Point.Empty, StringFormat.GenericDefault); e.Graphics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighQuality; e.Graphics.FillPath(new SolidBrush(this.ForeColor), font); } } Similarly, such an approach can be used to create a container on the glass area. Note the use of the polygons instead of the rectangle - when using the rectangle, its black parts are considered as alpha. public class GlassPanel : Panel { public GlassPanel() { this.BackColor = Color.Black; } protected override void OnPaint(PaintEventArgs e) { Point[] area = new Point[] { new Point(0, 1), new Point(1, 0), new Point(this.Width - 2, 0), new Point(this.Width - 1, 1), new Point(this.Width -1, this.Height - 2), new Point(this.Width -2, this.Height-1), new Point(1, this.Height -1), new Point(0, this.Height - 2) }; Point[] inArea = new Point[] { new Point(1, 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, this.Height - 1), new Point(this.Width - 1, this.Height - 1), new Point(1, this.Height - 1) }; e.Graphics.FillPolygon(new SolidBrush(Color.FromArgb(240, 240, 240)), inArea); e.Graphics.DrawPolygon(new Pen(Color.FromArgb(55, 0, 0, 0)), area); base.OnPaint(e); } } Now my problem is: How can I draw a TextBox? After lots of Googling, I came up with the following solutions: Subclassing the TextBox's OnPaint method. This is possible, although I could not get it to work properly. It should involve painting some magic things I don't know how to do yet. Making my own custom TextBox, perhaps on a TextBoxBase. If anyone has good, valid and working examples, and thinks this could be a good overall solution, please tell me. Using BufferedPaintSetAlpha. (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms649805.aspx). The downsides of this method may be that the corners of the textbox might look odd, but I can live with that. If anyone knows how to implement that method properly from a Graphics object, please tell me. I personally don't, but this seems the best solution so far. Thanks!

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  • Asp.Net MVC EnableClientValidation doesnt work.

    - by Farrell
    I want as well as Client Side Validation as Server Side Validation. I realized this as the following: Model: ( The model has a DataModel(dbml) which contains the Test class ) namespace MyProject.TestProject { [MetadataType(typeof(TestMetaData))] public partial class Test { } public class TestMetaData { [Required(ErrorMessage="Please enter a name.")] [StringLength(50)] public string Name { get; set; } } } Controller is nothing special. The View: <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); %> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Index", "Test", FormMethod.Post, new AjaxOptions {}, new { enctype = "multipart/form-data" })) {%> <%= Html.AntiForgeryToken()%> <fieldset> <legend>Widget Omschrijving</legend> <div> <%= Html.LabelFor(Model => Model.Name) %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Model => Model.Name) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Model => Model.Name) %> </div> </fieldset> <div> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </div> <% } %> To make this all work I added also references to js files: <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> Eventually it has to work, but it doesnt work 100%: It does validates with no page refresh after pressing the button. It also does "half" Client Side Validation. Only when you type some text into the textbox and then backspace the typed text. The Client Side Validation appears. But when I try this by tapping between controls there's no Client Side Validation. Do I miss some reference or something? (I use Asp.Net MVC 2 RTM)

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  • C# MP3 Player using winmm.dll

    - by JoeBeez
    I'm trying to bash together a (very) rough MP3 player during my lunch hour, and so far I've got it to play the files, and I'm working on a way of building a list of filenames to enable random songs, but I think I've just hit a snag. Is there a way of knowing when the currently playing MP3 has finished? An event or some such? As it stands I don't think I'd be able to have playlists etc unless this was possible due to it stopping after every playback. I've attatched the whole source below, feel free to pick it apart and give me any feedback you may have, cheers. using System; using System.IO; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace X { public partial class Form1 : Form { List<string> Names = new List<string>(); StreamReader reader = File.OpenText(@"C:\X.txt"); string line; OpenFileDialog ofd = new OpenFileDialog(); StringBuilder buffer = new StringBuilder(128); string CommandString; [DllImport("winmm.dll")] private static extern long mciSendString(string lpstrCommand, StringBuilder lpstrReturnString, int uReturnLength, int hwndCallback); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); while ((line = reader.ReadLine()) != null) { if (line.Trim() != "") { Names.Add(line.Trim()); } } } private void btnplay_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ofd.FileName == "") { if (ofd.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { ofd.Filter = "MP3 Files|*.mp3"; CommandString = "open " + "\"" + ofd.FileName + "\"" + " type MPEGVideo alias Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); CommandString = "play Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } else { CommandString = "play Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } private void btnpause_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CommandString = "pause mp3file"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } private void btnbrowse_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { ofd.Filter = "Mp3 files |*.mp3"; if (ofd.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { txtpath.Text = ofd.FileName; CommandString = "close Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); CommandString = "open " + "\"" + ofd.FileName + "\"" + " type MPEGVideo alias Mp3File"; mciSendString(CommandString, null, 0, 0); } } } }

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  • How to avoid open-redirect vulnerability and safely redirect on successful login (HINT: ASP.NET MVC

    - by Brad B.
    Normally, when a site requires that you are logged in before you can access a certain page, you are taken to the login screen and after successfully authenticating yourself, you are redirected back to the originally requested page. This is great for usability - but without careful scrutiny, this feature can easily become an open redirect vulnerability. Sadly, for an example of this vulnerability, look no further than the default LogOn action provided by ASP.NET MVC 2: [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOn(LogOnModel model, string returnUrl) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ValidateUser(model.UserName, model.Password)) { FormsService.SignIn(model.UserName, model.RememberMe); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(returnUrl)) { return Redirect(returnUrl); // open redirect vulnerability HERE } else { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "User name or password incorrect..."); } } return View(model); } If a user is successfully authenticated, they are redirected to "returnUrl" (if it was provided via the login form submission). Here is a simple example attack (one of many, actually) that exploits this vulnerability: Attacker, pretending to be victim's bank, sends an email to victim containing a link, like this: http://www.mybank.com/logon?returnUrl=http://www.badsite.com Having been taught to verify the ENTIRE domain name (e.g., google.com = GOOD, google.com.as31x.example.com = BAD), the victim knows the link is OK - there isn't any tricky sub-domain phishing going on. The victim clicks the link, sees their actual familiar banking website and is asked to logon Victim logs on and is subsequently redirected to http://www.badsite.com which is made to look exactly like victim's bank's website, so victim doesn't know he is now on a different site. http://www.badsite.com says something like "We need to update our records - please type in some extremely personal information below: [ssn], [address], [phone number], etc." Victim, still thinking he is on his banking website, falls for the ploy and provides attacker with the information Any ideas on how to maintain this redirect-on-successful-login functionality yet avoid the open-redirect vulnerability? I'm leaning toward the option of splitting the "returnUrl" parameter into controller/action parts and use "RedirectToRouteResult" instead of simply "Redirect". Does this approach open any new vulnerabilities? Side note: I know this open-redirect may not seem to be a big deal compared to the likes of XSS and CSRF, but us developers are the only thing protecting our customers from the bad guys - anything we can do to make the bad guys' job harder is a win in my book. Thanks, Brad

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  • DataBinding: 'System.String' does not contain a property with the name 'dbMake'.

    - by marcmiki
    Hi , i am a newbie at ASP.net and after using sqldatasource with a listview to insert and show results from an SQL server db i want to try using the LINQ datasource since it seems to be more flexible in codebehind. My problem is this: i droped a listview control to the page and i created the Linq datasource in codebehind with vb. the issue that i am having when i ..Select d.columms name i get the error system.string does not contain a property with the name "columname".. if i ommit the column name then its works fine.. the funny part is the d.count works fine but after that i get the error.. please see my code below: vb code Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim rowsCount As Integer Dim showSearchForm As String showSearchForm = Request.QueryString("tab") If showSearchForm = "1" Then Dim db As New ASPNETDBDataContext() Dim q = From b In db.PassengerVehiclesTables Select b.dbMake rowsCount = q.Count MsgBox(rowsCount) lvMakes.DataSource = q lvMakes.DataBind() PnlPassengerVehiclesSearch.Visible = True ElseIf showSearchForm = "2" Then aspx code <asp:Panel ID="PnlPassengerVehiclesSearch" Visible="false" runat="server"> Search Passenger Vehicles Form.....<br /> <table style="width: 100%; border-style: solid; border-width: 1px"> <tr> <td> <asp:ListView ID="lvMakes" runat="server"> <LayoutTemplate> <asp:PlaceHolder runat="server" ID="itemPlaceholder" /> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <%#Eval("dbMake")%><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> </td> b.dbMake needs to work so that i can use Distinct ,, ia m using asp.net version:3.5 and IIS version 7.0 .. not sure what i am missing ,, but i did try alot of approaches,,1- checked the web.config file and it seems to have two assemblies and two namespaces for LINQ..2- used different databinding syntaxs,,and i searched a lot for the solution.. the last one i read the person ommited the name of the column,, i thought that wasnt the best solution.. also my dbMake column is comming up in the "intellisence" .. thank you in advance for your help..

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  • How to send messages between c++ .dll and C# app using named pipe?

    - by Gal
    I'm making an injected .dll written in C++, and I want to communicate with a C# app using named pipes. Now, I am using the built in System.IO.Pipe .net classes in the C# app, and I'm using the regular functions in C++. I don't have much experience in C++ (Read: This is my first C++ code..), tho I'm experienced in C#. It seems that the connection with the server and the client is working, the only problem is the messaged aren't being send. I tried making the .dll the server, the C# app the server, making the pipe direction InOut (duplex) but none seems to work. When I tried to make the .dll the server, which sends messages to the C# app, the code I used was like this: DWORD ServerCreate() // function to create the server and wait till it successfully creates it to return. { hPipe = CreateNamedPipe(pipename,//The unique pipe name. This string must have the following form: \\.\pipe\pipename PIPE_ACCESS_DUPLEX, PIPE_TYPE_MESSAGE | PIPE_READMODE_MESSAGE | PIPE_NOWAIT, //write and read and return right away PIPE_UNLIMITED_INSTANCES,//The maximum number of instances that can be created for this pipe 4096 , // output time-out 4096 , // input time-out 0,//client time-out NULL); if(hPipe== INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE) { return 1;//failed } else return 0;//success } void SendMsg(string msg) { DWORD cbWritten; WriteFile(hPipe,msg.c_str(), msg.length()+1, &cbWritten,NULL); } void ProccesingPipeInstance() { while(ServerCreate() == 1)//if failed { Sleep(1000); } //if created success, wait to connect ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL); for(;;) { SendMsg("HI!"); if( ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL)==0) if(GetLastError()==ERROR_NO_DATA) { DebugPrintA("previous closed,ERROR_NO_DATA"); DisconnectNamedPipe(hPipe); ConnectNamedPipe(hPipe, NULL); } Sleep(1000); } And the C# cliend like this: static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("Hello!"); using (var pipe = new NamedPipeClientStream(".", "HyprPipe", PipeDirection.In)) { Console.WriteLine("Created Client!"); Console.Write("Connecting to pipe server in the .dll ..."); pipe.Connect(); Console.WriteLine("DONE!"); using (var pr = new StreamReader(pipe)) { string t; while ((t = pr.ReadLine()) != null) { Console.WriteLine("Message: {0}",t); } } } } I see that the C# client connected to the .dll, but it won't receive any message.. I tried doing it the other way around, as I said before, and trying to make the C# send messages to the .dll, which would show them in a message box. The .dll was injected and connected to the C# server, but when It received a message it just crashed the application it was injected to. Please help me, or guide me on how to use named pipes between C++ and C# app

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 loading partial view using jQuery - no client side validation

    - by brainnovative
    I am using jQuery.load() to render a partial view. This part looks like this: $('#sizeAddHolder').load( '/MyController/MyAction', function () { ... }); The code for actions in my controller is the following: public ActionResult MyAction(byte id) { var model = new MyModel { ObjectProp1 = "Some text" }; return View(model); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult MyAction(byte id, FormCollection form) { // TODO: DB insert logic goes here var result = ...; return Json(result); } I am returning a partial view that looks something like this: <% using (Html.BeginForm("MyAction", "MyController")) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <h3>Create my object</h3> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.ObjectProp1) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Size.ObjectProp1) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ObjectProp1) %> </div> div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.ObjectProp2) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ObjectProp2) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ObjectProp2) %> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> Client side validation does not work in this case. What is more the script that contains validation messages also isn't included in the view that's returned. Both properties in my model class have Required and StringLength attributes. Is there any way to trigger client side validation in a view which has been loaded like this?

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  • Compare NSArray with NSMutableArray adding delta objects to NSMutableArray

    - by Hooligancat
    I have an NSMutableArray that is populated with objects of strings. For simplicity sake we'll say that the objects are a person and each person object contains information about that person. Thus I would have an NSMutableArray that is populated with person objects: person.firstName person.lastName person.age person.height And so on. The initial source of data comes from a web server and is populated when my application loads and completes it's initialization with the server. Periodically my application polls the server for the latest list of names. Currently I am creating an NSArray of the result set, emptying the NSMutableArray and then re-populating the NSMutableArray with NSArray results before destroying the NSArray object. This seems inefficient to me on a few levels and also presents me with a problem losing table row references which I can work around, but might be creating more work for myself in doing so. The inefficiency seems to be that I should be able to compare the two arrays and end up with a filtered NSArray. I could then add the filtered set to the NSMutableArray. This would mean that I can simply append new data to the NSMutableArray instead of throwing everything out and re-populating. Conversely I would need to do the same filter in reverse to see if there are records that need removing from the NSMutableArray. Is there any method to do this in a more efficient manner? Have I overlooked something in the docs some place that refers to a simpler technique? I have a problem when I empty the NSMutableArray and re-populate in that any referencing tables lose their selected row state. I can track it and re-select it, but my theory is that using some form of compare and adding objects and removing objects instead of dealing with the whole array in one block might mean I keep my row reference (assuming the item isn't deleted of course). Any suggestions or help much appreciated. Update Would it be just as fast to do a fast enumeration over each comparing each line item as I go? It seems like an expensive operation, but with the last fast enumeration code it might be pretty efficient...

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  • Dataform fields won't appear

    - by dsetton
    Hello! I am trying to learn how to use the Silverlight 3 DataForm control, because I need to define the DataForm fields myself in the XAML code, that is, I don't want to use the AutoGenerateFields property. My problem is: the dataform works perfectly when the AutoGenerateFields is set to true, but when I create a DataForm and set the fields manually and run the application, all I get is an empty blank rectangle where my form and its fields should be. I created a blank Silverligh Navigation Application to test this, and below is the code of the Home.xaml page: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <StackPanel> <!-- This doesn't work. It renders a blank rectangle --> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm x:Name="DataForm"> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm.EditTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel dataFormToolkit:DataField.IsFieldGroup="True"> <dataFormToolkit:DataField> <TextBox Text="Test1" /> </dataFormToolkit:DataField> <dataFormToolkit:DataField> <TextBox Text="Test2" /> </dataFormToolkit:DataField> <dataFormToolkit:DataField> <TextBox Text="Test3" /> </dataFormToolkit:DataField> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </dataFormToolkit:DataForm.EditTemplate> </dataFormToolkit:DataForm> <!-- This works. --> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm x:Name="DataForm2"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> To make the second DataForm work, I simply created a Person class, and put the following in Home.xaml.cs: protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { Person client = new Person { Age = 10, DateOfBirth = new DateTime(1980, 10, 20), FirstName = "John", LastName = "Doe" }; DataForm2.CurrentItem = client; } You can see what happens when I run the application in the following link: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/1946004/image.PNG (I don't have enough points to post images, so...) Does anyone know what's wrong? Thank you in advance.

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  • Django: What's an awesome plugin to maintain images in the admin?

    - by meder
    I have an articles entry model and I have an excerpt and description field. If a user wants to post an image then I have a separate ImageField which has the default standard file browser. I've tried using django-filebrowser but I don't like the fact that it requires django-grappelli nor do I necessarily want a flash upload utility - can anyone recommend a tool where I can manage image uploads, and basically replace the file browse provided by django with an imagepicking browser? In the future I'd probably want it to handle image resizing and specify default image sizes for certain article types. Edit: I'm trying out adminfiles now but I'm having issues installing it. I grabbed it and added it to my python path, added it to INSTALLED_APPS, created the databases for it, uploaded an image. I followed the instructions to modify my Model to specify adminfiles_fields and registered but it's not applying in my admin, here's my admin.py for articles: from django.contrib import admin from django import forms from articles.models import Category, Entry from tinymce.widgets import TinyMCE from adminfiles.admin import FilePickerAdmin class EntryForm( forms.ModelForm ): class Media: js = ['/media/tinymce/tiny_mce.js', '/media/tinymce/load.js']#, '/media/admin/filebrowser/js/TinyMCEAdmin.js'] class Meta: model = Entry class CategoryAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): prepopulated_fields = { 'slug': ['title'] } class EntryAdmin( FilePickerAdmin ): adminfiles_fields = ('excerpt',) prepopulated_fields = { 'slug': ['title'] } form = EntryForm admin.site.register( Category, CategoryAdmin ) admin.site.register( Entry, EntryAdmin ) Here's my Entry model: class Entry( models.Model ): LIVE_STATUS = 1 DRAFT_STATUS = 2 HIDDEN_STATUS = 3 STATUS_CHOICES = ( ( LIVE_STATUS, 'Live' ), ( DRAFT_STATUS, 'Draft' ), ( HIDDEN_STATUS, 'Hidden' ), ) status = models.IntegerField( choices=STATUS_CHOICES, default=LIVE_STATUS ) tags = TagField() categories = models.ManyToManyField( Category ) title = models.CharField( max_length=250 ) excerpt = models.TextField( blank=True ) excerpt_html = models.TextField(editable=False, blank=True) body_html = models.TextField( editable=False, blank=True ) article_image = models.ImageField(blank=True, upload_to='upload') body = models.TextField() enable_comments = models.BooleanField(default=True) pub_date = models.DateTimeField(default=datetime.datetime.now) slug = models.SlugField(unique_for_date='pub_date') author = models.ForeignKey(User) featured = models.BooleanField(default=False) def save( self, force_insert=False, force_update= False): self.body_html = markdown(self.body) if self.excerpt: self.excerpt_html = markdown( self.excerpt ) super( Entry, self ).save( force_insert, force_update ) class Meta: ordering = ['-pub_date'] verbose_name_plural = "Entries" def __unicode__(self): return self.title Edit #2: To clarify I did move the media files to my media path and they are indeed rendering the image area, I can upload fine, the <<<image>>> tag is inserted into my editable MarkItUp w/ Markdown area but it isn't rendering in the MarkItUp preview - perhaps I just need to apply the |upload_tags into that preview. I'll try adding it to my template which posts the article as well.

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  • Why is drawing to OnPaint graphics faster than image graphics?

    - by Tesserex
    I'm looking for a way to speed up the drawing of my game engine, which is currently the significant bottleneck, and is causing slowdowns. I'm on the verge of converting it over to XNA, but I just noticed something. Say I have a small image that I've loaded. Image img = Image.FromFile("mypict.png"); We have a picturebox on the screen we want to draw on. So we have a handler. pictureBox1.Paint += new PaintEventHandler(pictureBox1_Paint); I want our loaded image to be tiled on the picturebox (this is for a game, after all). Why on earth is this code: void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { for (int y = 0; y < 16; y++) for (int x = 0; x < 16; x++) e.Graphics.DrawImage(image, x * 16, y * 16, 16, 16); } over 25 TIMES FASTER than this code: Image buff = new Bitmap(256, 256, PixelFormat.Format32bppPArgb); // actually a form member void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { using (Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(buff)) { for (int y = 0; y < 16; y++) for (int x = 0; x < 16; x++) g.DrawImage(image, x * 16, y * 16, 16, 16); } e.Graphics.DrawImage(buff, 0, 0, 256, 256); } To eliminate the obvious, I've tried commenting out the last e.Graphics.DrawImage (which means I don't see anything, but it gets rid a call that isn't in the first example). I've also left in the using block (needlessly) in the first example, but it's still just as blazingly fast. I've set properties of g to match e.Graphics - things like InterpolationMode, CompositingQuality, etc, but nothing I do bridges this incredible gap in performance. I can't find any difference between the two Graphics objects. What gives? My test with a System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch says that the first code snippet runs at about 7100 fps, while the second runs at a measly 280 fps. My reference image is VS2010ImageLibrary\Objects\png_format\WinVista\SecurityLock.png, which is 48x48 px, and which I modified to be 72 dpi instead of 96, but those made no difference either.

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  • Microsoft ODBC driver for Oracle Syntax error or access violation (-2147217900)

    - by Jan
    I have a large VB program that connects to Oracle database. strCn = "Driver={Microsoft ODBC for Oracle};" & _ "SERVER=PSPROD;" Set Cn = New ADODB.Connection Cn.ConnectionString = strCn Cn.CursorLocation = adUseNone Cn.Open There are many users of my program so I have a table that contains each user's login name and their access rights to the various tables. I create a recordset of all users when the program is started and then select USERNAME and GRANTED_ROLE from the record set where USERNAME and PASSWORD are found. I use a "Set role 'GRANTED_ROLE' identified by 'password'" statment and Cn.Execute statement to set up the user's access rights. This is all done in a Module. On a form, I want to call a Stored Procedure that will SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE information into another schema's tables. I am able to call and run the stored procedure when I create a new connection to the database with this code: Dim cmd5040 As ADODB.Command Dim conn5040 As ADODB.Connection Dim param5040 As ADODB.Parameter Set conn5040 = New ADODB.Connection conn5040 = "Driver={Microsoft ODBC for Oracle};" & _ "SERVER=PSPROD; UID=XXXXXXX; PWD=XXXXXXXX" conn5040.Open Set cmd5040 = New ADODB.Command With cmd5040 .ActiveConnection = conn5040 .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "S4115040_IMPORT_NEWBIDITEMSPES.S4115040_CheckTime" .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter(, adInteger, adParamInputOutput, 5) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter(, adVarChar, adParamInputOutput, 400) End With cmd5040(0) = 0 cmd5040(1) = "" cmd5040.CommandTimeout = 300 cmd5040.Execute conn5040.Close However, I get the error message "-2147217900 [Microsoft][ODCB driver for Oracle]Syntax error or access violation" when I attempt to use the same connection ('Cn') when the program first started. My code is: Dim cmd5040 As ADODB.Command Dim param5040 As ADODB.Parameter Set cmd5040 = New ADODB.Command With cmd5040 .ActiveConnection = Cn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "S4115040_IMPORT_NEWBIDITEMSPES.S4115040_CheckTime" .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter(, adInteger, adParamInputOutput, 5) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter(, adVarChar, adParamInputOutput, 400) End With cmd5040(0) = 0 cmd5040(1) = "" cmd5040.Execute I have worked with my DBA. She has given me direct grants and direct execute privliges and I am still get the error message. What am I doing wrong? Should I be able to use the original connection to run a stored procedure? Or must I create a second connection?

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  • IIS7 MVC deploy - 404 not found on actions that accept "id" parameter.

    - by majkinetor
    Hello. Once deployed parts of my web-application stop working. Index-es on each controller do work, and one form posting via Ajax, Login works too. Other then that yields 404. I understand that nothing particular should be done in integrated mode. I don't know how to proceed with troubleshooting. Some info: App is using default app pool set to integrated mode. WebApp is done in net framework 3.5. I use default routing model. Along web.config in root there is web.config in /View folder referencing HttpNotFoundHandler. OS is Windows Server 2008. Admins issued aspnet_regiis.exe -i IIS 7 Any help is appreciated. Thx. EDIT: I determined that only actions that accept ID parameter don't work. On the contrary, when I add dummy id method in Home controller of default MVC app it works. My Views/Web.config <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add path="*" verb="*" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </httpHandlers> <!-- Enabling request validation in view pages would cause validation to occur after the input has already been processed by the controller. By default MVC performs request validation before a controller processes the input. To change this behavior apply the ValidateInputAttribute to a controller or action. --> <pages validateRequest="false" pageParserFilterType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewTypeParserFilter, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" pageBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" userControlBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <controls> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" namespace="System.Web.Mvc" tagPrefix="mvc" /> </controls> </pages> </system.web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <handlers> <remove name="BlockViewHandler"/> <add name="BlockViewHandler" path="*" verb="*" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </handlers> </system.webServer> </configuration>

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  • Android - Autocomplete with contacts

    - by The Salt
    I've created an AutoCompleteTextView box that displays the names of all contacts, but after looking in the Android APIs, it seems my method is probably quite inefficient. Currently I am grabbing a cursor of the all the contacts, placing each name and each contact id into two different arrays, then passing the name array to the AutoCompleteTextView. When a user selects an item, I lookup which ID the contact selected in the second id array created above. Code below: private ContactNames mContactData; // Fill the autocomplete textbox Cursor contactsCursor = grabContacts(); mContactData = new ContactNames(contactsCursor); ArrayAdapter<String> adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.contact_name, mContactData.namesArray); mNameText.setAdapter(adapter); private class ContactNames { private String[] namesArray; private long[] idsArray; private ContactNames(Cursor cur) { namesArray = new String[cur.getCount()]; idsArray = new long[cur.getCount()]; String name; Long contactid; // Get column id's int nameColumn = cur.getColumnIndex(People.NAME); int idColumn = cur.getColumnIndex(People._ID); int i=0; cur.moveToFirst(); // Check that there are actually any contacts returned by the cursor if (cur.getCount()>0){ do { // Get the field values name = cur.getString(nameColumn); contactid = Long.parseLong(cur.getString(idColumn)); // Do something with the values. namesArray[i] = name; idsArray[i] = contactid; i++; } while (cur.moveToNext()); } } private long search(String name){ // Lookup name in the contact list that we've put in an array int indexOfName = Arrays.binarySearch(namesArray, name); long contact = 0; if (indexOfName>=0) { contact = idsArray[indexOfName]; } return contact; } } private Cursor grabContacts(){ // Form an array specifying which columns to return. String[] projection = new String[] {People._ID, People.NAME}; // Get the base URI for the People table in the Contacts content provider. Uri contacts = People.CONTENT_URI; // Make the query. Cursor managedCursor = managedQuery(contacts, projection, null, null, People.NAME + " ASC"); // Put the results in ascending order by name startManagingCursor(managedCursor); return managedCursor; } There must be a better way of doing this - basically I'm struggling to see how I can find which item a user selected in an AutoCompleteTextView. Any ideas? Cheers.

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  • WinForms AcceptButton not working?

    - by Svish
    Ok, this is bugging me, and I just can't figure out what is wrong... I have made two forms. First form just has a simple button on it, which opens the other as a dialog like so: using (Form2 f = new Form2()) { if (f.ShowDialog() != DialogResult.OK) MessageBox.Show("Not OK"); else MessageBox.Show("OK"); } The second, which is that Form2, has two buttons on it. All I have done is to set the forms AcceptButton to one, and CancelButton to the other. In my head this is all that should be needed to make this work. But when I run it, I click on the button which opens up Form2. I can now click on the one set as CancelButton, and I get the "Not OK" message box. But when I click on the one set as AcceptButton, nothing happens? The InitializeComponent code of Form2 looks like this: private void InitializeComponent() { this.button1 = new System.Windows.Forms.Button(); this.button2 = new System.Windows.Forms.Button(); this.SuspendLayout(); // // button1 // this.button1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(211, 13); this.button1.Name = "button1"; this.button1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(75, 23); this.button1.TabIndex = 0; this.button1.Text = "button1"; this.button1.UseVisualStyleBackColor = true; // // button2 // this.button2.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.Cancel; this.button2.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(130, 13); this.button2.Name = "button2"; this.button2.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(75, 23); this.button2.TabIndex = 1; this.button2.Text = "button2"; this.button2.UseVisualStyleBackColor = true; // // Form2 // this.AcceptButton = this.button1; this.AutoScaleDimensions = new System.Drawing.SizeF(6F, 13F); this.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Font; this.CancelButton = this.button2; this.ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(298, 59); this.Controls.Add(this.button2); this.Controls.Add(this.button1); this.Name = "Form2"; this.Text = "Form2"; this.Load += new System.EventHandler(this.Form2_Load); this.ResumeLayout(false); } I have done nothing else than add those two buttons, and set the AcceptButton and CancelButton. Why doesn't it work?

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  • Timeout Expired error Using LINQ

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am going to sum up my problem first and then offer massive details and what I have already tried. Summary: I have an internal winform app that uses Linq 2 Sql to connect to a local SQL Express database. Each user has there own DB and the DB stay in sync through Merge Replication with a Central DB. All DB's are SQL 2005(sp2or3). We have been using this app for over 5 months now but recently our users are getting a Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Detailed: The strange part is they get that in two differnt locations(2 differnt LINQ Methods) and only the first time they fire in a given time period(~5mins). One LINQ method is pulling all records that match a FK ID and then Manipulating them to form a Heirarchy View for a TreeView. The second is pulling all records that match a FK ID and dumping them into a DataGridView. The only things I can find in common with the 2 are that the first IS an IEnumerable and the second converts itself from IQueryable - IEnumerable - DataTable... I looked at the query's in Profiler and they 'seemed' normal. They are not very complicated querys. They are only pulling back 10 - 90 records, from one table. Any thoughts, suggestions, hints whatever would be greatly appreciated. I am at my wit's end on this.... public IList<CaseNoteTreeItem> GetTreeViewDataAsList(int personID) { var myContext = MatrixDataContext.Create(); var caseNotesTree = from cn in myContext.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate descending, cn.InsertDate descending select new CaseNoteTreeItem { CaseNoteID = cn.CaseNoteID, NoteContactDate = Convert.ToDateTime(cn.ContactDate). ToShortDateString(), ParentNoteID = cn.ParentNote, InsertUser = cn.InsertUser, ContactDetailsPreview = cn.ContactDetails.Substring(0, 75) }; return caseNotesTree.ToList<CaseNoteTreeItem>(); } AND THIS ONE public static DataTable GetAllCNotes(int personID) { using (var context = MatrixDataContext.Create()) { var caseNotes = from cn in context.tblCaseNotes where cn.PersonID == personID orderby cn.ContactDate select new { cn.ContactDate, cn.ContactDetails, cn.TimeSpentUnits, cn.IsCaseLog, cn.IsPreEnrollment, cn.PresentAtContact, cn.InsertDate, cn.InsertUser, cn.CaseNoteID, cn.ParentNote }; return caseNotes.ToList().CopyLinqToDataTable(); } }

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