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  • Boto - How to delete a record set from route53 -Tried to delete resource record set but it was not found

    - by Tampa
    I am using the following to delete route53 records. I get no error messages. conn = Route53Connection(aws_access_key_id, aws_secret_access_key) changes = ResourceRecordSets(conn, zone_id) change = changes.add_change("DELETE",sub_domain, "A", 60,weight=weight,identifier=identifier) change.add_value(ip_old) changes.commit() all required fields are present and they match..weight, identifier, ttl=60 etc.\ e.g. test.com. A 111.111.111.111 60 1 id1 test.com. A 111.111.111.222 60 1 id2 I want to delete 111.111.111.222 and the record set. So, what is the proper way to delete a record set? For a record set, I will have multiple values that are distinguished by a unique identifier. When an ip address becomes in active I want to remove from route53. I am using a a poor mans load balancing. Here is the meta of the record want to delete. {'alias_dns_name': None, 'alias_hosted_zone_id': None, 'identifier': u'15754-1', 'name': u'hui.com.', 'resource_records': [u'103.4.xxx.xxx'], 'ttl': u'60', 'type': u'A', 'weight': u'1'} Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/ubuntu/workspace/rtbopsConfig/classes/redis_ha.py", line 353, in <module> deleteRedisSubDomains(aws_access_key_id, aws_secret_access_key,platform=platform,sub_domain=sub_domain,redis_domain=redis_domain,zone_id=zone_id,ip_address=ip_address,weight=1,identifier=identifier) File "/home/ubuntu/workspace/rtbopsConfig/classes/redis_ha.py", line 341, in deleteRedisSubDomains changes.commit() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/boto-2.3.0-py2.7.egg/boto/route53/record.py", line 131, in commit return self.connection.change_rrsets(self.hosted_zone_id, self.to_xml()) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/boto-2.3.0-py2.7.egg/boto/route53/connection.py", line 291, in change_rrsets body) boto.route53.exception.DNSServerError: DNSServerError: 400 Bad Request <?xml version="1.0"?> <ErrorResponse xmlns="https://route53.amazonaws.com/doc/2011-05-05/"><Error><Type>Sender</Type><Code>InvalidChangeBatch</Code><Message>Tried to delete resource record set hui.com., type A, SetIdentifier 15754-1 but it was not found</Message></Error><RequestId>9972af89-cb69-11e1-803b-7bde5b9c457d</RequestId></ErrorResponse> Thanks

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  • Which combing css technique?

    - by DotnetShadow
    Hi there, Which of the following would you say is the best way to go when combining files for CSS: Say I have a master.css file that is used across all pages on my website (page1.aspx, page2.aspx) Page1.aspx - A specific page that has some unique css that is only ever used on that page, so I create a page1.css and it also uses another css grids.css Page2.aspx - Another specific page that is different from all other pages on the site and is different to page1.aspx, I'll name this page2.aspx and make a page2.css this doesn't use grids.css So would you combine the scripts as: Option1: Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,grids.css when visiting page1 Combine scripts csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page2.css when visiting page2 Benefits: Page specific, rendering quicker since only selectors for that page need to be matched up no unused selectors Drawback: Multiple combinations of master.css + page specific hence master.css has to be downloaded for each page Option2: Combine all scripts whether a page needs them or not csshandler.axd?d=master.css,page1.css,page2.css,grids.css (master, page1 and page2) that way it gets cached as one. The problem is that rendering maybe slower since it will have to try and match EVERY selector in the css with selectors on the page even the missing ones, so in the case of page2.aspx that doesn't use grids.css the selectors in grids.css will need to be parsed to see if they are in page2 which means rendering will be slow Benefits: One file will ever be downloaded and cached doesn't matter what page you visit Drawback: Unused selectors will need to be parsed by the browser slower rendering Option3: Leave the master file on it's own and only combine other scripts (the benefit of this is because master is used across all pages there is a chance that this is cached so doesn't need to keep on downloading csshandler.axd?d=Master.css csshandler.axd?d=page1.css,grids.css Benefits: master.css file can be cached doesn't matter what page you visit. Not many unused selectors as page spefic is applied Drawback: Initially minimum of 2 HTTP request will have to be made What do you guys think? Cheers DotnetShadow

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  • trouble with algorithm

    - by rebel_UA
    David likes number of estimates with base "k" and not a multiple(a%2!=0) of the number of zeros at the end. Set system and the number of the order and print it I need to optimi this algoritm: class David{ private: int k; public: David(); David(int); int operator[] (int); }; David::David(){ k=10; }; David::David(int k){ this->k=k; } int David::operator[] (int n){ int q; int p; int i=1; for(int r=0;r<n;i++){ q=0; p=i; for(;;){ if(p%k) break; if(p==0) break; ++q; p/=k; } if(q%2){ r++; } } return i-1; }

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  • Python beginner having trouble running code

    - by Protean
    For some reason this code will not seem to run in the interpreter. When I hit F5 nothing happens, not even the debugger seems to recognize it. I assume it has something to do with the class, as when removed the interpreter seems to recognize the rest of the code. Please tell me what I am doing wrong. Edit: I have restarted the interpreter multiple times, any other piece of code I try to load runs fine, just this one is having trouble. print ('Why won't this work?') class sorting_class: def __init__(self): self.order = ['a', 'b', 'c', 'd'] self.globali = 0 self.orderi = 0 self.sortedlist = [] def sort(self, array): carry, leave = [] for arrayi in array: print ('run', arrayi) if self.order[self.orderi] == arrayi[self.globali]: carry.append(arrayi) else: if self.globali != 0: leave.append(arrayi) return carry, leave def srt(self, array): globalii = 0 carry, leave = my.sort(array) while len(self.sortedlist) != len(array): if len(self.carry) == 1: self.sortedlist.append(carry) arrayt = leave self.globali = 1 self.orderi = 0 carry, leave = my.sort(arrayt) elif len(self.carry) == 0: if len(self.leave) != 0: arrayt = leave self.globali = 1 self.orderi += 1 my.sort(arrayt) else: self.arrayt globalii += 1 self.orderi = globalii self.globali = 0 my.sort(arrayt) self.orderi = 0 else: arrayt = carry carry = [] self.globali += 1 carry, leave += my.sort(arrayt) my = sorting_class() x = ['ac', 'bc' ,'ab', 'da'] my.srt(x)

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  • Secure hash and salt for PHP passwords

    - by luiscubal
    It is currently said that MD5 is partially unsafe. Taking this into consideration, I'd like to know which mechanism to use for password protection. Is “double hashing” a password less secure than just hashing it once? Suggests that hashing multiple times may be a good idea. How to implement password protection for individual files? Suggests using salt. I'm using PHP. I want a safe and fast password encryption system. Hashing a password a million times may be safer, but also slower. How to achieve a good balance between speed and safety? Also, I'd prefer the result to have a constant number of characters. The hashing mechanism must be available in PHP It must be safe It can use salt (in this case, are all salts equally good? Is there any way to generate good salts?) Also, should I store two fields in the database(one using MD5 and another one using SHA, for example)? Would it make it safer or unsafer? In case I wasn't clear enough, I want to know which hashing function(s) to use and how to pick a good salt in order to have a safe and fast password protection mechanism. EDIT: The website shouldn't contain anything too sensitive, but still I want it to be secure. EDIT2: Thank you all for your replies, I'm using hash("sha256",$salt.":".$password.":".$id) Questions that didn't help: What's the difference between SHA and MD5 in PHP Simple Password Encryption Secure methods of storing keys, passwords for asp.net How would you implement salted passwords in Tomcat 5.5

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  • What is the proper query to get all the children in a tree?

    - by Nathan Adams
    Lets say I have the following MySQL structure: CREATE TABLE `domains` ( `id` INT(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `domain` CHAR(50) NOT NULL, `parent` INT(11) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MYISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=10 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (1,'.com',0); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (2,'example.com',1); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (3,'sub1.example.com',2); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (4,'sub2.example.com',2); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (5,'s1.sub1.example.com',3); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (6,'s2.sub1.example.com',3); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (7,'sx1.s1.sub1.example.com',5); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (8,'sx2.s2.sub1.example.com',6); insert into `domains`(`id`,`domain`,`parent`) values (9,'x.sub2.example.com',4); In my mind that is enough to emulate a simple tree structure: .com | example / \ sub1 sub2 ect My problem is that give sub1.example.com I want to know all the children of sub1.example.com without using multiple queries in my code. I have tried joining the table to itself and tried to use subqueries, I can't think of anything that will reveal all the children. At work we are using MPTT to keep in hierarchal order a list of domains/subdomains however, I feel that there is an easier way to do it. I did some digging and someone did something similar but they required the use of a function in MySQL. I don't think for something simple like this we would need a whole function. Maybe I am just dumb and not seeing some sort of obvious solution. Also, feel free to alter the structure.

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  • migrating webclient to WCF; WCF client serializes parametername of method

    - by Wouter
    I'm struggling with migrating from webservice/webclient architecture to WCF architecture. The object are very complex, with lots of nested xsd's and different namespaces. Proxy classes are generated by adding a Web Reference to an original wsdl with 30+ webmethods and using xsd.exe for generating the missing SOAPFault objects. My pilot WCF Service consists of only 1 webmethod which matches the exact syntax of one of the original methods: 1 object as parameter, returning 1 other object as result value. I greated a WCF Interface using those proxy classes, using attributes: XMLSerializerFormat and ServiceContract on the interface, OperationContract on one method from original wsdl specifying Action, ReplyAction, all with the proper namespaces. I create incoming client messages using SoapUI; I generated a project from the original WSDL files (causing the SoapUI project to have 30+ methods) and created one new Request at the one implemented WebMethod, changed the url to my wcf webservice and send the message. Because of the specified (Reply-)Action in the OperationContractAttribute, the message is actually received and properly deserialized into an object. To get this far (40 hours of googling), a lot of frustration led me to using a custom endpoint in which the WCF 'wrapped tags' are removed, the namespaces for nested types are corrected, and the generated wsdl get's flattened (for better compatibility with other tools then MS VisualStudio). Interface code is this: [XmlSerializerFormat(Use = OperationFormatUse.Literal, Style = OperationFormatStyle.Document, SupportFaults = true)] [ServiceContract(Namespace = Constants.NamespaceStufZKN)] public interface IOntvangAsynchroon { [OperationContract(Action = Constants.NamespaceStufZKN + "/zakLk01", ReplyAction = Constants.NamespaceStufZKN + "/zakLk01", Name = "zakLk01")] [FaultContract(typeof(Fo03Bericht), Namespace = Constants.NamespaceStuf)] Bv03Bericht zakLk01([XmlElement("zakLk01", Namespace = Constants.NamespaceStufZKN)] ZAKLk01 zakLk011); When I use a Webclient in code to send a message, everything works. My problem is, when I use a WCF client. I use ChannelFactory< IOntvangAsynchroon to send a message. But the generated xml looks different: it includes the parametername of the method! It took me a lot of time to figure this one out, but here's what happens: Correct xml (stripped soap envelope): <soap:Body> <zakLk01 xmlns="http://www.egem.nl/StUF/sector/zkn/0310"> <stuurgegevens> <berichtcode xmlns="http://www.egem.nl/StUF/StUF0301">Bv01</berichtcode> <zender xmlns="http://www.egem.nl/StUF/StUF0301"> <applicatie>ONBEKEND</applicatie> </zender> </stuurgegevens> <parameters> </parameters> </zakLk01> </soap:Body> Bad xml: <soap:Body> <zakLk01 xmlns="http://www.egem.nl/StUF/sector/zkn/0310"> <zakLk011> <stuurgegevens> <berichtcode xmlns="http://www.egem.nl/StUF/StUF0301">Bv01</berichtcode> <zender xmlns="http://www.egem.nl/StUF/StUF0301"> <applicatie>ONBEKEND</applicatie> </zender> </stuurgegevens> <parameters> </parameters> </zakLk011> </zakLk01> </soap:Body> Notice the 'zakLk011' element? It is the name of the parameter of the method in my interface! So NOW it is zakLk011, but it when my parameter name was 'zakLk01', the xml seemed to contain some magical duplicate of the tag above, but without namespace. Of course, you can imagine me going crazy over what was happening before finding out it was the parametername! I know have actually created a WCF Service, at which I cannot send messages using a WCF Client anymore. For clarity: The method does get invoked using the WCF Client on my webservice, but the parameter object is empty. Because I'm using a custom endpoint to log the incoming xml, I can see the message is received fine, but just with the wrong syntax! WCF client code: ZAKLk01 stufbericht = MessageFactory.CreateZAKLk01(); ChannelFactory<IOntvangAsynchroon> factory = new ChannelFactory<IOntvangAsynchroon>(new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress("http://localhost:8193/Roxit/Link/zkn0310")); factory.Endpoint.Behaviors.Add(new LinkEndpointBehavior()); IOntvangAsynchroon client = factory.CreateChannel(); client.zakLk01(stufbericht); I am not using a generated client, i just reference the webservice like i am lot's of times. Can anyone please help me? I can't google anything on this...

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  • LaTeX: bibliography per chapter.

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello all, I am helping a colleague with his PhD thesis and we need to present the bibliography at the end of each chapter. The question is: does anyone have a minimal working example for this case using latex+bibtex? The current document structure that we use is the following: main.tex chap1.tex chap2.tex ... chapn.tex biblio.bib Where main.tex contains packages, document declarations, macros and \includes for each chapter. biblio.bib is the only bibtex file (I think is easier to have all citations in one place). We have searched and tried with different latex packages, reading and following their documentation. Specifically, bibitems and chapterbib. bibitems successfully generates bu*.aux files, but when running bibtex for each one of them, an error occurs since there is no \bibdata element in the .aux file. chapterbib also generates a .aux file, but bibtex finishes with an error caused by using multiple \bibliography{file} in the .tex files (one per chapter). Some coworkers suggested using a separate bibtex file for each chapter, which could be a problem of maintenance in the future when citing the same publications in different chapters. We will like to continue having this document structure, if possible. So, if anyone could shed some light to this problem, we will appreciate it. Thanks.

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  • CSS - Inheriting layered background images

    - by NNN
    CSS3 supports multiple background images, for example: foo { background-image: url(/i/image1.jpg), url(/i/image2.jpg); } I'd like to be able to add a secondary image to an element with a class though. So for example, say you have a nav menu. And each item has a background image. When a nav item is selected you want to layer on another background image. I do not see a way to 'add' a background image instead of redeclaring the whole background property. This is a pain because in order to do this with multi-backgrounds, you would have to write the base bg image over and over for each item if the items have unique images. Ideally I'd be able to do something like this: li { background: url(baseImage.jpg); } li.selected { background: url(selectedIndicator.jpg); } And have li.selected's end result appear the same if I did: li.selected { background: url(baseImage.jpg), url(selectedIndicator.jpg); } Update: I also tried the following with no luck (I believe backgrounds are not inherited..) li { background: url(baseImage.jpg), none; } li.selected { background: inherit, url(selectedIndicator.jpg); }

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  • JQuery Simplemodal and Tabs Help Needed

    - by Dave R
    Hi, I've got an asp.net page containing a Textbox with an Autocomplete extender on it. It's setup so the user can type a short reference code into the textbox and then choose from the list of matching codes returned by the autocomplete. On the "select", I then call the server using JQuery. I'm currently using $.get here.... The callback function from $.get checks for "success" and then displays a simple-modal dialog containing info about the item they've just selected. if (sStatus == "success") { $.modal(sText, { overlayClose: true, appendTo:'form', onShow: function(dialog) { $("#ccTargets_tabContainer").tabs(); }, onClose: function(dialog) { $("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>").val(""); $.modal.close(); } }); $.ready(); } One of the bits of info being loaded here is a JQuery TABS setup, so the onShow function of the simplemodal is used to initiate the tabs which are within the simplemodal. Now to the crux of my problem. If I do multiple consecutive "autocompletes" on the same page it all works fine Unless I have selected a different tab on the tabs in the simplemodal ....If I select a different tab, close the simplemodal and then do another autocomplete I get a JQuery error which seems to relate to a selector doing something with the "old" selected tab that was on the "closed" modal. I'm clearly missing some sort of cleardown / initialisation somewhere, but can't find what it is. Help? I've tried "tabs.destroy" before the modal call in the code above and I've tried a $.ready() call as indicated too.... UPDATE: Is it something to do with JQuery Tabs appending my addressbar URL with the selected tab's ID?

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  • which xml validator will work perfectly for multithreading project

    - by Sunil Kumar Sahoo
    Hi All, I have used jdom for xml validation against schema. The main problem there is that it gives an error FWK005 parse may not be called while parsing The main reason was that multiple of threads working for xerces validation at the same time. SO I got the solution that i have to lock that validation. which is not good So I want to know which xml validator works perfectly for multithreading project public static HashMap validate(String xmlString, Validator validator) { HashMap<String, String> map = new HashMap<String, String>(); long t1 = System.currentTimeMillis(); DocumentBuilder builder = null; try { //obtain lock to proceed // lock.lock(); try { builder = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance().newDocumentBuilder(); // Source source = new DOMSource(builder.parse(new ByteArrayInputStream(xmlString.getBytes()))); validator.validate(new StreamSource(new StringReader(xmlString))); map.put("ISVALID", "TRUE"); logger.info("We have successfuly validated the schema"); } catch (Exception ioe) { ioe.printStackTrace(); logger.error("NOT2 VALID STRING IS :" + xmlString); map.put("MSG", ioe.getMessage()); // logger.error("IOException while validating the input XML", ioe); } logger.info(map); long t2 = System.currentTimeMillis(); logger.info("XML VALIDATION TOOK:::" + (t2 - t1)); } catch (Exception e) { logger.error(e); } finally { //release lock // lock.unlock(); builder = null; } return map; } Thanks Sunil Kumar Sahoo

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  • Using hibernate criteria, is there a way to escape special characters?

    - by Kevin Crowell
    For this question, we want to avoid having to write a special query since the query would have to be different across multiple databases. Using only hibernate criteria, we want to be able to escape special characters. This situation is the reason for needing the ability to escape special characters: Assume that we have table 'foo' in the database. Table 'foo' contains only 1 field, called 'name'. The 'name' field can contain characters that may be considered special in a database. Two examples of such a name are 'name_1' and 'name%1'. Both the '_' and '%' are special characters, at least in Oracle. If a user wants to search for one of these examples after they are entered in the database, problems may occur. criterion = Restrictions.ilike("name", searchValue, MatchMode.ANYWHERE); return findByCriteria(null, criterion); In this code, 'searchValue' is the value that the user has given the application to use for its search. If the user wants to search for '%', the user is going to be returned with every 'foo' entry in the database. This is because the '%' character represents the "any number of characters" wildcard for string matching and the SQL code that hibernate produces will look like: select * from foo where name like '%' Is there a way to tell hibernate to escape certain characters, or to create a workaround that is not database type sepecific?

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  • Perl strings internals

    - by n0rd
    How does perl strings represented internally? What encoding is used? How do I handle different encodings properly? I've been using perl for quite a long time, but it didn't include a lot of string handling in different encodings, and when I encountered a minor problem that had something to do with encodings I usually resorted to some shamanic actions. Until this moment I thought about perl strings as sequences of bytes, which did fit pretty well for my tasks. Now I need to do some processing of UTF-8 encoded file and here starts trouble. First, I read file into string like this: open(my $in, '<', $ARGV[0]) or die "cannot open file $ARGV[0] for reading"; binmode($in, ':utf8'); my $contents; { local $/; $contents = <$in>; } close($in); then simply print it: print $contents; And I get two things: a warning Wide character in print at <scriptname> line <n> and a garbage in console. So I can conclude that perl strings have a concept of "character" that can be "wide" or not, but when printed these "wide" characters are represented in console as multiple bytes, not as single "character". (I wonder now why did all my previous experience with binary files worked quite how I expected it to work without any "character" issues). Why then I see garbage in console? If perl stores strings as character in some known encoding, I don't think there is a big problem to find out console encoding and print text properly. (I use Windows, BTW). If perl stores strings as multibyte sequences (e.g. using same UTF-8 encoding), why is it done this way? From my C experience handling multibyte strings is PAIN.

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  • Loops on a Matlab program

    - by lebland-matlab
    I have 3 sets of 10 vectors each, and I want to take 2 vectors from the first set , 2 vectors from the second set and 3 vectors from the third set . My goal is to make a loop to implement the following program, knowing that after each calculation, the result shall be saved in a new file. My problem is that I can not handle the indices included in the strings. I try to use multiple loops to scan the 3 sets in the order of indices. loops should contain the following program clc; clear all; load('C:\Users\Documents\MATLAB\myFile\matrice_F.mat'); load('C:\Users\Documents\MATLAB\myFile\matrice_G.mat'); F = m_F; G = m_G; load('C:\Users\Documents\MATLAB\myFile\matrice_J.mat'); load('C:\Users\Documents\MATLAB\myFile\matrice_K.mat'); J = m_J; K = m_K; load('C:\Users\Documents\MATLAB\myFile\matrice_N.mat'); load('C:\Users\Documents\MATLAB\myFile\matrice_O.mat'); load('C:\Users\Documents\MATLAB\myFile\matrice_P.mat'); N = m_N ; O = m_O; P = m_P; [A,B,C,D,E] = myFun(F,G,J,K,N,O,P); file_name = 'matrice_final.mat'; save(file_name,'A','B','C','D','E');

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  • cleaning up noise in an edge detection algoritum

    - by Faken
    I recently wrote an extremely basic edge detection algorithm that works on an array of chars. The program was meant to detect the edges of blobs of a single particular value on the array and worked by simply looking left, right, up and down on the array element and checking if one of those values is not the same as the value it was currently looking at. The goal was not to produce a mathematical line but rather a set of ordered points that represented a descritized closed loop edge. The algorithm works perfectly fine, except that my data contained a bit of noise hence would randomly produce edges where there should be no edges. This in turn wreaked havoc on some of my other programs down the line. There is two types of noise that the data contains. The first type is fairly sparse and somewhat random. The second type is a semi continuous straight line on the x=y axis. I know the source of the first type of noise, its a feature of the data and there is nothing i can do about it. As for the second type, i know it's my program's fault for causing it...though i haven't a hot clue exactly what is causing it. My question is: How should I go about removing the noise completely? I know that the correct data has points that are always beside each other and is very compact and ordered (with no gaps) and is a closed loop or multiple loops. The first type of noise is usually sparse and random, that could be easily taken care of by checking if any edges is next that noise point is also counted as an edge. If not, then the point is most defiantly noise and should be removed. However, the second type of noise, where we have a semi continuous line about x=y poses more of a problem. The line is sometimes continuous for random lengths (the longest was it went half way across my entire array unbroken). It is even possible for it to intersect the actual edge. Any ideas on how to do this?

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  • WinForms Application Form "Shakes" When Audio Playing

    - by ikurtz
    I have a C# game program that i'm developing. it uses sound samples and winsock. when i test run the game most of the audio works fine but from time to time if it is multiple samples being played sequentially the application form shakes a little bit and then goes back to its old position. how do i go about debugging this or present it to you folks in a manageable manner? i'm sure no one is going to want the whole app code in fear of virus attacks. please guide me.. EDIT: i have not been able to pin down any code section that produces this result. it just does and i cannot explain it. EDIT: no the x/y position are not changing. the window like shakes around a few pixels and then goes back to the position were it was before the shake. if (audio) { Stream stream; SoundPlayer player; stream = Properties.Resources.ResourceManager.GetStream("_home"); player = new System.Media.SoundPlayer(stream); player.PlaySync(); player.Dispose(); string ShipID = fireResult.DestroyedShipType.ToString(); stream = Properties.Resources.ResourceManager.GetStream("_" + ShipID); player = new System.Media.SoundPlayer(stream); player.PlaySync(); player.Dispose(); stream = Properties.Resources.ResourceManager.GetStream("_destroyed"); player = new System.Media.SoundPlayer(stream); player.PlaySync(); player.Dispose(); } can you see anything in the above code that would produce this shake?

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  • Maintaining session information between 2 asp.net calls programmatically?

    - by Santhosh
    Hi, I'm not sure if I'll be clear enough in my explaination to make you guys understand, but I'll try. Here's my problem: We have an external site which the users in our company connect to by giving their corresponding username and password. The external site is an ASP.NET website. We want to integrate this website into our intranet portal so that the users don't have to enter their UN/Pwd to login to the website. Since the target website has no provision for SSO, we are simulating the POST request to login. So far so good. We are now required to perform an action after the initial login is done, on an another page. We can simulate the corresponding POST request as well. But the problem is since we are not maintaining any session information in our initial POST request, it always redirects to the login screen! Is there any way to maintain ASP.NET session information between multiple calls done programmatically? Can we create an ASP.NET session id cookie programmatically and then pass it along with our initial request? Or this is not possible at all? Any comments are appreciated. Thanks for your help. Regards.

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  • ASP.NET Ajax - Asynch request has separate session???

    - by Marcus King
    We are writing a search application that saves the search criteria to session state and executes the search inside of an asp.net updatepanel. Sometimes when we execute multiple searches successively the 2nd or 3rd search will sometimes return results from the first set of search criteria. Example: our first search we do a look up on "John Smith" - John Smith results are displayed. The second search we do a look up on "Bob Jones" - John Smith results are displayed. We save all of the search criteria in session state as I said, and read it from session state inside of the ajax request to format the DB query. When we put break points in VS everything behaves as normal, but without them we get the original search criteria and results. My guess is because they are saved in session, that the ajax request somehow gets its own session and saves the criteria to that, and then retrieves the criteria from that session every time, but the non-async stuff is able to see when the criteria is modified and saves the changes to state accordingly, but because they are from two different sessions there is a disparity in what is saved and read. EDIT::: To elaborate more, there was a suggestion of appending the search criteria to the query string which normally is good practice and I agree thats how it should be but following our requirements I don't see it as being viable. They want it so the user fills out the input controls hits search and there is no page reload, the only thing they see is a progress indicator on the page, and they still have the ability to navigate and use other features on the current page. If I were to add criteria to the query string I would have to do another request causing the whole page to load, which depending on the search criteria can take a really long time. This is why we are using an ajax call to perform the search and why we aren't causing another full page request..... I hope this clarifies the situation.

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  • iOS iPad UIActionSheet Issue

    - by hart1994
    I am currently developing an application which needs an option to 'share' using multiple services; such as email, twitter. To to this, I have a UIBarButtonItem coded in and when touched, it triggers this: UIActionSheet *sheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:nil destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:nil]; [sheet addButtonWithTitle:@"Email"]; [sheet addButtonWithTitle:@"Tweet"]; [sheet addButtonWithTitle:@"Cancel"]; sheet.cancelButtonIndex = sheet.numberOfButtons-1; [sheet showFromRect:self.view.bounds inView:self.view animated:YES]; [sheet release]; In conjunction with this to detect which button is selected: clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if (buttonIndex == actionSheet.cancelButtonIndex) { return; } switch (buttonIndex) { case 0: { [self emailThis]; break; } case 1: { [self tweetThis]; break; } } This works a treat on the iPhone. But unfortunately it displays incorrectly on the iPad. It looks like it is trying to display the UIPopoverController, but it is positioned center of the navbar with practically no height. I have looked into using the UIPopoverController, but I cannot seem to find out how to use it with buttons. Is there anyway I can adapt the code above to properly display the buttons, as it's trying to already. Many thanks, Ryan PS: I'm new to objective-c/iOS coding, so please be specific. Thank you :)

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  • Connecting a DomainContext and loading data manually in Silverlight 4 RC application

    - by Redburn
    I am new to WCF & RIA services and have what seems like a basic problem. I have multiple times in my silverlight 4 RC application dragged and dropped from my datasource window to my form and have returned information from the database. However I have a need to query the database for other information (Building a report) When I try to use the following code, I recieve no error, but I also do not get any information back from the service. //Global public UMSDomainContext _umsDomainContext = new UMSDomainContext(); //In the Initialization portion _umsDomainContext.Load(_umsDomainContext.GetUMOptionsQuery()); //Queries var name = from n in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select n.DistrictName; var street1 = from c in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select c.Address1; var street2 = from c in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select c.Address2; var city = from c in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select c.City; var zip = from c in _umsDomainContext.UMOptions select c.Zip; Im calling the current additional assem. using System.Linq; using System.ServiceModel.DomainServices.Client; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using MTT.Web;

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  • How to express inter project dependencies in Eclipse PDE

    - by Roland Tepp
    I am looking for the best practice of handling inter project dependencies between mixed project types where some of the projects are eclipse plug-in/OSGI bundle projects (an RCP application) and others are just plain old java projects (web services modules). Few of the eclipse plug-ins have dependencies on Java projects. My problem is that at least as far as I've looked, there is no way of cleanly expressing such a dependency in Eclipse PDE environment. I can have plug-in projects depend on other plug-in projects (via Import-Package or Require-Bundle manifest headers), but not of the plain java projects. I seem to be able to have project declare a dependency on a jar from another project in a workspace, but these jar files do not get picked up by neither export nor launch configuration (although, java code editing sees the libraries just fine). The "Java projects" are used for building services to be deployed on an J2EE container (JBoss 4.2.2 for the moment) and produce in some cases multiple jar's - one for deploying to the JBoss ear and another for use by client code (an RCP application). The way we've "solved" this problem for now is that we have 2 more external tools launcher configurations - one for building all the jar's and another for copying these jar's to the plug-in projects. This works (sort of), but the "whole build" and "copy jars" targets incur quite a large build step, bypassing the whole eclipse incremental build feature and by copying the jars instead of just referencing the projects I am decoupling the dependency information and requesting quite a massive workspace refresh that eats up the development time like it was candy. What I would like to have is a much more "natural" workspace setup that would manage dependencies between projects and request incremental rebuilds only as they are needed, be able to use client code from service libraries in an RCP application plug-ins and be able to launch the RCP application with all the necessary classes where they are needed. So can I have my cake and eat it too ;) NOTE To be clear, this is not so much about dependency management and module management at the moment as it is about Eclipse PDE configuration. I am well aware of products like [Maven], [Ivy] and [Buckminster] and they solve a quite different problem (once I've solved the workspace configuration issue, these products can actually come in handy for materializing the workspace and building the product)

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  • Doctrine stupid or me stupid?

    - by ropstah
    I want to use a single Doctrine install on our server and serve multiple websites. Naturally the models should be maintained in the websites' modelsfolder. I have everything up (and not running) like so: Doctrine @ /CustomFramework/Doctrine Websites @ /var/www/vhosts/custom1.com/ /var/www/vhosts/custom2.com/ Generating works fine, all models are delivered in /application_folder/models and /application_folder/models/generated for the correct website. I've added Doctrine::loadModels('path_to_models') in the bootstrap file for each website, and also registered the autoloaded. But.... This is the autoloader code: public static function autoload($className) { if (strpos($className, 'sfYaml') === 0) { require dirname(__FILE__) . '/Parser/sfYaml/' . $className . '.php'; return true; } if (0 !== stripos($className, 'Doctrine_') || class_exists($className, false) || interface_exists($className, false)) { return false; } $class = self::getPath() . DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR . str_replace('_', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR, $className) . '.php'; if (file_exists($class)) { require $class; return true; } return false; } Am I stupid, or is the autoloader really doing this: $class = self::getPath() . DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR . str_replace('_', DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR, $className) . '.php'; or, in other words: Does it require me to have ALL my generated doctrine classes inside the Doctrine app directory? Or in other words, do I need a single Doctrine installation for each website? I'm getting an error that the BaseXXX class cannot be found. So the autoloading doesn't function correctly. I really hope i'm doing something wrong.. anyone?

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  • Class Structure w/ LINQ, Partial Classes, and Abstract Classes

    - by Jason
    I am following the Nerd Dinner tutorial as I'm learning ASP.NET MVC, and I am currently on Step 3: Building the Model. One part of this section discusses how to integrate validation and business rule logic with the model classes. All this makes perfect sense. However, in the case of this source code, the author only validates one class: Dinner. What I am wondering is, say I have multiple classes that need validation (Dinner, Guest, etc). It doesn't seem smart to me to repeatedly write these two methods in the partial class: public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) { throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving."); } } What I'm wondering is, can you create an abstract class (because "GetRuleViolations" needs to be implemented separately) and extend a partial class? I'm thinking something like this (based on his example): public partial class Dinner : Validation { public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { yield break; } } This doesn't "feel" right, but I wanted to check with SO to get opinions of individuals smarter than me on this. I also tested it out, and it seems that the partial keyword on the OnValidate method is causing problems (understandably so). This doesn't seem possible to fix (but I could very well be wrong). Thanks!

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  • Get id when inserting new row using TableAdapter.Update on a file based database

    - by phq
    I have a database table with one field, called ID, being an auto increment integer. Using a TableAdapter I can read and modify existing rows as well as create new ones. However if I try to modify a newly inserted row I get an DBConcurrencyException: OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Shift.mdb;Persist Security Info=True"); ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter shiftTA = new ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter(); shiftTA.Connection = conn; ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable table = new ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable(); ShiftDataSet.ShiftRow row = table.NewShiftRow(); row.Name = "life"; table.Rows.Add(row); shiftTA.Update(row); // row.ID == -1 row.Name = "answer"; // <-- all fine up to here shiftTA.Update(row); // DBConcurrencyException: 0 rows affected Separate question, is there any static type of the NewShiftRow() method I can use so that I don't have to create table everytime I want to insert a new row. I guess the problem in the code comes from row.ID that is still -1 after the first Update() call. The Insert is successful and in the database the row has a valid value of ID. How can I get that ID so that I can continue with the second Update call? Update: IT looks like this could have been done automatically using this setting. However according to the answer on msdn social, OLEDB drivers do not support this feature. Not sure where to go from here, use something else than oledb? Update: Tried SQLCompact but discovered that it had the same limitation, it does not support multiple statements. Final question: is there any simple(single file based) database that would allow you to get the values of a inserted row.

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  • How can I access master page text box from jquery file?

    - by stackuser1
    In my master page i've a textbox. <asp:TextBox ID="SearchTextBox" runat="server" class="searchtxtbox" onfocus="HideSearchWaterMark();" Text="Search" onblur="ShowSearchWaterMark(this);" /> I added jquery references in code behind. TextBox SearchTextBox = this.FindControl("SearchTextBox") as TextBox; StringBuilder objStringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); objStringBuilder.Append("<script type=\"text/javascript\" language=\"javascript\">\n"); objStringBuilder.AppendFormat("var searchTextBox = '{0}';\n", SearchTextBox.ClientID); objStringBuilder.Append("</script>\n"); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), "RegisterVariables", objStringBuilder.ToString()); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/Search.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/TagsScripts/jquery.autocomplete.js")); in Search.js i've the following methods to access the text box of master page: $(document).ready(function () { $("#" + searchTextBox).autocomplete("Handlers/GenericHandler.ashx?tgt=12", { multiple: true, multipleSeparator: ";", mustMatch: false, autoFill: true }); }); function HideSearchWaterMark() { var control = $("#" + searchTextBox); if (control[0].className == "searchtxtbox ac_input") control[0].value = ""; control[0].className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } function ShowSearchWaterMark(tagsTextBox) { if (searchTextBox.value.length == 0) { searchTextBox.value = "Search"; searchTextBox.className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } When i run my application i'm getting object reference not set error. Please tell me where i need to change my code.

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