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  • Socket php server not showing messages sent from android client

    - by Mj1992
    Hi I am a newbie in these kind of stuff but here's what i want to do. I am trying to implement a chat application in which users will send their queries from the website and as soon as the messages are sent by the website users.It will appear in the android mobile application of the site owner who will answer their queries .In short I wanna implement a live chat. Now right now I am just simply trying to send messages from android app to php server. But when I run my php script from dreamweaver in chrome the browser keeps on loading and doesn't shows any output when I send message from the client. Sometimes it happened that the php script showed some outputs which I have sent from the android(client).But i don't know when it works and when it does not. So I want to show those messages in the php script as soon as I send those messages from client and vice versa(did not implemented the vice versa for client but help will be appreciated). Here's what I've done till now. php script: <?php set_time_limit (0); $address = '127.0.0.1'; $port = 1234; $sock = socket_create(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, 0); socket_bind($sock, $address, $port) or die('Could not bind to address'); socket_listen($sock); $client = socket_accept($sock); $welcome = "Roll up, roll up, to the greatest show on earth!\n? "; socket_write($client, $welcome,strlen($welcome)) or die("Could not send connect string\n"); do{ $input=socket_read($client,1024,1) or die("Could not read input\n"); echo "User Says: \n\t\t\t".$input; if (trim($input) != "") { echo "Received input: $input\n"; if(trim($input)=="END") { socket_close($spawn); break; } } else{ $output = strrev($input) . "\n"; socket_write($spawn, $output . "? ", strlen (($output)+2)) or die("Could not write output\n"); echo "Sent output: " . trim($output) . "\n"; } } while(true); socket_close($sock); echo "Socket Terminated"; ?> Android Code: public class ServerClientActivity extends Activity { private Button bt; private TextView tv; private Socket socket; private String serverIpAddress = "127.0.0.1"; private static final int REDIRECTED_SERVERPORT = 1234; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); bt = (Button) findViewById(R.id.myButton); tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.myTextView); try { InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress.getByName(serverIpAddress); socket = new Socket(serverAddr, REDIRECTED_SERVERPORT); } catch (UnknownHostException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } bt.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { try { EditText et = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.EditText01); String str = et.getText().toString(); PrintWriter out = new PrintWriter(new BufferedWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(socket.getOutputStream())),true); out.println(str); Log.d("Client", "Client sent message"); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); e.printStackTrace(); } catch (Exception e) { tv.setText(e.getMessage()); e.printStackTrace(); } } }); } } I've just pasted the onclick button event code for Android.Edit text is the textbox where I am going to enter my text. The ip address and port are same as in php script.

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  • Strange performance behaviour for 64 bit modulo operation

    - by codymanix
    The last three of these method calls take approx. double the time than the first four. The only difference is that their arguments doesn't fit in integer anymore. But should this matter? The parameter is declared to be long, so it should use long for calculation anyway. Does the modulo operation use another algorithm for numbersmaxint? I am using amd athlon64 3200+, winxp sp3 and vs2008. Stopwatch sw = new Stopwatch(); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 3l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 2l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue - 1l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 1l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 2l); TestLong(sw, int.MaxValue + 3l); Console.ReadLine(); static void TestLong(Stopwatch sw, long num) { long n = 0; sw.Reset(); sw.Start(); for (long i = 3; i < 20000000; i++) { n += num % i; } sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine(sw.Elapsed); } EDIT: I now tried the same with C and the issue does not occur here, all modulo operations take the same time, in release and in debug mode with and without optimizations turned on: #include "stdafx.h" #include "time.h" #include "limits.h" static void TestLong(long long num) { long long n = 0; clock_t t = clock(); for (long long i = 3; i < 20000000LL*100; i++) { n += num % i; } printf("%d - %lld\n", clock()-t, n); } int main() { printf("%i %i %i %i\n\n", sizeof (int), sizeof(long), sizeof(long long), sizeof(void*)); TestLong(3); TestLong(10); TestLong(131); TestLong(INT_MAX - 1L); TestLong(UINT_MAX +1LL); TestLong(INT_MAX + 1LL); TestLong(LLONG_MAX-1LL); getchar(); return 0; } EDIT2: Thanks for the great suggestions. I found that both .net and c (in debug as well as in release mode) does't not use atomically cpu instructions to calculate the remainder but they call a function that does. In the c program I could get the name of it which is "_allrem". It also displayed full source comments for this file so I found the information that this algorithm special cases the 32bit divisors instead of dividends which was the case in the .net application. I also found out that the performance of the c program really is only affected by the value of the divisor but not the dividend. Another test showed that the performance of the remainder function in the .net program depends on both the dividend and divisor. BTW: Even simple additions of long long values are calculated by a consecutive add and adc instructions. So even if my processor calls itself 64bit, it really isn't :( EDIT3: I now ran the c app on a windows 7 x64 edition, compiled with visual studio 2010. The funny thing is, the performance behavior stays the same, although now (I checked the assembly source) true 64 bit instructions are used.

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  • What's a clean way to have the server return a JavaScript function which would then be invoked?

    - by Khnle
    My application is architected as a host of plug-ins that have not yet been written. There's a long reason for this, but with each new year, the business logic will be different and we don't know what it will be like (Think of TurboTax if that helps). The plug-ins consist of both server and client components. The server components deals with business logic and persisting the data into database tables which will be created at a later time as well. The JavaScript manipulates the DOM for the browsers to render afterward. Each plugin lives in a separate assembly, so that they won't disturb the main application, i.e., we don't want to recompile the main application. Long story short, I am looking for a way to return JavaScript functions to the client from an Ajax get request, and execute these JavaScript functions (which are just returned). Invoking a function in Javascript is easy. The hard part is how to organize or structure so that I won't have to deal with maintenance problem. So concat using StringBuilder to end up with JavaScript code as a result of calling toString() from the string builder object is out of the question. I want to have no difference between writing JavaScript codes normally and writing Javascript codes for this dynamic purpose. An alternative is to manipulate the DOM on the server side, but I doubt that it would be as elegantly as using jQuery on the client side. I am open for a C# library that supports chainable calls like jQuery that also manipulates the DOM too. Do you have any idea or is it too much to ask or are you too confused? Edit1: The point is to avoid recompiling, hence the plug-ins architecture. In some other parts of the program, I already use the concept of dynamically loading Javascript files. That works fine. What I am looking here is somewhere in the middle of the program when an Ajax request is sent to the server. Edit 2: To illustrate my question: Normally, you would see the following code. An Ajax request is sent to the server, a JSON result is returned to the client which then uses jQuery to manipulate the DOM (creating tag and adding to the container in this case). $.ajax({ type: 'get', url: someUrl, data: {'': ''}, success: function(data) { var ul = $('<ul>').appendTo(container); var decoded = $.parseJSON(data); $.each(decoded, function(i, e) { var li = $('<li>').text(e.FIELD1 + ',' + e.FIELD2 + ',' + e.FIELD3); ul.append(li); }); } }); The above is extremely simple. But next year, what the server returns is totally different and how the data to be rendered would also be different. In a way, this is what I want: var container = $('#some-existing-element-on-the-page'); $.ajax({ type: 'get', url: someUrl, data: {'': ''}, success: function(data) { var decoded = $.parseJSON(data); var fx = decoded.fx; var data = decode.data; //fx is the dynamic function that create the DOM from the data and append to the existing container fx(container, data); } }); I don't need to know, at this time what data would be like, but in the future I will, and I can then write fx accordingly.

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  • How to do left joins with least-n-per-group query?

    - by Nate
    I'm trying to get a somewhat complicated query working and am not having any luck whatsoever. Suppose I have the following tables: cart_items: +--------------------------------------------+ | item_id | cart_id | movie_name | quantity | +--------------------------------------------+ | 0 | 0 | braveheart | 4 | | 1 | 0 | braveheart | 9 | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | +--------------------------------------------+ movies: +------------------------------+ | movie_id | movie_name | ... | +------------------------------+ | 0 | braveheart | . | | . | . | . | | . | . | . | | . | . | . | | . | . | . | +------------------------------+ pricing: +-----------------------------------------+ | id | movie_name | quantity | price_per | +-----------------------------------------+ | 0 | braveheart | 1 | 1.99 | | 1 | braveheart | 2 | 1.50 | | 2 | braveheart | 4 | 1.25 | | 3 | braveheart | 8 | 1.00 | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | | . | . | . | . | +-----------------------------------------+ I need to join the data from the tables, but with the added complexity that I need to get appropriate price_per from the pricing table. Only one price should be returned for each cart_item, and that should be the lowest price from the pricing table where the quantity for the cart item is at least the quantity in the pricing table. So, the query should return for each item in cart_items the following: +---------------------------------------------+ | item_id | movie_name | quantity | price_per | +---------------------------------------------+ Example 1: Variable passed to the query: cart_id = 0. Return: +---------------------------------------------+ | item_id | movie_name | quantity | price_per | +---------------------------------------------+ | 0 | braveheart | 4 | 1.25 | | 1 | braveheart | 9 | 1.00 | +---------------------------------------------+ Note that this is a minimalist example and that additional data will be pulled from the tables mentioned (particularly the movies table). How could this query be composed? I have tried using left joins and subqueries, but the difficult part is getting the price and nothing I have tried has worked. Thanks for your help. EDIT: I think this is similar to what I have working with my "real" tables: SELECT t1.item_id, t2.movie_name, t1.quantity FROM cart_items t1 LEFT JOIN movies t2 ON t2.movie_name = t1.movie_name WHERE t1.cart_id = 0 Assuming I wrote that correctly (I quickly tried to "port over" my real query), then the output would currently be: +---------------------------------+ | item_id | movie_name | quantity | +---------------------------------+ | 0 | braveheart | 4 | | 1 | braveheart | 9 | +---------------------------------+ The trouble I'm having is joining the price at a certain quantity for a movie. I simply cannot figure out how to do it.

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  • web application with secured sections, sessions and related trouble

    - by spirytus
    I would like to create web application with admin/checkout sections being secured. Assuming I have SSL set up for subdomain.mydomain.com I would like to make sure that all that top-secret stuff ;) like checkout pages and admin section is transferred securely. Would it be ok to structure my application as below? subdomain.mydomain.com adminSectionFolder adminPage1.php adminPage2.php checkoutPagesFolder checkoutPage1.php checkoutPage2.php checkoutPage3.php homepage.php loginPage.php someOtherPage.php someNonSecureFolder nonSecurePage1.php nonSecurePage2.php nonSecurePage3.php imagesFolder image1.jpg image2.jpg image3.jpg Users would access my web application via http as there is no need for SSL for homepage and similar. Checkout/admin pages would have to be accessed via https though (that I would ensure via .htaccess redirects). I would also like to have login form on every page of the site, including non-secure pages. Now my questions are: if I have form on non-secure page e.g http://subdomain.mydomain.com/homepage.php and that form sends data to http://subdomain.mydomain.com/loginPage.php, is data being send encrypted as if it were sent from https://subdomain.mydomain.com/homepage.php? I do realize users will not see padlock, but browser still should encrypt it, is it right? If on secure page loginPage.php (or any other accessed via https for that instance) I created session, session ID would be assigned, and in case of my web app. something like username of the logged in user. Would I be able to access these session variable from http://subdomain.mydomain.com/homepage.php to for example display greeting message? If session ID is stored in cookies then it would be trouble I assume, but could someone clarify how it should be done? It seems important to have username and password send over SSL. Related to above question I think.. would it actually make any sense to have login secured via SSL so usenrame/password would be transferred securely, and then session ID being transferred with no SSL? I mean wouldnt it be the same really if someone caught username and password being transferred, or caught session ID? Please let me know if I make sense here cause it feels like I'm missing something important. EDIT: I came up with idea but again please let me know if that would work. Having above, so assuming that sharing session between http and https is as secure as login in user via plain http (not https), I guess on all non secure pages, like homepage etc. I could check if user is already logged in, and if so from php redirect to https version of same page. So user fills in login form from homepage.php, over ssl details are send to backend so probably https://.../homepage.php. Trying to access http://.../someOtherPage.php script would always check if session is created and if so redirect user to https version of this page so https://.../someOtherPage.php. Would that work? 4.To avoid browser popping message "this page contains non secure items..." my links to css, images and all assets, e.g. in case of http://subdomain.mydomain.com/checkoutPage1.php should be absolute so "/images/image1.jpg" or relative so "../images/image1.jpg"? I guess one of those would have to work :) wow that's long post, thanks for your patience if you got that far and any answers :) oh yeh and I use php/apache on shared hosting

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  • Rails destroy confirm with Jquery AJAX

    - by Mike
    I have got this working for the most part. My rails link is: <%= link_to(image_tag('/images/bin.png', :alt => 'Remove'), @business, :class => 'delete', :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :id => 'trash') %> :class = "delete" is calling an ajax function so that it is deleted and the page isn't refreshed that works great. But because the page doesn't refresh, it is still there. So my id trash is calling this jquery function: $('[id^=trash]').click(function(){ var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); $(row).hide(); return false; }); Which is hiding the row of whatever trash icon i clicked on. This also works great. I thought I had it all worked out and then I hit this problem. When you click on my trash can I have this confirm box pop up to ask you if you are sure. Regardless of whether you choose cancel or accept, the jquery fires and it hides the row. It isn't deleted, only hidden till you refresh the page. I tried changing it so that the prompt is done through jquery, but then rails was deleteing the row regardless of what i choose in my prompt because the .destroy function was being called when the prompt was being called. My question really is how can i get the value to cancel or accept from the rails confirm pop up so that in my jquery I can have an if statement that hides if they click accept and does nothing if they click cancel. EDIT: Answering Question below. That did not work. I tried changing my link to: <%= link_to(image_tag('/images/bin.png', :alt => 'Remove'), @business, :class => "delete", :onclick => "trash") %> and putting this in my jquery function trash(){ if(confirm("Are you sure?")){ var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); $(row).hide(); return false; } else { //they clicked no. } } But the function was never called. It just deletes it with no prompt and doesn't hide it. But that gave me an idea. I took the delete function that ajax was calling $('a.delete').click (function(){ $.post(this.href, {_method:'delete'}, null, "script"); $(row).hide(); }); And modified it implementing your code: remove :confirm = 'Are you sure?' $('a.delete').click (function(){ if(confirm("Are you sure?")){ var row = $(this).closest("tr").get(0); $.post(this.href, {_method:'delete'}, null, "script"); $(row).hide(); return false; } else { //they clicked no. return false; } }); Which does the trick.

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  • Rogue PropertyChanged notifications from ViewModel

    - by user1886323
    The following simple program is causing me a Databinding headache. I'm new to this which is why I suspect it has a simple answer. Basically, I have two text boxes bound to the same property myString. I have not set up the ViewModel (simply a class with one property, myString) to provide any notifications to the View for when myString is changed, so even although both text boxes operate a two way binding there should be no way that the text boxes update when myString is changed, am I right? Except... In most circumstances this is true - I use the 'change value' button at the bottom of the window to change the value of myString to whatever the user types into the adjacent text box, and the two text boxes at the top, even although they are bound to myString, do not change. Fine. However, if I edit the text in TextBox1, thus changing the value of myString (although only when the text box loses focus due to the default UpdateSourceTrigger property, see reference), TextBox2 should NOT update as it shouldn't receive any updates that myString has changed. However, as soon as TextBox1 loses focus (say click inside TextBox2) TextBox2 is updated with the new value of myString. My best guess so far is that because the TextBoxes are bound to the same property, something to do with TextBox1 updating myString gives TextBox2 a notification that it has changed. Very confusing as I haven't used INotifyPropertyChanged or anything like that. To clarify, I am not asking how to fix this. I know I could just change the binding mode to a oneway option. I am wondering if anyone can come up with an explanation for this strange behaviour? ViewModel: namespace WpfApplication1 { class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { _myString = "initial message"; } private string _myString; public string myString { get { return _myString; } set { if (_myString != value) { _myString = value; } } } } } View: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Window.DataContext> <local:ViewModel /> </Window.DataContext> <Grid> <!-- The culprit text boxes --> <TextBox Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="166,70,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="120" Text="{Binding Path=myString, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBox Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="166,120,0,0" Name="textBox2" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="120" Text="{Binding Path=myString, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <!--The buttons allowing manual change of myString--> <Button Name="changevaluebutton" Content="change value" Click="ButtonUpdateArtist_Click" Margin="12,245,416,43" Width="75" /> <Button Content="Show value" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="12,216,0,0" Name="showvaluebutton" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" Click="showvaluebutton_Click" /> <Label Content="" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="116,216,0,0" Name="showvaluebox" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="128" /> <TextBox Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="116,245,0,0" Name="changevaluebox" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="128" /> <!--simply some text--> <Label Content="TexBox1" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="99,70,0,0" Name="label1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="61" /> <Label Content="TexBox2" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="99,118,0,0" Name="label2" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="61" /> </Grid> </Window> Code behind for view: namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { ViewModel viewModel; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); viewModel = (ViewModel)this.DataContext; } private void showvaluebutton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { showvaluebox.Content = viewModel.myString; } private void ButtonUpdateArtist_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { viewModel.myString = changevaluebox.Text; } } }

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  • what persistence layer (xml or mysql) should i use for this xml data?

    - by fayer
    i wonder how i could store a xml structure in a persistence layer. cause the relational data looks like: <entity id="1000070"> <name>apple</name> <entities> <entity id="7002870"> <name>mac</name> <entities> <entity id="7002907"> <name>leopard</name> <entities> <entity id="7024080"> <name>safari</name> </entity> <entity id="7024701"> <name>finder</name> </entity> </entities> </entity> </entities> </entity> <entity id="7024080"> <name>iphone</name> <entities> <entity id="7024080"> <name>3g</name> </entity> <entity id="7024701"> <name>3gs</name> </entity> </entities> </entity> <entity id="7024080"> <name>ipad</name> </entity> </entities> </entity> as you can see, it has no static structure but a dynamical one. mac got 2 descendant levels while iphone got 1 and ipad got 0. i wonder how i could store this data the best way? what are my options. cause it seems impossible to store it in a mysql database due to this dynamical structure. is the only way to store it as a xml file then? is the speed of getting information (xpath/xquery/simplexml) from a xml file worse or greater than from mysql? what are the pros and cons? do i have other options? is storing information in xml files, suited for a lot of users accessing it at the same time? would be great with feedbacks!! thanks! EDIT: now i noticed that i could use something called xml database to store xml data. could someone shed a light on this issue? cause apparently its not as simple as just store data in a xml file?

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  • Wordpress blog with Joomla?

    - by user427902
    Hi, I had this Wordpress installation which was installed in a subfolder (not root). Like http: //server/blog/. Now, I installed Joomla on the root (http: //server/). Everything seems to be working fine with the Joomla part. However, the blog part is messed up. If I try to browse the homepage of my blog which is http: //server/blog/ it works like a charm. But while trying to view individual blog pages like say, http: //server/blog/some_category/some_post I get a Joomla 404 page. So, I was wondering if it was possible to use both Wordpress and Joomla in the same server in the setup I am trying to. Let me clarify that I am NOT looking to integrate user login and other such things. I just want the blog to be functional under a subfolder while I run the Joomla site in the root. So, what is the correct way to go about it. Can this be solved by any .config edits or something else? Edit: Here's the .htaccess for Joomla ... (I can't find any .htaccess for Wp though, still looking for it.) ## # @version $Id: htaccess.txt 14401 2010-01-26 14:10:00Z louis $ # @package Joomla # @copyright Copyright (C) 2005 - 2010 Open Source Matters. All rights reserved. # @license http://www.gnu.org/copyleft/gpl.html GNU/GPL # Joomla! is Free Software ## ##################################################### # READ THIS COMPLETELY IF YOU CHOOSE TO USE THIS FILE # # The line just below this section: 'Options +FollowSymLinks' may cause problems # with some server configurations. It is required for use of mod_rewrite, but may already # be set by your server administrator in a way that dissallows changing it in # your .htaccess file. If using it causes your server to error out, comment it out (add # to # beginning of line), reload your site in your browser and test your sef url's. If they work, # it has been set by your server administrator and you do not need it set here. # ##################################################### ## Can be commented out if causes errors, see notes above. Options +FollowSymLinks # # mod_rewrite in use RewriteEngine On ########## Begin - Rewrite rules to block out some common exploits ## If you experience problems on your site block out the operations listed below ## This attempts to block the most common type of exploit `attempts` to Joomla! # ## Deny access to extension xml files (uncomment out to activate) #<Files ~ "\.xml$"> #Order allow,deny #Deny from all #Satisfy all #</Files> ## End of deny access to extension xml files RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} mosConfig_[a-zA-Z_]{1,21}(=|\%3D) [OR] # Block out any script trying to base64_encode crap to send via URL RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} base64_encode.*\(.*\) [OR] # Block out any script that includes a <script> tag in URL RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} (\<|%3C).*script.*(\>|%3E) [NC,OR] # Block out any script trying to set a PHP GLOBALS variable via URL RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} GLOBALS(=|\[|\%[0-9A-Z]{0,2}) [OR] # Block out any script trying to modify a _REQUEST variable via URL RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} _REQUEST(=|\[|\%[0-9A-Z]{0,2}) # Send all blocked request to homepage with 403 Forbidden error! RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php [F,L] # ########## End - Rewrite rules to block out some common exploits # Uncomment following line if your webserver's URL # is not directly related to physical file paths. # Update Your Joomla! Directory (just / for root) # RewriteBase / ########## Begin - Joomla! core SEF Section # RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/index.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} (/|\.php|\.html|\.htm|\.feed|\.pdf|\.raw|/[^.]*)$ [NC] RewriteRule (.*) index.php RewriteRule .* - [E=HTTP_AUTHORIZATION:%{HTTP:Authorization},L] # ########## End - Joomla! core SEF Section

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  • how to call javascript function

    - by Manu Jaggi
    when i click on the textbox which is inside the item template of gridview then onclick event should fire and then call the javascript function but my problem is that there no onclick event option in item template's textbox plz hel p me. <asp:GridView ID="GridView2" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" OnRowCommand="GridView2_RowCommand" Width="100%" GridLines="None" style="font-family: Tahoma; font-size: xx-small" Font-Names="Tahoma" Font-Size="XX-Small"> <Columns> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Status" DataField="Status" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Left" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Left"> <HeaderStyle HorizontalAlign="Left"></HeaderStyle> <ItemStyle HorizontalAlign="Left"></ItemStyle> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Order" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" Text='<%#Eval("ArticleOrder")%>' ReadOnly="true" runat="server" Height="18px" Width="16px" onclick="hello();" > </asp:TextBox> </ItemTemplate> <HeaderStyle HorizontalAlign="Left" /> </asp:TemplateField> <%--<asp:BoundField HeaderText="Order" DataField="ArticleOrder" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center"> <HeaderStyle HorizontalAlign="Center"></HeaderStyle> <ItemStyle HorizontalAlign="Center"></ItemStyle> </asp:BoundField>--%> <asp:BoundField HeaderText="Title" DataField="ArticleTitle" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Left" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Left"> <HeaderStyle HorizontalAlign="Left"></HeaderStyle> <ItemStyle HorizontalAlign="Left"></ItemStyle> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Edit" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButtonedt" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/images/newspaper_go.png" CommandName="edt" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("ArticleID")%>' /> </ItemTemplate> <HeaderStyle HorizontalAlign="Center"></HeaderStyle> <ItemStyle HorizontalAlign="Center"></ItemStyle> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Delete" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButtondel" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/images/newspaper_delete.png" CommandName="del" OnClientClick='return confirm("Are you sure you want to delete ?");' CommandArgument='<%#Eval("ArticleID")%>' /> </ItemTemplate> <HeaderStyle HorizontalAlign="Center"></HeaderStyle> <ItemStyle HorizontalAlign="Center"></ItemStyle> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> javascript function: hello() { var divName = document.getElementById('div1'); var divFade = document.getElementById('fade'); divName.style.display = 'block'; divFade.style.display = 'block'; }

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  • Normalizing a table

    - by Alex
    I have a legacy table, which I can't change. The values in it can be modified from legacy application (application also can't be changed). Due to a lot of access to the table from new application (new requirement), I'd like to create a temporary table, which would hopefully speed up the queries. The actual requirement, is to calculate number of business days from X to Y. For example, give me all business days from Jan 1'st 2001 until Dec 24'th 2004. The table is used to mark which days are off, as different companies may have different days off - it isn't just Saturday + Sunday) The temporary table would be created from a .NET program, each time user enters the screen for this query (user may run query multiple times, with different values, table is created once), so I'd like it to be as fast as possible. Approach below runs in under a second, but I only tested it with a small dataset, and still it takes probably close to half a second, which isn't great for UI - even though it's just the overhead for first query. The legacy table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [business_days]( [country_code] [char](3) , [state_code] [varchar](4) , [calendar_year] [int] , [calendar_month] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month2] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month3] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month4] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month5] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month6] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month7] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month8] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month9] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month10] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month11] [varchar](31) , [calendar_month12] [varchar](31) , misc. ) Each month has 31 characters, and any day off (Saturday + Sunday + holiday) is marked with X. Each half day is marked with an 'H'. For example, if a month starts on a Thursday, than it will look like (Thursday+Friday workdays, Saturday+Sunday marked with X): ' XX XX ..' I'd like the new table to look like so: create table #Temp (country varchar(3), state varchar(4), date datetime, hours int) And I'd like to only have rows for days which are off (marked with X or H from previous query) What I ended up doing, so far is this: Create a temporary-intermediate table, that looks like this: create table #Temp_2 (country_code varchar(3), state_code varchar(4), calendar_year int, calendar_month varchar(31), month_code int) To populate it, I have a union which basically unions calendar_month, calendar_month2, calendar_month3, etc. Than I have a loop which loops through all the rows in #Temp_2, after each row is processed, it is removed from #Temp_2. To process the row there is a loop from 1 to 31, and substring(calendar_month, counter, 1) is checked for either X or H, in which case there is an insert into #Temp table. [edit added code] Declare @country_code char(3) Declare @state_code varchar(4) Declare @calendar_year int Declare @calendar_month varchar(31) Declare @month_code int Declare @calendar_date datetime Declare @day_code int WHILE EXISTS(SELECT * From #Temp_2) -- where processed = 0) BEGIN Select Top 1 @country_code = t2.country_code, @state_code = t2.state_code, @calendar_year = t2.calendar_year, @calendar_month = t2.calendar_month, @month_code = t2.month_code From #Temp_2 t2 -- where processed = 0 set @day_code = 1 while @day_code <= 31 begin if substring(@calendar_month, @day_code, 1) = 'X' begin set @calendar_date = convert(datetime, (cast(@month_code as varchar) + '/' + cast(@day_code as varchar) + '/' + cast(@calendar_year as varchar))) insert into #Temp (country, state, date, hours) values (@country_code, @state_code, @calendar_date, 8) end if substring(@calendar_month, @day_code, 1) = 'H' begin set @calendar_date = convert(datetime, (cast(@month_code as varchar) + '/' + cast(@day_code as varchar) + '/' + cast(@calendar_year as varchar))) insert into #Temp (country, state, date, hours) values (@country_code, @state_code, @calendar_date, 4) end set @day_code = @day_code + 1 end delete from #Temp_2 where @country_code = country_code AND @state_code = state_code AND @calendar_year = calendar_year AND @calendar_month = calendar_month AND @month_code = month_code --update #Temp_2 set processed = 1 where @country_code = country_code AND @state_code = state_code AND @calendar_year = calendar_year AND @calendar_month = calendar_month AND @month_code = month_code END I am not an expert in SQL, so I'd like to get some input on my approach, and maybe even a much better approach suggestion. After having the temp table, I'm planning to do (dates would be coming from a table): select cast(convert(datetime, ('01/31/2012'), 101) -convert(datetime, ('01/17/2012'), 101) as int) - ((select sum(hours) from #Temp where date between convert(datetime, ('01/17/2012'), 101) and convert(datetime, ('01/31/2012'), 101)) / 8) Besides the solution of normalizing the table, the other solution I implemented for now, is a function which does all this logic of getting the business days by scanning the current table. It runs pretty fast, but I'm hesitant to call a function, if I can instead add a simpler query to get result. (I'm currently trying this on MSSQL, but I would need to do same for Sybase ASE and Oracle)

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  • How to make a jQuery plugin (the right way)?

    - by macek
    I know there are jQuery cookie plugins out there, but I wanted to write one for the sake of better learning the jQuery plugin pattern. I like the separation of "work" in small, manageable functions, but I feel like I'm passing name, value, and options arguments around too much. Is there a way this can be refactored? I'm looking for snippets of code to help illustrate examples provided with in answers. Any help is appreciated. Thanks :) example usage $.cookie('foo', 'bar', {expires:7}); $.cookie('foo'); //=> bar $.cookie('foo', null); $.cookie('foo'); //=> undefined Edit: I did a little bit of work on this. You can view the revision history to see where this has come from. It still feels like more refactoring can be done to optimize the flow a bit. Any ideas? the plugin (function($){ $.cookie = function(name, value, options) { if (typeof value == 'undefined') { return get(name); } else { options = $.extend({}, $.cookie.defaults, options || {}); return (value != null) ? set(name, value, options) : unset(name, options); } }; $.cookie.defaults = { expires: null, path: '/', domain: null, secure: false }; var set = function(name, value, options){ console.log(options); return document.cookie = options_string(name, value, options); }; var get = function(name){ var cookies = {}; $.map(document.cookie.split(';'), function(pair){ var c = $.trim(pair).split('='); cookies[c[0]] = c[1]; }); return decodeURIComponent(cookies[name]); }; var unset = function(name, options){ value = ''; options.expires = -1; set(name, value, options); }; var options_string = function(name, value, options){ var pairs = [param.name(name, value)]; $.each(options, function(k,v){ pairs.push(param[k](v)); }); return $.map(pairs, function(p){ return p === null ? null : p; }).join(';'); }; var param = { name: function(name, value){ return name + "=" + encodeURIComponent(value); }, expires: function(value){ // no expiry if(value === null){ return null; } // number of days else if(typeof value == "number"){ d = new Date(); d.setTime(d.getTime() + (value * 24 * 60 * 60 * 1000)); } // date object else if(typeof value == "object" && value instanceof "Date") { d = value; } return "expires=" + d.toUTCString(); }, path: function(value){ return "path="+value; }, domain: function(value){ return value === null ? null : "domain=" + value; }, secure: function(bool){ return bool ? "secure" : null; } }; })(jQuery);

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  • Servlet response wrapper has encoding problem

    - by John O
    A servlet response wrapper is being used in a Servlet Filter. The idea is that the response is manipulated, with a 'nonce' value being injected into forms, as part of defence against CSRF attacks. The web app is using UTF-8 everywhere. When the Servlet Filter is absent, no problems. When the filter is added, encoding issues occur. (It seems as if the response is reverting to 8859-1.) The guts of the code : final class CsrfResponseWrapper extends AbstractResponseWrapper { ... byte[] modifyResponse(byte[] aInputResponse){ ... String originalInput = new String(aInputResponse, encoding); String modifiedResult = addHiddenParamToPostedForms(originalInput); result = modifiedResult.getBytes(encoding); ... } ... } As I understand it, the transition between byte-land and String-land should specify an encoding. That is done here, as you can see, in two places. The value of the 'encoding' variable is 'UTF-8'; the alteration of the String itself is standard string manipulation (with a regex), and never specifies an encoding (addHiddenParamToPostedForms). Where am I in error about the encoding? EDIT: Here is the base class (sorry it's rather long): package hirondelle.web4j.security; import javax.servlet.ServletOutputStream; import javax.servlet.ServletResponse; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponseWrapper; import java.io.ByteArrayOutputStream; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.PrintWriter; /** Abstract Base Class for altering response content. (May be useful in future contexts as well. For now, keep package-private.) */ abstract class AbstractResponseWrapper extends HttpServletResponseWrapper { AbstractResponseWrapper(ServletResponse aServletResponse) throws IOException { super((HttpServletResponse)aServletResponse); fOutputStream = new ModifiedOutputStream(aServletResponse.getOutputStream()); fWriter = new PrintWriter(fOutputStream); } /** Return the modified response. */ abstract byte[] modifyResponse(byte[] aInputResponse); /** Standard servlet method. */ public final ServletOutputStream getOutputStream() { //fLogger.fine("Modified Response : Getting output stream."); if ( fWriterReturned ) { throw new IllegalStateException(); } fOutputStreamReturned = true; return fOutputStream; } /** Standard servlet method. */ public final PrintWriter getWriter() { //fLogger.fine("Modified Response : Getting writer."); if ( fOutputStreamReturned ) { throw new IllegalStateException(); } fWriterReturned = true; return fWriter; } // PRIVATE /* Well-behaved servlets return either an OutputStream or a PrintWriter, but not both. */ private PrintWriter fWriter; private ModifiedOutputStream fOutputStream; /* These items are used to implement conformance to the javadoc for ServletResponse, regarding exceptions being thrown. */ private boolean fWriterReturned; private boolean fOutputStreamReturned; /** Modified low level output stream. */ private class ModifiedOutputStream extends ServletOutputStream { public ModifiedOutputStream(ServletOutputStream aOutputStream) { fServletOutputStream = aOutputStream; fBuffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); } /** Must be implemented to make this class concrete. */ public void write(int aByte) { fBuffer.write(aByte); } public void close() throws IOException { if ( !fIsClosed ){ processStream(); fServletOutputStream.close(); fIsClosed = true; } } public void flush() throws IOException { if ( fBuffer.size() != 0 ){ if ( !fIsClosed ) { processStream(); fBuffer = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); } } } /** Perform the core processing, by calling the abstract method. */ public void processStream() throws IOException { fServletOutputStream.write(modifyResponse(fBuffer.toByteArray())); fServletOutputStream.flush(); } // PRIVATE // private ServletOutputStream fServletOutputStream; private ByteArrayOutputStream fBuffer; /** Tracks if this stream has been closed. */ private boolean fIsClosed = false; } }

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  • NHibernate: How is identity Id updated when saving a transient instance?

    - by bretddog
    If I use session-per-transaction and call: session.SaveOrUpdate(entity) corrected: session.SaveOrUpdateCopy(entity) ..and entity is a transient instance with identity-Id=0. Shall the above line automatically update the Id of the entity, and make the instance persistent? Or should it do so on transaction.Commit? Or do I have to somehow code that explicitly? Obviously the Id of the database row (new, since transient) is autogenerated and saved as some number, but I'm talking about the actual parameter instance here. Which is the business logic instance. EDIT Mappings: public class StoreMap : ClassMap<Store> { public StoreMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Name); HasMany(x => x.Staff) // 1:m .Cascade.All(); HasManyToMany(x => x.Products) // m:m .Cascade.All() .Table("StoreProduct"); } } public class EmployeeMap : ClassMap<Employee> { public EmployeeMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.FirstName); Map(x => x.LastName); References(x => x.Store); // m:1 } } public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Name).Length(20); Map(x => x.Price).CustomSqlType("decimal").Precision(9).Scale(2); HasManyToMany(x => x.StoresStockedIn) .Cascade.All() .Inverse() .Table("StoreProduct"); } } EDIT2 Class definitions: public class Store { public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; set; } public IList<Product> Products { get; set; } public IList<Employee> Staff { get; set; } public Store() { Products = new List<Product>(); Staff = new List<Employee>(); } // AddProduct & AddEmployee is required. "NH needs you to set both sides before // it will save correctly" public void AddProduct(Product product) { product.StoresStockedIn.Add(this); Products.Add(product); } public void AddEmployee(Employee employee) { employee.Store = this; Staff.Add(employee); } } public class Employee { public int Id { get; private set; } public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public Store Store { get; set; } } public class Product { public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public IList<Store> StoresStockedIn { get; private set; } }

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  • How do I detect a file write error in C?

    - by rich
    I have an embedded environment where a user might insert or remove a USB flash drive. I would like to know if the drive has been removed, or if there is some other problem when I try to write to the drive. However, Linux just saves the information in its buffers and returns with no indicated error. The computer I'm using comes with a 2.4.26 kernel and libc 2.3.2. I'm mounting the drive this way: i = mount(MEMORY_DEV_PATH, MEMORY_MNT_PATH, "vfat", MS_SYNCHRONOUS, NULL); That works: 50:/root # mount /dev/scsi/host0/bus0/target0/lun0/part1 on /mem type vfat (rw,sync) 50:/root # Later, I try to copy a file to it: int ifile, ofile; ifile = open("/tmp/tmpmidi.mid", O_RDONLY); if (ifile < 0) { perror("open in"); break; } ofile = open(current_file_name.c_str(), O_WRONLY | O_SYNC); if (ofile < 0) { perror("open out"); break; } #define BUFSZ 256 char buffer[BUFSZ]; while (1) { i = read(ifile, buffer, BUFSZ); if (i < 0) { perror("read"); break; } j = write(ofile, buffer, i); if (j < 0) { perror("write"); break; } if (i != j) { perror("Sizes wrong"); break; } if (i < BUFSZ) { printf("Copy is finished, I hope\n"); close(ifile); close(ofile); break; } } If this snippet of code is executed with a write-protected USB memory, the result is Copy is finished, I hope amid a flurry of error messages from the kernel on the console. I believe the same thing would happen if I simply removed the USB drive (without unmounting it). I have also fiddled with devfs. I figured out how to get it to automatically mount the drive, (with the REGISTER event) but it never seems to trigger the UNREGISTER when I pull out the memory. How can I determine in my program whether I have successfully created a file? Update 4 July: It was a silly oversight of me not to check the result from close(). Unfortunately, the file can be closed without error. So that didn't help. What about fsync()? That sounds like a good idea, but that didn't catch the error either. There might be some interesting information in /sys if I had such a thing. I believe that didn't get added until 2.6.?. The comment(s) about the quality of my flash drive are probably justified. It's one of the earlier ones. In fact, write protect switches seem to be extremely rare these days. I think I have to use the overkill option: Create a file, unmount & remount the drive, and check to see if the file is there. If that doesn't solve my problem, then something is really messed up! Note to myself: Make sure the file you try to create isn't already there! By the way, this does happen to be a C++ program. You can tell by the .c_str() which I had intended to edit out for simplicity.

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  • Reordering Variadic Parameters

    - by void-pointer
    I have come across the need to reorder a variadic list of parameters that is supplied to the constructor of a struct. After being reordered based on their types, the parameters will be stored as a tuple. My question is how this can be done so that a modern C++ compiler (e.g. g++-4.7) will not generate unnecessary load or store instructions. That is, when the constructor is invoked with a list of parameters of variable size, it efficiently pushes each parameter into place based on an ordering over the parameters' types. Here is a concrete example. Assume that the base type of every parameter (without references, rvalue references, pointers, or qualifiers) is either char, int, or float. How can I make it so that all the parameters of base type char appear first, followed by all of those of base type int (which leaves the parameters of base type float last). The relative order in which the parameters were given should not be violated within sublists of homogeneous base type. Example: foo::foo() is called with arguments float a, char&& b, const float& c, int&& d, char e. The tuple tupe is std::tuple<char, char, int, float, float>, and it is constructed like so: tuple_type{std::move(b), e, std::move(d), a, c}. Consider the struct defined below, and assume that the metafunction deduce_reordered_tuple_type is already implemented. How would you write the constructor so that it works as intended? If you think that the code for deduce_reodered_tuple_type, would be useful to you, I can provide it; it's a little long. template <class... Args> struct foo { // Assume that the metafunction deduce_reordered_tuple_type is defined. typedef typename deduce_reordered_tuple_type<Args...>::type tuple_type; tuple_type t_; foo(Args&&... args) : t_{reorder_and_forward_parameters<Args>(args)...} {} }; Edit 1 The technique I describe above does have applications in mathematical frameworks that make heavy use of expression templates, variadic templates, and metaprogramming in order to perform aggressive inlining. Suppose that you wish to define an operator that takes the product of several expressions, each of which may be passed by reference, reference to const, or rvalue reference. (In my case, the expressions are conditional probability tables and the operation is the factor product, but something like matrix multiplication works suitably as well.) You need access to the data provided by each expression in order to evaluate the product. Consequently, you must move the expressions passed as rvalue references, copy the expressions passed by reference to const, and take the addresses of expressions passed by reference. Using the technique I describe above now poses several benefits. Other expressions can use uniform syntax to access data elements from this expression, since all of the heavy-lifting metaprogramming work is done beforehand, within the class. We can save stack space by grouping the pointers together and storing the larger expressions towards the end of the tuple. Implementing certain types of queries becomes much easier (e.g. check whether any of the pointers stored in the tuple aliases a given pointer). Thank you very much for your help!

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  • Fill container with template parameters

    - by phlipsy
    I want to fill the template parameters passed to a variadic template into an array with fixed length. For that purpose I wrote the following helper function templates template<typename ForwardIterator, typename T> void fill(ForwardIterator i) { } template<typename ForwardIterator, typename T, T head, T... tail> void fill(ForwardIterator i) { *i = head; fill<ForwardIterator, T, tail...>(++i); } the following class template template<typename T, T... args> struct params_to_array; template<typename T, T last> struct params_to_array<T, last> { static const std::size_t SIZE = 1; typedef std::array<T, SIZE> array_type; static const array_type params; private: void init_params() { array_type result; fill<typename array_type::iterator, T, head, tail...>(result.begin()); return result; } }; template<typename T, T head, T... tail> struct params_to_array<T, head, tail...> { static const std::size_t SIZE = params_to_array<T, tail...>::SIZE + 1; typedef std::array<T, SIZE> array_type; static const array_type params; private: void init_params() { array_type result; fill<typename array_type::iterator, T, last>(result.begin()); return result; } }; and initialized the static constants via template<typename T, T last> const typename param_to_array<T, last>::array_type param_to_array<T, last>::params = param_to_array<T, last>::init_params(); and template<typename T, T head, T... tail> const typename param_to_array<T, head, tail...>::array_type param_to_array<T, head, tail...>::params = param_to_array<T, head, tail...>::init_params(); Now the array param_to_array<int, 1, 3, 4>::params is a std::array<int, 3> and contains the values 1, 3 and 4. I think there must be a simpler way to achieve this behavior. Any suggestions? Edit: As Noah Roberts suggested in his answer I modified my program like the following: I wrote a new struct counting the elements in a parameter list: template<typename T, T... args> struct count; template<typename T, T head, T... tail> struct count<T, head, tail...> { static const std::size_t value = count<T, tail...>::value + 1; }; template<typename T, T last> stuct count<T, last> { static const std::size_t value = 1; }; and wrote the following function template<typename T, T... args> std::array<T, count<T, args...>::value> params_to_array() { std::array<T, count<T, args...>::value> result; fill<typename std::array<T, count<T, args...>::value>::iterator, T, args...>(result.begin()); return result; } Now I get with params_to_array<int, 10, 20, 30>() a std::array<int, 3> with the content 10, 20 and 30. Any further suggestions?

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  • Using CreateSourceQuery in CTP4 Code First

    - by Adam Rackis
    I'm guessing this is impossible, but I'll throw it out there anyway. Is it possible to use CreateSourceQuery when programming with the EF4 CodeFirst API, in CTP4? I'd like to eagerly load properties attached to a collection of properties, like this: var sourceQuery = this.CurrentInvoice.PropertyInvoices.CreateSourceQuery(); sourceQuery.Include("Property").ToList(); But of course CreateSourceQuery is defined on EntityCollection<T>, whereas CodeFirst uses plain old ICollection (obviously). Is there some way to convert? I've gotten the below to work, but it's not quite what I'm looking for. Anyone know how to go from what's below to what's above (code below is from a class that inherits DbContext)? ObjectSet<Person> OSPeople = base.ObjectContext.CreateObjectSet<Person>(); OSPeople.Include(Pinner => Pinner.Books).ToList(); Thanks! EDIT: here's my version of the solution posted by zeeshanhirani - who's book by the way is amazing! dynamic result; if (invoice.PropertyInvoices is EntityCollection<PropertyInvoice>) result = (invoices.PropertyInvoices as EntityCollection<PropertyInvoice>).CreateSourceQuery().Yadda.Yadda.Yadda else //must be a unit test! result = invoices.PropertyInvoices; return result.ToList(); EDIT2: Ok, I just realized that you can't dispatch extension methods whilst using dynamic. So I guess we're not quite as dynamic as Ruby, but the example above is easily modifiable to comport with this restriction EDIT3: As mentioned in zeeshanhirani's blog post, this only works if (and only if) you have change-enabled proxies, which will get created if all of your properties are declared virtual. Here's another version of what the method might look like to use CreateSourceQuery with POCOs public class Person { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string FName { get; set; } public virtual string LName { get; set; } public virtual double Weight { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Book> Books { get; set; } } public class Book { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual int Pages { get; set; } public virtual int OwnerID { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Genre> Genres { get; set; } public virtual Person Owner { get; set; } } public class Genre { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual Genre ParentGenre { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Book> Books { get; set; } } public class BookContext : DbContext { public void PrimeBooksCollectionToIncludeGenres(Person P) { if (P.Books is EntityCollection<Book>) (P.Books as EntityCollection<Book>).CreateSourceQuery().Include(b => b.Genres).ToList(); }

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  • Cloning whole form elements after clicking button

    - by FreshPro
    I have this following form <form action="" class="form-horizontal"> <div id="wrapper"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="span6"> <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label"><?=$core->l("default_comm_type");?></label> <div class="controls"> <select id="fld_default_comm_type" name="fld_default_comm_type[]" defaultValue="-1" class="m-wrap span10" field="fld_default_comm_type" appEditor="true"> <?=combo_creator::render_default_comm_types()?> </select> </div> </div> </div> <div class="span4 checkerAlign"> <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <?=$core->l("is_active");?> </div> </div> </div> <div class="span2 checkerAlign"><input type="checkbox" name="fld_active[]" id="fld_active" editType="booleanEdit" appEditor="true"/></div> </div> <div><a href="#" id="addMore">Add Row</a></div> </div> The question is when user clicks Add Row button, I need to create a copy of this form elements inside <div id="wrapper"> How can i do that? EDIT: SOLVED <form action="" class="form-horizontal" id="wrapper"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="span6"> <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label"><?=$core->l("default_comm_type");?></label> <div class="controls"> <select id="fld_default_comm_type" name="fld_default_comm_type[]" defaultValue="-1" class="m-wrap span10" field="fld_default_comm_type" appEditor="true"> <?=combo_creator::render_default_comm_types()?> </select> </div> </div> </div> <div class="span4 checkerAlign"> <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <?=$core->l("is_active");?> </div> </div> </div> <div class="span2 checkerAlign"><input type="checkbox" name="fld_active[]" id="fld_active" editType="booleanEdit" appEditor="true"/></div> </div> <a href="#" data-action="add">add</a> <a href="#" data-action="delete">delete</a> </form> In the Js part: jQuery("#addMore").click(function(){ var contents = jQuery("form").html(); jQuery("#test").append(contents); }); When add is clicked it inserts form elements just as I wanted and when delete is clicked it deletes elements. Thank you for the tips guys Problem solved! Thanks guys.

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  • Add User to Database not working

    - by user1850189
    I'm really new to ASP.net and I am currently trying to create a registration page on a site. I was successful in adding a user to the database but I decided to add another feature into the code to check what userID's were available. For example, if a user deleted their account their userID would become available for use again. I'm trying to find the min value and the max value and add or subtract 1 depending on whether it is min or max. I can run the code I have written for this with no errors but the user is not added to the database. Can anyone help me figure out what I'm missing from my code to do this? EDIT Code adds a user to database but it adds the new user at -1 instead. I don't seem to be able to see where the issue is. If (aDataReader2.Read() = False) Then aConnection1 = New OleDbConnection(aConnectionString) aConnection1.Open() aQuery = "Insert Into UserDetails " aQuery = aQuery & "Values ('" & userID & "','" & userFName & "','" & userLName & "','" & userEmail & "','" & userUsername & "','" & userPassword & "')" aCommand = New OleDbCommand(aQuery, aConnection1) aCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() aConnection1.Close() ElseIf (min = 1) Then aConnection2 = New OleDbConnection(aConnectionString) aConnection2.Open() aCommand = New OleDbCommand(aQuery3, aConnection2) aDataReader2 = aCommand.ExecuteReader() userID = max + 1 aQuery = "Insert Into UserDetails " aQuery = aQuery & "Values ('" & userID & "','" & userFName & "','" & userLName & "','" & userEmail & "','" & userUsername & "','" & userPassword & "')" aCommand = New OleDbCommand(aQuery, aConnection2) aCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() aConnection2.Close() Else aConnection3 = New OleDbConnection(aConnectionString) aConnection3.Open() aCommand = New OleDbCommand(aQuery2, aConnection3) aDataReader2 = aCommand.ExecuteReader userID = min - 1 aQuery = "Insert Into UserDetails " aQuery = aQuery & "Values ('" & userID & "','" & userFName & "','" & userLName & "','" & userEmail & "','" & userUsername & "','" & userPassword & "')" aCommand = New OleDbCommand(aQuery, aConnection3) aCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() aConnection3.Close() lblResults.Text = "User Account successfully created" btnCreateUser.Enabled = False End If Here's the code I used to get the max and min values from the database. I'm getting a value of 0 for both of them - when min should be 1 and max should be 5 Dim minID As Integer Dim maxID As Integer aQuery2 = "Select Min(UserID) AS '" & [minID] & "' From UserDetails" aQuery3 = "Select Max(UserID) AS ' " & [maxID] & "' From UserDetails"

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  • nginx bad gateway 502 with mono fastcgi

    - by Bradley Lederholz Leatherwood
    Hello so I have been trying to get my website to run on mono (on ubuntu server) and I have followed these tutorials almost to the letter: However when my directory is not blank fastcgi logs reveal this: Notice Beginning to receive records on connection. Error Failed to process connection. Reason: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. I am not really sure what this means, and depending on what I do I can get another error that tells me the resource cannot be found: The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /Default.aspx/ Version information: Mono Runtime Version: 2.10.8 (tarball Thu Aug 16 23:46:03 UTC 2012) ASP.NET Version: 4.0.30319.1 If I should provide some more information please let me know. Edit: I am now getting a nginx gateway error. My nginx configuration file looks like this: server { listen 2194; server_name localhost; access_log $HOME/WWW/nginx.log; location / { root $HOME/WWW/dev/; index index.html index.html default.aspx Default.aspx Index.cshtml; fastcgi_index Views/Home/; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:8000; include /etc/nginx/fastcgi_params; } } Running the entire thing with xsp4 I have discovered what the "Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation." Handling exception type TargetInvocationException Message is Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. IsTerminating is set to True System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. Server stack trace: at System.Reflection.MonoCMethod.Invoke (System.Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, System.Reflection.Binder binder, System.Object[] parameters, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Reflection.MethodBase.Invoke (System.Object obj, System.Object[] parameters) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Runtime.Serialization.ObjectRecord.LoadData (System.Runtime.Serialization.ObjectManager manager, ISurrogateSelector selector, StreamingContext context) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Runtime.Serialization.ObjectManager.DoFixups () [0x00000] in :0 at System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.ReadNextObject (System.IO.BinaryReader reader) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.ObjectReader.ReadObjectGraph (BinaryElement elem, System.IO.BinaryReader reader, Boolean readHeaders, System.Object& result, System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.Header[]& headers) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter.NoCheckDeserialize (System.IO.Stream serializationStream, System.Runtime.Remoting.Messaging.HeaderHandler handler) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter.Deserialize (System.IO.Stream serializationStream) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Runtime.Remoting.RemotingServices.DeserializeCallData (System.Byte[] array) [0x00000] in :0 at (wrapper xdomain-dispatch) System.AppDomain:DoCallBack (object,byte[]&,byte[]&) Exception rethrown at [0]: --- System.ArgumentException: Couldn't bind to method 'SetHostingEnvironment'. at System.Delegate.GetCandidateMethod (System.Type type, System.Type target, System.String method, BindingFlags bflags, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean throwOnBindFailure) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Delegate.CreateDelegate (System.Type type, System.Type target, System.String method, Boolean ignoreCase, Boolean throwOnBindFailure) [0x00000] in :0 at System.Delegate.CreateDelegate (System.Type type, System.Type target, System.String method) [0x00000] in :0 at System.DelegateSerializationHolder+DelegateEntry.DeserializeDelegate (System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationInfo info) [0x00000] in :0 at System.DelegateSerializationHolder..ctor (System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext ctx) [0x00000] in :0 at (wrapper managed-to-native) System.Reflection.MonoCMethod:InternalInvoke (System.Reflection.MonoCMethod,object,object[],System.Exception&) at System.Reflection.MonoCMethod.Invoke (System.Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, System.Reflection.Binder binder, System.Object[] parameters, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) [0x00000] in :0 --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at (wrapper xdomain-invoke) System.AppDomain:DoCallBack (System.CrossAppDomainDelegate) at (wrapper remoting-invoke-with-check) System.AppDomain:DoCallBack (System.CrossAppDomainDelegate) at System.Web.Hosting.ApplicationHost.CreateApplicationHost (System.Type hostType, System.String virtualDir, System.String physicalDir) [0x00000] in :0 at Mono.WebServer.VPathToHost.CreateHost (Mono.WebServer.ApplicationServer server, Mono.WebServer.WebSource webSource) [0x00000] in :0 at Mono.WebServer.XSP.Server.RealMain (System.String[] args, Boolean root, IApplicationHost ext_apphost, Boolean quiet) [0x00000] in :0 at Mono.WebServer.XSP.Server.Main (System.String[] args) [0x00000] in :0

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  • Create a named cell dynamically

    - by CaptMorgan
    I have a workbook with 3 worksheets. 1 worksheet will have input values (not created at the moment and not needed for this question), 1 worksheet with several "template" or "source" tables, and the last worksheet has 4 formatted "target" tables (empty or not doesn't matter). Each template table has 3 columns, 1 column identifying what the values are for in the second 2 columns. The value columns have formulas in them and each cell is Named. The formulas use the cell Names rather than cell address (e.g. MyData1 instead of C2). I am trying to copy the templates into the target tables while also either copying the cell Names from the source into the targets or create the Names in the target tables based on the source cell Names. My code below I am creating the target names by using a "base" in the Name that will be changed depending on which target table it gets copied to. my sample tables have "Num0_" for a base in all the cell names (e.g. Num0_MyData1, Num0_SomeOtherData2, etc). Once the copy has completed the code will then name the cells by looking at the target Names (and address), replacing the base of the name with a new base, just adding a number of which target table it goes to, and replacing the sheet name in the address. Here's where I need help. The way I am changing that address will only work if my template and target are using the same cell addresses of their perspective sheets. Which they are not. (e.g. Template1 table has value cells, each named, of B2 thru C10, and my target table for the copy may be F52 thur G60). Bottom line I need to figure out how to copy those names over with the templates or name the cells dynamically by doing something like a replace where I am incrementing the address value based on my target table #...remember I have 4 target tables which are static, I will only copy to those areas. I am a newbie to vba so any suggestions or help is appreciated. NOTE: The copying of the table works as I want. It even names the cells (if the Template and Target Table have the same local worksheet cell address (e.g. C2) 'Declare Module level variables 'Variables for target tables are defined in sub's for each target table. Dim cellName As Name Dim newName As String Dim newAddress As String Dim newSheetVar Dim oldSheetVar Dim oldNameVar Dim srcTable1 Sub copyTables() newSheetVar = "TestSheet" oldSheetVar = "Templates" oldNameVar = "Num0_" srcTable1 = "TestTableTemplate" 'Call sub functions to copy tables, name cells and update functions. copySrc1Table copySrc2Table End Sub '****there is another sub identical to this one below for copySrc2Table. Sub copySrc1Table() newNameVar = "Num1_" trgTable1 = "SourceEnvTable1" Sheets(oldSheetVar).Select Range(srcTable1).Select Selection.Copy For Each cellName In ActiveWorkbook.Names 'Find all names with common value If cellName.Name Like oldNameVar & "*" Then 'Replace the common value with the update value you need newName = Replace(cellName.Name, oldNameVar, newNameVar) newAddress = Replace(cellName.RefersTo, oldSheetVar, newSheetVar) 'Edit the name of the name. This will change any formulas using this name as well ActiveWorkbook.Names.Add Name:=newName, RefersTo:=newAddress End If Next cellName Sheets(newSheetVar).Select Range(trgTable1).Select Selection.PasteSpecial Paste:=xlPasteAll, Operation:=xlNone, SkipBlanks:= _ False, Transpose:=False End Sub PING

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  • MVC multi page form losing session

    - by Bryan
    I have a multi-page form that's used to collect leads. There are multiple versions of the same form that we call campaigns. Some campaigns are 3 page forms, others are 2 pages, some are 1 page. They all share the same lead model and campaign controller, etc. There is 1 action for controlling the flow of the campaigns, and a separate action for submitting all the lead information into the database. I cannot reproduce this locally, and there are checks in place to ensure users can't skip pages. Session mode is InProc. This runs after every POST action which stores the values in session: protected override void OnActionExecuted(ActionExecutedContext filterContext) { base.OnActionExecuted(filterContext); if (this.Request.RequestType == System.Net.WebRequestMethods.Http.Post && this._Lead != null) ParentStore.Lead = this._Lead; } This is the Lead property within the controller: private Lead _Lead; /// <summary> /// Gets the session stored Lead model. /// </summary> /// <value>The Lead model stored in session.</value> protected Lead Lead { get { if (this._Lead == null) this._Lead = ParentStore.Lead; return this._Lead; } } ParentStore class: public static class ParentStore { internal static Lead Lead { get { return SessionStore.Get<Lead>(Constants.Session.Lead, new Lead()); } set { SessionStore.Set(Constants.Session.Lead, value); } } Campaign POST action: [HttpPost] public virtual ActionResult Campaign(Lead lead, string campaign, int page) { if (this.Session.IsNewSession) return RedirectToAction("Campaign", new { campaign = campaign, page = 0 }); if (ModelState.IsValid == false) return View(GetCampaignView(campaign, page), this.Lead); TrackLead(this.Lead, campaign, page, LeadType.Shared); return RedirectToAction("Campaign", new { campaign = campaign, page = ++page }); } The problem is occuring between the above action, and before the following Submit action executes: [HttpPost] public virtual ActionResult Submit(Lead lead, string campaign, int page) { if (this.Session.IsNewSession || this.Lead.Submitted || !this.LeadExists) return RedirectToAction("Campaign", new { campaign = campaign, page = 0 }); lead.AddCustomQuestions(); MergeLead(campaign, lead, this.AdditionalQuestionsType, false); if (ModelState.IsValid == false) return View(GetCampaignView(campaign, page), this.Lead); var sharedLead = this.Lead.ToSharedLead(Request.Form.ToQueryString(false)); //Error occurs here and sends me an email with whatever values are in the form collection. EAUtility.ProcessLeadProxy.SubmitSharedLead(sharedLead); this.Lead.Submitted = true; VisitorTracker.DisplayConfirmationPixel = true; TrackLead(this.Lead, campaign, page, LeadType.Shared); return RedirectToAction(this.ConfirmationView); } Every visitor to our site gets a unique GUID visitorID. But when these error occurs there is a different visitorID between the Campaign POST and the Submit POST. Because we track each form submission via the TrackLead() method during campaign and submit actions I can see session is being lost between calls, despite the OnActionExecuted firing after every POST and storing the form in session. So when there are errors, we get half the form under one visitorID and the remainder of the form under a different visitorID. Luckily we use a third party service which sends an API call every time a form value changes which uses it's own ID. These IDs are consistent between the first half of the form, and the remainder of the form, and the only way I can save the leads from the lost session issues. I should also note that this works fine 99% of the time. EDIT: I've modified my code to explicitly store my lead object in TempData and used the TempData.Keep() method to persist the object between subsequent requests. I've only deployed this behavior to 1 of my 3 sites but so far so good. I had also tried storing my lead objects in Session directly in the controller action i.e., Session.Add("lead", this._Lead); which uses HTTPSessionStateBase, attempting to circumvent the wrapper class, instead of HttpContext.Current.Session which uses HTTPSessionState. This modification made no difference on the issue, as expected.

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  • Drawing using Dynamic Array and Buffer Object

    - by user1905910
    I have a problem when creating the vertex array and the indices array. I don't know what really is the problem with the code, but I guess is something with the type of the arrays, can someone please give me a light on this? #define GL_GLEXT_PROTOTYPES #include<GL/glut.h> #include<iostream> using namespace std; #define BUFFER_OFFSET(offset) ((GLfloat*) NULL + offset) const GLuint numDiv = 2; const GLuint numVerts = 9; GLuint VAO; void display(void) { enum vertex {VERTICES, INDICES, NUM_BUFFERS}; GLuint * buffers = new GLuint[NUM_BUFFERS]; GLfloat (*squareVerts)[2] = new GLfloat[numVerts][2]; GLubyte * indices = new GLubyte[numDiv*numDiv*4]; GLuint delta = 80/numDiv; for(GLuint i = 0; i < numVerts; i++) { squareVerts[i][1] = (i/(numDiv+1))*delta; squareVerts[i][0] = (i%(numDiv+1))*delta; } for(GLuint i=0; i < numDiv; i++){ for(GLuint j=0; j < numDiv; j++){ //cada iteracao gera 4 pontos #define NUM_VERT(ii,jj) ((ii)*(numDiv+1)+(jj)) #define INDICE(ii,jj) (4*((ii)*numDiv+(jj))) indices[INDICE(i,j)] = NUM_VERT(i,j); indices[INDICE(i,j)+1] = NUM_VERT(i,j+1); indices[INDICE(i,j)+2] = NUM_VERT(i+1,j+1); indices[INDICE(i,j)+3] = NUM_VERT(i+1,j); } } glGenVertexArrays(1, &VAO); glBindVertexArray(VAO); glGenBuffers(NUM_BUFFERS, buffers); glBindBuffer(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, buffers[VERTICES]); glBufferData(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, sizeof(squareVerts), squareVerts, GL_STATIC_DRAW); glVertexPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, BUFFER_OFFSET(0)); glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glBindBuffer(GL_ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, buffers[INDICES]); glBufferData(GL_ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, sizeof(indices), indices, GL_STATIC_DRAW); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glColor3f(1.0,1.0,1.0); glDrawElements(GL_POINTS, 16, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, BUFFER_OFFSET(0)); glutSwapBuffers(); } void init() { glClearColor(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0); gluOrtho2D((GLdouble) -1.0, (GLdouble) 90.0, (GLdouble) -1.0, (GLdouble) 90.0); } int main(int argv, char** argc) { glutInit(&argv, argc); glutInitDisplayMode(GLUT_RGB | GLUT_DOUBLE); glutInitWindowSize(500,500); glutInitWindowPosition(100,100); glutCreateWindow("myCode.cpp"); init(); glutDisplayFunc(display); glutMainLoop(); return 0; } Edit: The problem here is that drawing don't work at all. But I don't get any error, this just don't display what I want to display. Even if I put the code that make the vertices and put them in the buffers in a diferent function, this don't work. I just tried to do this: void display(void) { glBindVertexArray(VAO); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glColor3f(1.0,1.0,1.0); glDrawElements(GL_POINTS, 16, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, BUFFER_OFFSET(0)); glutSwapBuffers(); } and I placed the rest of the code in display in another function that is called on the start of the program. But the problem still

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  • How can I Add newer Data to the start of the xml file (Example inside)

    - by Ofear
    Hi All! After alot of work i finish to make a xml reader and writer... but my problem is that i want the newer data that i insert using my form will be added to the top of the xml file. and not in the bottom.. let me show you an example: this is the XML file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <events> <record> <event>old event</event> <eventDate>1/1/2009</eventDate> <desc>old desc</desc> </record> <record> <event>newer event</event> <eventDate>12/12/2011</eventDate> <desc>newer desc</desc> </record> </events> now.. I want the XML file to be like this: newer data and then old data <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <events> <record> <event>newer event</event> <eventDate>12/12/2011</eventDate> <desc>newer desc</desc> </record> <record> <event>old event</event> <eventDate>1/1/2009</eventDate> <desc>old desc</desc> </record> </events> This is my add.php (the file that get the POST information from the Form in the main.html : <?php $record = array( 'event' => $_POST['event'], 'eventDate' => $_POST['eventDate'], 'desc' => $_POST['desc'], ); $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->load( 'events.xml' ); $doc->formatOutput = true; $r = $doc->getElementsByTagName("events")->item(0); $b = $doc->createElement("record"); $event = $doc->createElement("event"); $event->appendChild( $doc->createTextNode( $record["event"] ) ); $b->appendChild( $event ); $eventDate = $doc->createElement("eventDate"); $eventDate->appendChild( $doc->createTextNode( $record["eventDate"] ) ); $b->appendChild( $eventDate ); $desc = $doc->createElement("desc"); $desc->appendChild( $doc->createTextNode( $record["desc"] ) ); $b->appendChild( $desc ); $r->appendChild( $b ); $doc->save("events.xml"); header("Location: {$_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER']}"); ?> Where do i need to edit to be able to make the *xml as i want?*

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