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  • Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

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  • Avoiding stack overflows in wrapper DLLs

    - by peachykeen
    I have a program to which I'm adding fullscreen post-processing effects. I do not have the source for the program (it's proprietary, although a developer did send me a copy of the debug symbols, .map format). I have the code for the effects written and working, no problems. My issue now is linking the two. I've tried two methods so far: Use Detours to modify the original program's import table. This works great and is guaranteed to be stable, but the user's I've talked to aren't comfortable with it, it requires installation (beyond extracting an archive), and there's some question if patching the program with Detours is valid under the terms of the EULA. So, that option is out. The other option is the traditional DLL-replacement. I've wrapped OpenGL (opengl32.dll), and I need the program to load my DLL instead of the system copy (just drop it in the program folder with the right name, that's easy). I then need my DLL to load the Cg framework and runtime (which relies on OpenGL) and a few other things. When Cg loads, it calls some of my functions, which call Cg functions, and I tend to get stack overflows and infinite loops. I need to be able to either include the Cg DLLs in a subdirectory and still use their functions (not sure if it's possible to have my DLLs import table point to a DLL in a subdirectory) or I need to dynamically link them (which I'd rather not do, just to simplify the build process), something to force them to refer to the system's file (not my custom replacement). The entire chain is: Program loads DLL A (named opengl32.dll). DLL A loads Cg.dll and dynamically links (GetProcAddress) to sysdir/opengl32.dll. I now need Cg.dll to also refer to sysdir/opengl32.dll, not DLL A. How would this be done? Edit: How would this be done easily without using GetProcAddress? If nothing else works, I'm willing to fall back to that, but I'd rather not if at all possible. Edit2: I just stumbled across the function SetDllDirectory in the MSDN docs (on a totally unrelated search). At first glance, that looks like what I need. Is that right, or am I misjudging? (off to test it now) Edit3: I've solved this problem by doing thing a bit differently. Instead of dropping an OpenGL32.dll, I've renamed my DLL to DInput.dll. Not only does it have the advantage of having to export one function instead of well over 120 (for the program, Cg, and GLEW), I don't have to worry about functions running back in (I can link to OpenGL as usual). To get into the calls I need to intercept, I'm using Detours. All in all, it works much better. This question, though, is still an interesting problem (and hopefully will be useful for anyone else trying to do crazy things in the future). Both the answers are good, so I'm not sure yet which to pick...

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  • Why do some Flask session values disappear from the session after closing the browser window, but then reappear later without me adding them?

    - by Ben
    So my understanding of Flask sessions is that I can use it like a dictionary and add values to a session by doing: session['key name'] = 'some value here' And that works fine. On a route I have the client call using AJAX post, I assign a value to the session. And it works fine. I can click on various pages of my site and the value stays in the session. If I close the browser window however, and then go back to my site, the session value I had in there is gone. So that's weird and you would think the problem is the session isn't permanent. I also implemented Flask-Openid and that uses the session to store information and that does persist if I close the browser window and open it back up again. I also checked the cookie after closing the browser window, but before going back to my site, and the cookie is indeed still there. Another odd piece of behaviour (which may be related) is that some values I have written to the session for testing purposes will go away when I access the AJAX post route and assign the correct value. So that is odd, but what is truly weird is that when I then close the browser window and open it up again, and have thus lost the value I was trying to retain, the ones that I lost previously actually return! They aren't being reassigned because there's no code in my Python files to reassign those values. Here is some outputs to helper make it clearer. They are all outputed from a route for a real page, and not the AJAX post route I mentioned above. This is the output after I have assigned the value I want to store in the session. The value key is 'userid' - all the other values are dummy ones I have added in trying to solve this problem. 'userid': 8 will stay in the session as long as I don't close the browser window. I can access other routes and the value will stay there just like it should. ['session.=', <SecureCookieSession {'userid': 8, 'test_variable_num': 102, 'adding using before request': 'hi', '_permanent': True, 'test_variable_text': 'hi!'}>] If I do close the browser window, and go back into the site, but without redoing the AJAX post request, I get this output: ['session.=', <SecureCookieSession {'adding using before request': 'hi', '_permanent': True, 'yo': 'yo'}>] The 'yo' value was not in the first first output. I don't know where it came from. I searched my code for 'yo' and there is no instances of me assigning that value anywhere. I think I may have added it to the session days ago. So it seems like it is persisting, but being hidden when the other values are written. And this last one is me accessing the AJAX post route again, and then going to the page that prints out the keys using debug. Same output as the first output I pasted above, which you would expect, and the 'yo' value is gone again (but it will come back if I close the browser window) ['session.=', <SecureCookieSession {'userid': 8, 'test_variable_num': 102, 'adding using before request': 'hi', '_permanent': True, 'test_variable_text': 'hi!'}>] I tested this in both Chrome and Firefox. So I find this all weird and I am guessing it stems from a misunderstanding of how sessions work. I think they're dictionaries and I can write dictionary values into them and retrieve them days later as long as I set the session to permanent and the cookie doesn't get deleted. Any ideas why this weird behaviour is happening?

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  • NSKeyedUnarchiver chokes when trying to unarchive more than one object

    - by ajduff574
    We've got a custom matrix class, and we're attempting to archive and unarchive an NSArray containing four of them. The first seems to get unarchived fine (we can see that initWithCoder is called once), but then the program simply hangs, using 100% CPU. It doesn't continue or output any errors. These are the relevant methods from the matrix class (rows, columns, and matrix are our only instance variables): -(void)encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*) coder { float temp[rows * columns]; for(int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { for(int j = 0; j < columns; j++) { temp[columns * i + j] = matrix[i][j]; } } [coder encodeBytes:(const void *)temp length:rows*columns*sizeof(float) forKey:@"matrix"]; [coder encodeInteger:rows forKey:@"rows"]; [coder encodeInteger:columns forKey:@"columns"]; } -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *) coder { if (self = [super init]) { rows = [coder decodeIntegerForKey:@"rows"]; columns = [coder decodeIntegerForKey:@"columns"]; NSUInteger * len; *len = (unsigned int)(rows * columns * sizeof(float)); float * temp = (float * )[coder decodeBytesForKey:@"matrix" returnedLength:len]; matrix = (float ** )calloc(rows, sizeof(float*)); for (int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { matrix[i] = (float*)calloc(columns, sizeof(float)); } for(int i = 0; i < rows *columns; i++) { matrix[i / columns][i % columns] = temp[i]; } } return self; } And this is really all we're trying to do: NSArray * weightMatrices = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:w1,w2,w3,w4,nil]; [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:weightMatrices toFile:@"weights.archive"]; NSArray * newWeights = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:@"weights.archive"]; What's driving us crazy is that we can archive and unarchive a single matrix just fine. We've done so (successfully) with a matrix many times larger than these four combined.

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  • Resizing Images In a Table Using JavaScript

    - by Abluescarab
    Hey, all. I apologize beforehand if none of this makes sense, or if I sound incompetent... I've been making webpages for a while, but don't know any JavaScript. I am trying to make a webpage for a friend, and he requested if I could write some code to resize the images in the page based on the user's screen resolution. I did some research on this question, and it's kind of similar to this, this, and this. Unfortunately, those articles didn't answer my question entirely because none of the methods described worked. Right now, I have a three-column webpage with 10 images in a table in the left sidebar, and when I use percentages for their sizes, they don't resize right between monitors. As such, I'm trying to write a JavaScript function that changes their sizes after detecting the screen resolution. The code is stripped from my post if I put it all, so I'll just say that each image links to a website and uses a separate image to change color when you hover over it. Would I have to address both images to change their sizes correctly? I use a JavaScript function to switch between them. Anyway, I tried both methods in this article and neither worked for me. If it helps, I'm using Google Chrome, but I'm trying to make this page as cross-browser as possible. Here's the code I have so far in my JavaScript function: function resizeImages() { var w = window.width; var h = window.height; var yuk = document.getElementById('yuk').style; var wb = document.getElementById('wb').style; var tf = document.getElementById('tf').style; var lh = document.getElementById('lh').style; var ko = document.getElementById('ko').style; var gz = document.getElementById('gz').style; var fb = document.getElementById('fb').style; var eg = document.getElementById('eg').style; var dl = document.getElementById('dl').style; var da = document.getElementById('da').style; if (w = "800" && h = "600") { } else if (w = "1024" && h = "768") { } else if (w = "1152" && h = "864") { } else if (w = "1280" && h = "720") { } else if (w = "1280" && h = "768") { } else if (w = "1280" && h = "800") { } else if (w = "1280" && h = "960") { } else if (w = "1280" && h = "1024") { } } Yeah, I don't have much in it because I don't know if I'm doing it right yet. Is this a way I can detect the "width" and "height" properties of a window? The "yuk", "wb", etcetera are the images I'm trying to change the size of. To sum it up: I want to resize images based on screen resolution using JavaScript, but my research attempts have been... futile. I'm sorry if that was long-winded, but thanks ahead of time!

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  • Javascript works great locally, but not on my server

    - by Jonathan Cohen
    I'm teaching myself javascript by creating a script for displaying an external rss feed on a webpage. The code I patched together works great locally. This is a screen grab of the code producing exactly the desired behavior. The code is populating all the information inside the section "Blog: Shades of Gray", except for "tagged" which I hard coded: But when I upload the site files to my server, the code doesn't work at all. This is a screen grab of the code on my site NOT producing the desired behavior... This feels like I'm not getting something really basic about how javascript works locally vs. on the server. I did my half hour of googling for an answer and no trails look promising. So I'd really appreciate your help. This is my site (under construction) http://jonathangcohen.com Below is the code, which can also be found at http://jonathangcohen.com/grabFeeds.js. /*Javascript for Displaying an External RSS Feed on a Webpage Wrote some code that’ll grab attributes from an rss feed and assign IDs for displaying on a webpage. The code references my Tumblr blog but it’ll extend to any RSS feed.*/ window.onload = writeRSS; function writeRSS(){ writeBlog(); } function writeBlog(){ if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","http://blog.jonathangcohen.com/rss.xml",false); xmlhttp.send(); xmlDoc=xmlhttp.responseXML; var x=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("item"); //append category to link for (i=0;i<3;i++) { if (i == 0){ //print category var blogTumblrCategory = x[i].getElementsByTagName("category")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogCategory1").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="http://blog.jonathangcohen.com/tagged/'+blogTumblrCategory+'">'+blogTumblrCategory+'</a>'; //print date var k = x[i].getElementsByTagName("pubDate")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue thisDate = new Date(); thisDate = formatTumblrDate(k); document.getElementById("getBlogPublishDate1").innerHTML = thisDate; //print title var blogTumblrTitle = x[i].getElementsByTagName("title")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue var blogTumblrLink = x[i].getElementsByTagName("link")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogTitle1").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="'+blogTumblrLink+'">'+blogTumblrTitle+'</a>'; } if (i == 1){ //print category var blogTumblrCategory = x[i].getElementsByTagName("category")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogCategory2").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="http://blog.jonathangcohen.com/tagged/'+blogTumblrCategory+'">'+blogTumblrCategory+'</a>'; //print date var k = x[i].getElementsByTagName("pubDate")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue thisDate = new Date(); thisDate = formatTumblrDate(k); document.getElementById("getBlogPublishDate2").innerHTML = thisDate; //print title var blogTumblrTitle = x[i].getElementsByTagName("title")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue var blogTumblrLink = x[i].getElementsByTagName("link")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogTitle2").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="'+blogTumblrLink+'">'+blogTumblrTitle+'</a>'; } if (i == 2){ //print category var blogTumblrCategory = x[i].getElementsByTagName("category")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogCategory3").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="http://blog.jonathangcohen.com/tagged/'+blogTumblrCategory+'">'+blogTumblrCategory+'</a>'; //print date var k = x[i].getElementsByTagName("pubDate")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue thisDate = new Date(); thisDate = formatTumblrDate(k); document.getElementById("getBlogPublishDate3").innerHTML = thisDate; //print title var blogTumblrTitle = x[i].getElementsByTagName("title")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue var blogTumblrLink = x[i].getElementsByTagName("link")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogTitle3").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="'+blogTumblrLink+'">'+blogTumblrTitle+'</a>'; } } } function formatTumblrDate(k){ d = new Date(k); var curr_date = d.getDate(); var curr_month = d.getMonth(); curr_month++; var curr_year = d.getFullYear(); printDate = (curr_month + "/" + curr_date + "/" + curr_year); return printDate; } Thank you!

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  • Would a Centralized Blogging Service Work?

    - by viatropos
    If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models. My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that the main point of a website? Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook?

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  • Excel UDF calculation should return 'original' value

    - by LeChe
    Hi all, I've been struggling with a VBA problem for a while now and I'll try to explain it as thoroughly as possible. I have created a VSTO plugin with my own RTD implementation that I am calling from my Excel sheets. To avoid having to use the full-fledged RTD syntax in the cells, I have created a UDF that hides that API from the sheet. The RTD server I created can be enabled and disabled through a button in a custom Ribbon component. The behavior I want to achieve is as follows: If the server is disabled and a reference to my function is entered in a cell, I want the cell to display Disabled If the server is disabled, but the function had been entered in a cell when it was enabled (and the cell thus displays a value), I want the cell to keep displaying that value If the server is enabled, I want the cell to display Loading Sounds easy enough. Here is an example of the - non functional - code: Public Function RetrieveData(id as Long) Dim result as String // This returns either 'Disabled' or 'Loading' result = Application.Worksheet.Function.RTD("SERVERNAME", "", id) RetrieveData = result If(result = "Disabled") Then // Obviously, this recurses (and fails), so that's not an option If(Not IsEmpty(Application.Caller.Value2)) Then // So does this RetrieveData = Application.Caller.Value2 End If End If End Function The function will be called in thousands of cells, so storing the 'original' values in another data structure would be a major overhead and I would like to avoid it. Also, the RTD server does not know the values, since it also does not keep a history of it, more or less for the same reason. I was thinking that there might be some way to exit the function which would force it to not change the displayed value, but so far I have been unable to find anything like that. Any ideas on how to solve this are greatly appreciated! Thanks, Che EDIT: By popular demand, some additional info on why I want to do all this: As I said, the function will be called in thousands of cells and the RTD server needs to retrieve quite a bit of information. This can be quite hard on both network and CPU. To allow the user to decide for himself whether he wants this load on his machine, he or she can disable the updates from the server. In that case, he or she should still be able to calculate the sheets with the values currently in the fields, yet no updates are pushed into them. Once new data is required, the server can be enabled and the fields will be updated. Again, since we are talking about quite a bit of data here, I would rather not store it somewhere in the sheet. Plus, the data should be usable even if the workbook is closed and loaded again.

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  • Can we identify individual sectors of a circle component uniquely in flex?

    - by Angeline Aarthi
    I have a custom circle component in my application, which is divided into 3 sectors as of now.Can we uniquely identify each segments of this circle? I want to drag and drop text or images from another container to this circle component. But I want to place different images in the different sectors. Is it possible to distinguish the individual sectors of the circle component? Here is my code: <mx:TabNavigator width="624" height="100%"> <mx:VBox id="currQuote" label="Currents Quote" width="100%"> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="150"/> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="120"/> <comp:MyCircle x1="175" y1="150" radius="25"/> <comp:MyLine x1="160" y1="122"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Quote Comparison" width="100%"/> <mx:VBox label="Reports" width="100%"/> </mx:TabNavigator> Circle component: package components { import mx.core.UIComponent; public class MyCircle extends UIComponent { public var x1:int; public var y1:int; public var radius:int; override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { graphics.lineStyle(1, 0x000000); graphics.drawCircle(x1, y1, radius); } } } Line component: package components { import mx.core.UIComponent; public class MyLine extends UIComponent { public var x1:int; public var y1:int; override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { graphics.lineStyle(1, 0x000000); graphics.moveTo(100,0); graphics.lineTo(x1, y1); graphics.moveTo(250,0); graphics.lineTo(185,120); } } } Actually I want the circle to be divided into 6 sectors, but for now just divided it into 3 sectors. But is it possible to uniqulely identify the individual sectors of the circle so that I can drag different images or texts into those particular sectors?

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  • Why is my UIImageView blurred?

    - by Denis M
    I have a really weird problem with UIImageView. I have an image (an RGB png) 45x45 pixels which I add to the view. I can see that image is blurred after added to the view. Here is the same image in the simulator (left) and in Xcode (right): I have custom UIImageView class with this initWithImage code: - (id) initWithImage:(UIImage*) image { self = [super initWithImage:image]; self.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 45, 45); self.contentMode = UIViewContentModeScaleAspectFit; self.quantity = 1; if (self) { self.label = [[UITextField alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,40,45,25)]; self.label.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:16]; self.label.borderStyle = UITextBorderStyleNone; self.label.enabled = TRUE; self.label.userInteractionEnabled = TRUE; self.label.delegate = self; self.label.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeNumbersAndPunctuation; self.label.textAlignment = UITextAlignmentCenter; } self.userInteractionEnabled = TRUE; // Prepare 3 buttons: count up, count down, and delete self.deleteButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; self.deleteButton.hidden = NO; self.deleteButton.userInteractionEnabled = YES; self.deleteButton.titleLabel.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:20]; self.deleteButton.titleLabel.textColor = [UIColor redColor]; [self.deleteButton setTitle:@"X" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.deleteButton addTarget:self action:@selector(deleteIcon:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; self.upCountButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; self.upCountButton.hidden = NO; self.upCountButton.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [self.upCountButton setTitle:@"+" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.upCountButton addTarget:self action:@selector(addQuantity:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; self.downCountButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect]; self.downCountButton.hidden = YES; self.downCountButton.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [self.downCountButton setTitle:@"-" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.downCountButton addTarget:self action:@selector(removeQuantity:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return self; } I create it like this: UIImage *desertIcon = [UIImage imageNamed:@"desert.png"]; IconObj *desertIconView = [[IconObj alloc] initWithImage:desertIcon]; desertIconView.center = CGPointMake(265,VERTICAL_POINT_ICON); desertIconView.type = [IconObj TYPE_DESERT]; [self.view addSubview:desertIconView]; [desertIconView release]; Why would the displayed image be so than the one stored in a file?

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  • c# - How do you get a variable's name as it was physically typed in its declaration?

    - by Petras
    The class below contains the field city. I need to dynamically determine the field's name as it is typed in the class declaration i.e. I need to get the string "city" from an instance of the object city. I have tried to do this by examining its Type in DoSomething() but can't find it when examining the contents of the Type in the debugger. Is it possible? public class Person { public string city = "New York"; public Person() { } public void DoSomething() { Type t = city.GetType(); string field_name = t.SomeUnkownFunction(); //would return the string "city" if it existed! } } Some people in their answers below have asked me why I want to do this. Here's why. In my real world situation, there is a custom attribute above city. [MyCustomAttribute("param1", "param2", etc)] public string city = "New York"; I need this attribute in other code. To get the attribute, I use reflection. And in the reflection code I need to type the string "city" MyCustomAttribute attr; Type t = typeof(Person); foreach (FieldInfo field in t.GetFields()) { if (field.Name == "city") { //do stuff when we find the field that has the attribute we need } } Now this isn't type safe. If I changed the variable "city" to "workCity" in my field declaration in Person this line would fail unless I knew to update the string if (field.Name == "workCity") //I have to make this change in another file for this to still work, yuk! { } So I am trying to find some way to pass the string to this code without physically typing it. Yes, I could declare it as a string constant in Person (or something like that) but that would still be typing it twice. Phew! That was tough to explain!! Thanks Thanks to all who answered this * a lot*. It sent me on a new path to better understand lambda expressions. And it created a new question.

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  • Core-Data Can't pass managedObjectContext from app delegate to view controller

    - by yahuie
    I'm making a core-data application that is view based. I can create the managedObjectContext and 'use' it in the app delegate, but can not pass it to the mainviewcontroller. Probably something simple, but I can't find the problem after looking for quite a while. The managedObjectModel is nil in the mainviewcontroller. The log and error is here: 2010-06-02 11:01:10.504 TestCoreData[404:207] Could not make MOC in MainViewController implementation. 2010-06-02 11:01:10.505 TestCoreData[404:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: '+entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'Shelf'' 2010-06-02 11:01:10.506 TestCoreData[404:207] Stack: ( 30864475, 2452296969, 28852395, 12038, 3217218, 10258, 2700679, 2738614, 2726708, 2709119, 2736225, 38960473, 30649216, 30645320, 2702869, 2740143, 9704, 9558 ) (gdb) Code for app delegate here: -(BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { MainViewController *aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; self.mainViewController = aController; [aController release]; NSLog(@"before did finish launching"); if (self.managedObjectContext == nil) { NSLog(@"Could not make MOC in TestCoreDataAppDelegate implementation."); } //Just to see if I can access the here. NSFetchRequest* request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription* entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Shelf" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; if (!entity) { NSLog(@"No Entity in TestCoreDataAppDelegate didfinishlaunching"); } NSLog(@"passed did finish launching"); NSManagedObjectContext *context = [self managedObjectContext]; self.mainViewController.view.frame = [UIScreen mainScreen].applicationFrame; self.mainViewController.managedObjectContext = context; [context release]; [window addSubview:[mainViewController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } Code in MainViewController here: @implementation MainViewController @synthesize managedObjectContext; - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if ((self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil])) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if (self.managedObjectContext == nil) { NSLog(@"Could not make MOC in MainViewController implementation."); } NSFetchRequest* request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription* entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Shelf" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; } Thanks.

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  • How can I edit an entity in MVC4 with EF5 which has a unique constraint?

    - by Yoeri
    [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { db.Entry(car).State = EntityState.Modified; db.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(car); } This is a controller method scaffolded by MCV 4 My "car" entity has a unique field: LicensePlate. I have custom validation on my Entity: Validation: public partial class Car { partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults) { using (var db = new GarageIncEntities()) { if (db.Cars.Any(c => c.LicensePlate.Equals(this.LicensePlate))) { validationResults.Add( new ValidationResult("This licenseplate already exists.", new string[]{"LicensePlate"})); } } } } should it be usefull, my car entity: public partial class Car:IValidatableObject { public int Id { get; set; } public string Color { get; set; } public int Weight { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public string LicensePlate { get; set; } public System.DateTime DateOfSale { get; set; } public int Type_Id { get; set; } public int Fuel_Id { get; set; } public virtual CarType Type { get; set; } public virtual Fuel Fuel { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationResult> Validate(ValidationContext validationContext) { var result = new List<ValidationResult>(); ValidateObject(ref result); return result; } partial void ValidateObject(ref List<ValidationResult> validationResults); } QUESTION: Everytime I edit a car, it raises an error: Validation failed for one or more entities. See 'EntityValidationErrors' property for more details. The error is the one raised by my validation, saying it can't edit because there is already a car with that license plate. If anyone could point me in the right direction to fix this, that would be great! I searched but couldn't find anything, so even related posts are welcome!

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  • Under what circumstances would a LINQ-to-SQL Entity "lose" a changed field?

    - by John Rudy
    I'm going nuts over what should be a very simple situation. In an ASP.NET MVC 2 app (not that I think this matters), I have an edit action which takes a very small entity and makes a few changes. The key portion (outside of error handling/security) looks like this: Todo t = Repository.GetTodoByID(todoID); UpdateModel(t); Repository.Save(); Todo is the very simple, small entity with the following fields: ID (primary key), FolderID (foreign key), PercentComplete, TodoText, IsDeleted and SaleEffortID (foreign key). Each of these obviously corresponds to a field in the database. When UpdateModel(t) is called, t does get correctly updated for all fields which have changed. When Repository.Save() is called, by the time the SQL is written out, FolderID reverts back to its original value. The complete code to Repository.Save(): public void Save() { myDataContext.SubmitChanges(); } myDataContext is an instance of the DataContext class created by the LINQ-to-SQL designer. Nothing custom has been done to this aside from adding some common interfaces to some of the entities. I've validated that the FolderID is getting lost before the call to Repository.Save() by logging out the generated SQL: UPDATE [Todo].[TD_TODO] SET [TD_PercentComplete] = @p4, [TD_TodoText] = @p5, [TD_IsDeleted] = @p6 WHERE ([TD_ID] = @p0) AND ([TD_TDF_ID] = @p1) AND /* Folder ID */ ([TD_PercentComplete] = @p2) AND ([TD_TodoText] = @p3) AND (NOT ([TD_IsDeleted] = 1)) AND ([TD_SE_ID] IS NULL) /* SaleEffort ID */ -- @p0: Input BigInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [5] -- @p1: Input BigInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] /* this SHOULD be 4 and in the update list */ -- @p2: Input TinyInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [90] -- @p3: Input NVarChar (Size = 4000; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [changing text] -- @p4: Input TinyInt (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [0] -- @p5: Input NVarChar (Size = 4000; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [changing text foo] -- @p6: Input Bit (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [True] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2005) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 4.0.30319.1 So somewhere between UpdateModel(t) (where I've validated in the debugger that FolderID updated) and the output of this SQL, the FolderID reverts. The other fields all save. (Well, OK, I haven't validated SaleEffortID yet, because that subsystem isn't really ready yet, but everything else saves.) I've exhausted my own means of research on this: Does anyone know of conditions which would cause a partial entity reset (EG, something to do with long foreign keys?), and/or how to work around this?

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  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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  • Scrolling RelativeLayout- white border over part of the content

    - by Tanis.7x
    I have a fairly simply Fragment that adds a handful of colored ImageViews to a RelativeLayout. There are more images than can fit on screen, so I implemented some custom scrolling. However, When I scroll around, I see that there is an approximately 90dp white border overlapping part of the content right where the edges of the screen are before I scroll. It is obvious that the ImageViews are still being created and drawn properly, but they are being covered up. How do I get rid of this? I have tried: Changing both the RelativeLayout and FrameLayout to WRAP_CONTENT, FILL_PARENT, MATCH_PARENT, and a few combinations of those. Setting the padding and margins of both layouts to 0dp. Example: Fragment: public class MyFrag extends Fragment implements OnTouchListener { int currentX; int currentY; RelativeLayout container; final int[] colors = {Color.BLACK, Color.RED, Color.BLUE}; @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup fragContainer, Bundle savedInstanceState) { return inflater.inflate(R.layout.fragment_myfrag, null); } @Override public void onActivityCreated(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onActivityCreated(savedInstanceState); container = (RelativeLayout) getView().findViewById(R.id.container); container.setOnTouchListener(this); // Temp- Add a bunch of images to test scrolling for(int i=0; i<1500; i+=100) { for (int j=0; j<1500; j+=100) { int color = colors[(i+j)%3]; ImageView image = new ImageView(getActivity()); image.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER); image.setBackgroundColor(color); LayoutParams lp = new RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(100, 100); lp.setMargins(i, j, 0, 0); image.setLayoutParams(lp); container.addView(image); } } } @Override public boolean onTouch(View v, MotionEvent event) { switch (event.getAction()) { case MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN: { currentX = (int) event.getRawX(); currentY = (int) event.getRawY(); break; } case MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE: { int x2 = (int) event.getRawX(); int y2 = (int) event.getRawY(); container.scrollBy(currentX - x2 , currentY - y2); currentX = x2; currentY = y2; break; } case MotionEvent.ACTION_UP: { break; } } return true; } } XML: <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" tools:context=".FloorPlanFrag"> <RelativeLayout android:id="@+id/container" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> </FrameLayout>

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  • How to catch 'exceptions' for out of order execution in Workflow Foundation 4?

    - by Alex Key
    Hi, I am attempting to model a worklfow using a "WCF Workflow Service" in .net / vs 2010 that needs to handle out of order execution gracefully (but not allow it - if thath makes sense!?) For example I have 2 receive activities one called Initialize and the other called GetValue inside a FlowChart. In most cases Initialize should be called first and GetValue after (as modled in the flow chart). However if GetValue is executed before Initialize I do not want to return an "out of order" exception (although when I look at the WCF test client, I can't actually see an exception). But instead a custom exception saying something like "you must initialize first". In theory I could model this with lots of parallel activities and conditions to check if Initialized / Running / Terminated etc. But the business process I am modelling if very very similar to a state machine... except it must handle people executing things in the wrong order. Ideally I would like to catch the "out of order" exception (thought I don't think it's really an exception as such), check the 'exception' to see which function was attempted to run and then handle it. I have done some research around enabling AllowBufferedReceive. However I don't want to be able to execute out of order (I don't think), but instead give a detailed response if it does happen. I've looked at the new beta state machine template for WF 4 - but i'm not sure if it does what i'm after? I'm not sure if I have the wrong end of the stick, so any help would be greatly appreciated. [EDIT] To help clarify... Sorry it's a tricky one to explain. The standard I am trying to implement (the e-learning standard SCORM RTE) is structured like a state machine i.e. certain functions can only be executed in certain states. However the standard specifies that if the calling clients tries to execute a function that it is not meant to, then a warning should be issued... for example "you cannot use GetValue(), because you have not yet Initialized". Ideally I'd like to structure the workflow as the theoretical state machine and not need to have to use multiple if/else's to handle all the scenarios where something could be executed out-of-order. I'd like to catch a out-of-order exception (but I don't think there is such an exception - as it's not in the debugger) and rethrow it.

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  • Did I find a bug in PHP's `crypt()`?

    - by Nathan Long
    I think I may have found a bug in PHP's crypt() function under Windows. However: I recognize that it's probably my fault. PHP is used by millions and worked on by thousands; my code is used by tens and worked on by me. (This argument is best explained on Coding Horror.) So I'm asking for help: show me my fault. I've been trying to find it for a few days now, with no luck. The setup I'm using a Windows server installation with Apache 2.2.14 (Win32) and PHP 5.3.2. My development box runs Windows XP Professional; the 'production' server (this is an intranet setup) runs Windows Storage Server 2003. The problem happens on both. I don't see anything in php.ini related to crypt(), but will happily answer questions about my config. The problem Several scripts in my PHP app occasionally hang: the page sits there on 'waiting for localhost' and never finishes. Each of these scripts uses crypt to hash a user's password before storing it in the database, or, in the case of the login page, to hash the entered password before comparing it to the version stored in the database. Since the login page is the simplest, I focused on it for testing. I repeatedly logged in, and found that it would hang maybe 4 out of 10 times. As an experiment, I changed the login page to use the plain text password and changed my password in the database to its plain text version. The page stopped hanging. I saw that PHP's latest version lists this bugfix: Fixed bug #51059 (crypt crashes when invalid salt are [sic] given). So I created a very simple test script, as follows, using the same salt given in an official example: $foo = crypt('rasmuslerdorf','r1'); echo $foo; This page, too, will hang, if I reload it like crazy. I only see it hanging in Chrome, but regardless of browser, the effect on Apache is the same. Effect on Apache When these pages hang, Apache's server-status page (which I explained here, regarding a different problem) increments the number of requests being processed and decrements the number of idle workers. The requests being processed almost all have a status of 'Sending Reply,' though sometimes for a moment they will show either 'Reading request' or 'keepalive (read).' Eventually, Apache may crash. When it does, the Windows crash report looks like this: szAppName: httpd.exe szAppVer: 2.2.14.0 szModName: php5ts.dll szModVer: 5.3.1.0 // OK, this report was before I upgraded to PHP 5.3.2, // but that didn't fix it offset: 00a2615 Is it my fault? I'm tempted to file a bug report to PHP on this. The argument against it is, as stated above, that bugs are nearly always my fault. However, my argument in favor of 'it's PHP's fault' is: I'm using Windows, whereas most servers use Linux (I don't get to choose this), so the chances are greater that I've found an edge case There was recently a bug with crypt(), so maybe it still has issues I have made the simplest test case I can, and I still have the problem Can anyone duplicate this? Can you suggest where I've gone wrong? Should I file the bug after all? Thanks in advance for any help you may give.

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  • transforming binary data using ssis and sql server 2008

    - by Rick
    Hello All - I have a task to import/transform and extract zipped binary files that contain both text data as well as embeded binary data. Within the data is data that is relational in nature and needs to be processed into a defined database structure. Currently I have a C# single threaded app that essentially grabs all the files from the directory (currently there is 13K files of varying sizes) and extracts the data on a single thread line by line inserts to the database. As you could imagine this is a very slow process and unacceptable. There are several different parsing routines used depending on the header record in the file. There are potentially upto a million rows per file when all the data is extracted to the row level of detail. Follow on task is to parse those rows into their appropriate tables based on is content. i.e. the textual content has to be parsed further into "buckets" of like data in the database. That about sums up the big picture. Now for the problem task list. How do i iterate through a packet of data using SSIS? In the app the file is decompressed and then is parsed using streams data type and byte arrays and is routed to the required parsing routine based on the header data of each packet. There is bit swapping involved as well. Should i wrap up the app code into a script task(s) and let it do the custom processing? The data is seperated by year and the sql server tables is partitioned by year as well. I need to be able to "catch" bad file data as well and process by hand most likely. Should i simply load the zipped file to sql as a blob and parse the file with T-SQL? Would that be multi threaded if done that way? Not sure how to do the parsing in tsql that is involved here. Which do you think would be faster? Potentially the data that is currently processed via files could come to us via a socket. Can SSIS collect that data in real time? How would i go about setting that up? Processing these new files from the directorys will become a daily task. I can manage the data once i get it to sql server. Getting it there in a timely fashion seems to be the long pole in the tent for me. I would appreciate any comments or suggestions from the group. Rick

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  • php paypal ipn membership error

    - by aleksander haugas
    hello I integrated the membership subscription in the website, but I fail to insert data to the database. checking out all the function I make a txt file with php with data and generates me correctly. but I can not verify any data and less insert. <?php // read the post from PayPal system and add 'cmd' $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // Post back to PayPal system to validate $header .= "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('ssl://www.paypal.com', 443, $errno, $errstr, 30); // Assign posted variables to local variables $item_name = $_POST['item_name']; $item_number = $_POST['item_number']; $payment_status = $_POST['payment_status']; $payment_amount = $_POST['mc_gross']; $payment_currency = $_POST['mc_currency']; $txn_id = $_POST['txn_id']; $receiver_email = $_POST['receiver_email']; $payer_email = $_POST['payer_email']; $user_id = $_POST['custom']; //Here i make the txt file and it works correctly //but after this does not work or make a txt file //Insert and update data if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { //Verificamos el estado del pedido if ($payment_status == 'Completed') { $txn_id_check = mysql_query("SELECT Transaction_ID FROM ".$db_table_prefix."Users_Payments WHERE Transaction_ID='".$txn_id."'"); if (mysql_num_rows($txn_id_check) !=1) { //Si el pago se ha realizado al dueño especificado y coincide con el dueño if ($receiver_email == $website_Payment_Email) { //Tipo de cuenta segun pagado if ($payment_amount == '10.00' && $payment_currency == 'EUR') { //add txn_id to database $log_query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO `".$db_table_prefix."Users_Payments` VALUES ('','".$txn_id."','".$payer_email."')"); //update premium to 3 $update_premium = mysql_query("UPDATE ".$db_table_prefix."Users SET Group_ID='3' WHERE User_ID='".$user_id."'"); } } } } } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // log for manual investigation } } fclose ($fp); } ?> I call this file with require_once () with the connection to the database any ideas? thanks

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  • Workflow for statistical analysis and report writing

    - by ws
    Does anyone have any wisdom on workflows for data analysis related to custom report writing? The use-case is basically this: Client commissions a report that uses data analysis, e.g. a population estimate and related maps for a water district. The analyst downloads some data, munges the data and saves the result (e.g. adding a column for population per unit, or subsetting the data based on district boundaries). The analyst analyzes the data created in (2), gets close to her goal, but sees that needs more data and so goes back to (1). Rinse repeat until the tables and graphics meet QA/QC and satisfy the client. Write report incorporating tables and graphics. Next year, the happy client comes back and wants an update. This should be as simple as updating the upstream data by a new download (e.g. get the building permits from the last year), and pressing a "RECALCULATE" button, unless specifications change. At the moment, I just start a directory and ad-hoc it the best I can. I would like a more systematic approach, so I am hoping someone has figured this out... I use a mix of spreadsheets, SQL, ARCGIS, R, and Unix tools. Thanks! PS: Below is a basic Makefile that checks for dependencies on various intermediate datasets (w/ ".RData" suffix) and scripts (".R" suffix). Make uses timestamps to check dependencies, so if you 'touch ss07por.csv', it will see that this file is newer than all the files / targets that depend on it, and execute the given scripts in order to update them accordingly. This is still a work in progress, including a step for putting into SQL database, and a step for a templating language like sweave. Note that Make relies on tabs in its syntax, so read the manual before cutting and pasting. Enjoy and give feedback! http://www.gnu.org/software/make/manual/html%5Fnode/index.html#Top R=/home/wsprague/R-2.9.2/bin/R persondata.RData : ImportData.R ../../DATA/ss07por.csv Functions.R $R --slave -f ImportData.R persondata.Munged.RData : MungeData.R persondata.RData Functions.R $R --slave -f MungeData.R report.txt: TabulateAndGraph.R persondata.Munged.RData Functions.R $R --slave -f TabulateAndGraph.R report.txt

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  • ArrayAdapter throwing ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException

    - by alex
    I am getting an error of an array out of bounce error when i am using my custom array adapter. I am wondering if there are any coding errors I have overlooked. Here is the error log 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to start activity ComponentInfo{alex.android.galaxy.tab.latest/alex.android.galaxy.tab.latest.Basic_db_output}: java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2663) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2679) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$2300(ActivityThread.java:125) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:2033) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4627) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:868) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:626) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): Caused by: java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at alex.android.galaxy.tab.latest.Basic_db_output.onCreate(Basic_db_output.java:44) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.app.Instrumentation.callActivityOnCreate(Instrumentation.java:1047) 06-10 20:21:53.254: E/AndroidRuntime(315): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:2627) I am basing my code example on this How to use ArrayAdapter<myClass> ArrayList list = new ArrayList(); for(int i=1; i <= 3; i++) { Reader reader = new ResultsReader("android_galaxy_tab_latest/src/quiz"+i+".txt"); reader.read(); String str = ((ResultsReader)reader).getInput(); String data[] = str.split("<.>"); Question q = new Question(); q.question = data[0]; q.answer = Integer.parseInt(data[1]); q.choice1 = data[2]; q.choice2 = data[3]; q.choice3 = data[4]; list.add(q); }

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  • Java Applet Deployment, ClassNotFoundException (primary class)

    - by Matt
    This is driving me up the wall. I have checked and rechecked spelling and paths. I have tried just about every combination of paths, including relative, absolute, and full http paths. I continue to get the following error when trying to load a Java applet: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: AppletClient.class at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2ClassLoader.loadCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Exception: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: AppletClient.class The HTML used to load the applet: <applet width="100" height="100" archive="applet/myapplet.jar, applet/applet_dependency.jar" code="AppletClient.class"> <param value="blahblah" name="username"> <param value="false" name="codebase_lookup"> </applet> The applet is in a relative directory, "applet", from the path of the current page. I have unzipped the jar file and can see AppletClient.class. Also, in the source of the project, it is spelled that way (casing and all). I have tried with/without the parameters. I have changed the names of the archive jars in the applet include tag just to see if I get a different error for bad file names (same error). I have manually done GETs on the jars to make sure the server is responding to the requests (it is). I have tried with and without the codebase tag, with all different varieties of paths (start getting bad "magic number" errors on those). I know that this error sometimes pops up when a dependency fails to load, so it can be misleading, but all dependencies are present, accounted for, and are fetchable via manual GETs. Between each and every attempt I always clear my cache in FireFox. These problems are reproduced in IE8 and Chrome as well. Per my Java Console from the browser, I am running Java Plug-in 1.6.0_20. This is from the same machine that I develop the applet on, which runs fine via Eclipse. Finally, I kicked on Fiddler2, and I don't see a single request for the jar files anywhere The host site is running from my Visual Studio debugger, so it's running on localhost. But I see the requests for all the other resources on Fiddler. Just... no Jars. ANYWHERE. I clear the log, cleared my browser cache, and did a ctrl-R refresh. And still, not a single Jar request on the Fiddler log. I even did a delayed write (with JS) of the applet tag after the page loaded, once all the Fiddler activity slowed down. The element gets written to the document (and I can see the 100x100 Java error window), but not a single request shows up on Fiddler. Any suggestions, before I go crawl into the corner and cry myself to sleep? EDIT: From the Java console, if I hit "l" (el) to "dump classloader list", I see something that looks like this: Live entry: key=http://localhost:55446/BaseWebSite/,http://localhost:55446/BaseWebSite/applet/myappliet.jar, http://localhost:55446/BaseWebSite/applet/applet_dependency.jar, refCount=1, threadGroup=sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ThreadGroup[name=http://localhost:55446/BaseWebSite/-threadGroup,maxpri=4]

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  • What's the best way to return stuff from a PHP function, and simultaneously trigger a jQuery action?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    So the title is a tad ambiguous, but I'll try and give an example. Basically, I have an 'awards' system (similar to that of StackOverflow's badges) in my PHP/CodeIgniter site, and I want, as soon as an award is earned, a notification to appear to the user. Now I'm happy to have this appear on the next page load, but, ideally I'd like it to appear as soon as the award is transactioned since my site is mostly Ajax-powered and there may not be page reloads very often. The way the system works currently, is: 1) If the user does something to trigger the earning of an award, CodeIgniter does this: $params['user_id'] = $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(); $params['award_id'] = 1; // (I have a database table with different awards in) $this->awards->award($params); 2) My custom library, $this->awards, runs the award function: function award($params) { $sql = $this->ci->db->query("INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('".$params['user_id']."','".$params['award_id']."') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1"); $awardinfo = $this->ci->db->query("SELECT * FROM awards WHERE id = ".$params['award_id']); // If it's the 'first time' the user has gotten the award (e.g. they've earnt it) if ($awardinfo->row('duplicate') == 0) { $params['title'] = $awardinfo->row('title'); $params['description'] = $awardinfo->row('description'); $params['iconpath'] = $awardinfo->row('iconpath'); $params['percentage'] = $awardinfo->row('percentage'); return $params; } } So, it awards the user (and if they've earnt it twice, updates a useless duplicate field by one), then checks if it's the first time they've earnt it (so it can alert them of the award). If so, it gets the variables (title of the award, the award description, the path to an icon to display for the award, and finally the percentage of users who have also got this award) and returns them as an array. So... that's that. Now I'd like to know, what's the best way to do this? Currently my Award-giving bit is called from a controller, but I guess if I want this to trigger via Ajax, then the code should be placed in a View file...? To sum it up: I need the returned award data to appear without a page refresh. What's the best way of doing this? (I'm already using jQuery on my page). Thanks very much everybody! Jack

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  • XNA - Mouse coordinates to word space transformation

    - by Gabriel Butcher
    I have a pretty annoying problem. I would like to create a drawing program, using winform + XNA combo. The most important part would be to transform the mouse position into the XNA drawn grid - I was able to make it for the translations, but it only work if I don't zoom in - when I do, the coordinates simply went horrible wrong. And I have no idea what I doing wrong. I tried to transform with scaling matrix, transform with inverse scaling matrix, multiplying with zoom, but none seems to work. In the beginning (with zoom value = 1) the grid starts from (0,0,0) going to (Width, Height, 0). I was able to get coordinates based on this grid as long as the zoom value didn't changed at all. I using a custom shader, with orthographic projection matrix, identity view matrix, and the transformed world matrix. Here is the two main method: internal void Update(RenderData data) { KeyboardState keyS = Keyboard.GetState(); MouseState mouS = Mouse.GetState(); if (ButtonState.Pressed == mouS.RightButton) { camTarget.X -= (float)(mouS.X - oldMstate.X) / 2; camTarget.Y += (float)(mouS.Y - oldMstate.Y) / 2; } if (ButtonState.Pressed == mouS.MiddleButton || keyS.IsKeyDown(Keys.Space)) { zVal += (float)(mouS.Y - oldMstate.Y) / 10; zoom = (float)Math.Pow(2, zVal); } oldKState = keyS; oldMstate = mouS; world = Matrix.CreateTranslation(new Vector3(-camTarget.X, -camTarget.Y, 0)) * Matrix.CreateScale(zoom / 2); } internal PointF MousePos { get { Vector2 mousePos = new Vector2(Mouse.GetState().X, Mouse.GetState().Y); Matrix trans = Matrix.CreateTranslation(new Vector3(camTarget.X - (Width / 2), -camTarget.Y + (Height / 2), 0)); mousePos = Vector2.Transform(mousePos, trans); return new PointF(mousePos.X, mousePos.Y); } } The second method should return the coordinates of the mouse cursor based on the grid (where the (0,0) point of the grid is the top-left corner.). But is just don't work. I deleted the zoom transformation from the matrix trans, as I didnt was able to get any useful result (most of the time, the coordinates was horrible wrong, mostly many thousand when the grid's size is 500x500). Any idea, or suggestion? I trying to solve this simple problem for two days now :\

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