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  • Fluent nhibernate: Enum in composite key gets mapped to int when I need string

    - by Quintin Par
    By default the behaviour of FNH is to map enums to its string in the db. But while mapping an enum as part of a composite key, the property gets mapped as int. e.g. in this case public class Address : Entity { public Address() { } public virtual AddressType Type { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } Where AddresType is of public enum AddressType { PRESENT, COMPANY, PERMANENT } The FNH mapping is as mapping.CompositeId().KeyReference(x => x.User, "user_id").KeyProperty(x => x.Type); the schema creation of this mapping results in create table address ( Type INTEGER not null, user_id VARCHAR(25) not null, and the hbm as <composite-id mapped="true" unsaved-value="undefined"> <key-property name="Type" type="Company.Core.AddressType, Company.Core, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"> <column name="Type" /> </key-property> <key-many-to-one name="User" class="Company.Core.CompanyUser, Company.Core, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null"> <column name="user_id" /> </key-many-to-one> </composite-id> Where the AddressType should have be generated as type="FluentNHibernate.Mapping.GenericEnumMapper`1[[Company.Core.AddressType, How do I instruct FNH to mappit as the default string enum generic mapper?

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  • How do you handle 'SelectedItemChanged' events in a MVVM ViewModel?

    - by Travis
    I have some logic that depends upon two properties being set, as it executes when both properties have a value. For example: private void DoCalc() { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(Property1) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(Property2)) return; Property3 = Property1 + " " + Property2; } That code would need to be executed every time Property1 or Property2 changed, but I'm having trouble figuring out how to do it in a stylistically acceptable manner. Here are the choices as I see them: 1) Call method from ViewModel I don't have a problem with this conceptually, as the logic is still in the ViewModel - I'm not a 'No code-behind' nazi. However, the 'trigger' logic (when either property changes) is still in the UI layer, which I don't love. The codebehind would look like this: void ComboBox_Property1_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { viewModel.DoCalc(); } 2) Call method from Property Setter This approach seems the most 'pure', but it also seems ugly, as if the logic is hidden. It would look like this: public string Property1 { get {return property1;} set { if (property1 != value) { property1 = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("Property1"); DoCalc(); } } } 3) Hook into the PropertyChanged event I'm now thinking this might be the right approach, but it feels weird to hook into the property changed event in the implementing viewmodel. It would look something like this: public ViewModel() { this.PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(ViewModel_PropertyChanged); } void ViewModel_PropertyChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.PropertyName == "Property1" || e.PropertyName == "Property2") { DoCalc(); } } So, my question is, if you were browsing through some source code with that requirement, which approach would you prefer to see implemented (and why?). Thanks for any input.

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  • ODBC continually prompts for password

    - by doublej92
    I have an application built in Access 2003 that uses a system DSN ODBC to connect to a SQL Server. The ODBC uses SQL authentication. When the application is started, the user is prompted to authenticate into the database. I have another computer set up within the same domain that has Access 2007 installed on it. I log in using the same credentials that I use to get on the machine that has Access 2003. I converted my application to Access 2007 format and everything works fine. However, when other users try to use the application, they are prompted to enter the database password every time a table is accessed. Thinking it was a problem with my ODBC, I confirmed that the connections were set up the same way on both of my machines, and the user's machine. Here is the interesting part, when the user logged into my machine, it started prompting for the password every time. When I logged into the user's machine, the application worked fine. Anyone have any ideas? All help is appreciated!

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  • understanding func<T, TResult> C#

    - by Satish Raj
    Hi I am trying to refactor some of my code to use Func I have created a sample to try to understand how it works but I am getting compilation error. In the e.g. below when I am trying to access the parameter attributes or return the return value the compiler complain. Clarifications please. using System; namespace chsarp { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { ParamInput input = new ParamInput(); input.ReservationID = 10; Test testMethod = new Test(); Func<ParamInput, ReservationResult> methodToInvoke = testMethod.GetStatus; ReservationResult result = TestFn(methodToInvoke, input); } static Result TestFn<Param, Result>(Func<Param, Result> methodToInvoke, Param parameter) where Result : new() { Result result = new Result(); try { result = methodToInvoke(parameter); } catch (Exception exception) { result.status = string.Format("Error-{0} during reserving {1}", parameter.ReservationID, exception.Message); } return result; } } class Test { public ReservationResult GetStatus(ParamInput msg) { ReservationResult result = new ReservationResult(); result.status = string.Format("The ReservationID-{0}", msg.ReservationID); return result; } } class ParamInput { public int ReservationID { get; set; } } class ReservationResult { public string status { get; set; } } }

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  • How to translate CCSID 65535 in SQuirrel from a DB2 on an iseries

    - by ZS6JCE
    I am new to SQuirrel SQL. I need some help to translating CCSID 65535 into ASCII, UNICODE (or anything human readable) I am using the JDBC driver per the following guide. According to IBM's website: What character conversion issues must my program deal with? The IBM i database uses EBCDIC to store text. Java uses Unicode. The JDBC driver handles all conversion between character sets, so your program should not have to worry about it. but I think they refer to CCSID 37 and not 65535(Hex). I have got the following info, from my DB2 DB Doing DSPFD gives me: Coded character set identifier . . . . . . : CCSID 65535 Doing DSPFFD gives me: TXT CHAR 3 3 41 Both Text Field text . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . : Text Coded Character Set Identifier . . . . . : 65535 But the SQuirrel query result for the TXT field is: 5c c1 c4 c4 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 c1 40 7e 40 c2 40 4e 40 c3 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 40 Which should be translated to something like: *ADD A = B + C

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  • "Pretty" Continuous Integration for Python

    - by dbr
    This is a slightly.. vain question, but BuildBot's output isn't particularly nice to look at.. For example, compared to.. phpUnderControl Hudson CruiseControl.rb ..and others, BuildBot looks rather.. archaic I'm currently playing with Hudson, but it is very Java-centric (although with this guide, I found it easier to setup than BuildBot, and produced more info) Basically: is there any Continuous Integration systems aimed at python, that produce lots of shiney graphs and the likes? Update: After trying a few alternatives, I think I'll stick with Hudson. Integrity was nice and simple, but quite limited. I think Buildbot is better suited to having numerous build-slaves, rather than everything running on a single machine like I was using it. Setting Hudson up for a Python project was pretty simple: Download Hudson from https://hudson.dev.java.net/ Run it with java -jar hudson.war Open the web interface on the default address of http://localhost:8080 Go to Manage Hudson, Plugins, click "Update" or similar Install the Git plugin (I had to set the git path in the Hudson global preferences) Create a new project, enter the repository, SCM polling intervals and so on Install nosetests via easy_install if it's not already In the a build step, add nosetests --with-xunit --verbose Check "Publish JUnit test result report" and set "Test report XMLs" to **/nosetests.xml That's all that's required. You can setup email notifications, and the plugins are worth a look. A few I'm currently using for Python projects: SLOCCount plugin to count lines of code (and graph it!) - you need to install sloccount separately Violations to parse the PyLint output (you can setup warning thresholds, graph the number of violations over each build) Cobertura can parse the coverage.py output. Nosetest can gather coverage while running your tests, using nosetests --with-coverage (this writes the output to **/coverage.xml)

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  • Activate COM object using website doesn't work in Windows 2003 server

    - by Tarun
    I have been trying really hard to activate and launch a COM object using an ASP.NET web application. The aspx website has a code-behind file that has a reference to this COM object (which is an actual application - a CAD software). When required, the VB code creates (or launches) the application. The complete set-up works in a Win-XP (32-bit) environment both under debugging using visual studio and when the website is accessed by an outside user (through IIS server in XP). But the same application doesn't get activated when it is hosted onto the Win-2003 (32-bit) IIS server. I get "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The way I have setup in Win-XP was to grant ASP user and Internet guest user permissions to the COM object in the DCOM Config and since the windows firewall is enabled, I add the exe file (associated with the COM object) to the exception list. For the case of Win-2003 server, I add the Network Service permission to the COM object. But the setup doesn't seem to work at all. I am not sure what I am missing and how to get the application to launch. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Pre Commit Hook for JSLint in Mercurial and Git

    - by jrburke
    I want to run JSLint before a commit into either a Mercurial or Git repo is done. I want this as an automatic step that is set up instead of relying on the developer (mainly me) remembering to run JSLint before-hand. I normally run JSLint while developing, but want to specify a contract on JS files that they pass JSLint before being committed to the repo. For Mercurial, this page spells out the precommit syntax, but the only variables that seem to be available are the parent1 and parent2 changeset IDs involved in the commit. What I really want are a list of file names that are involved with the commit, so that I can then choose the .js file and run jslint over them. Similar issue for GIT, the default info available as part of the precommit script seems limited. What might work is calling hg status/git status as part of the precommit script, parse that output to find JS files then do the work that way. I was hoping for something easier though, and I am not sure if calling status as part of a precommit hook reflect the correct information. For instance in Git if the changes files have not been added yet, but the git commit uses -a, would the files show up in the correct section of the git status output as being part of the commit set? Update: I got something working, it is visible here: http://github.com/jrburke/dvcs_jslint/

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  • UIImagePickerController Save to Disk then Load to UIImageView

    - by Harley Gagrow
    Hi, I have a UIImagePickerController that saves the image to disk as a png. When I try to load the PNG and set a UIImageView's imageView.image to the file, it is not displaying. Here is my code: (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { UIImage *image = [info objectForKey:UIImagePickerControllerOriginalImage]; NSData *imageData = UIImagePNGRepresentation(image); // Create a file name for the image NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [dateFormatter setTimeStyle:NSDateFormatterShortStyle]; [dateFormatter setDateStyle:NSDateFormatterShortStyle]; NSString *imageName = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"photo-%@.png", [dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]]]; [dateFormatter release]; // Find the path to the documents directory NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; // Now we get the full path to the file NSString *fullPathToFile = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:imageName]; // Write out the data. [imageData writeToFile:fullPathToFile atomically:NO]; // Set the managedObject's imageLocation attribute and save the managed object context [self.managedObject setValue:fullPathToFile forKey:@"imageLocation"]; NSError *error = nil; [[self.managedObject managedObjectContext] save:&error]; [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } Then here is how I try to load it: self.imageView.backgroundColor = [UIColor lightGrayColor]; self.imageView.frame = CGRectMake(10, 10, 72, 72); if ([self.managedObject valueForKey:@"imageLocation"] != nil) { NSLog(@"Trying to load the imageView with: %@", [self.managedObject valueForKey:@"imageLocation"]); UIImage *image = [[UIImage alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self.managedObject valueForKey:@"imageLocation"]]; self.imageView.image = image; } else { self.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"no_picture_taken.png"]; } I get the message that it's trying to load the imageView in the debugger, but the image is never displayed in the imageView. Can anyone tell me what I've got wrong here? Thanks a bunch.

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  • ASP.NET MVC - using model property as form, how can I post to action?

    - by Ryan Peters
    Consider the following model: public class BandProfileModel { public BandModel Band { get; set; } public IEnumerable<Relationship> Requests { get; set; } } and the following form: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%: Html.EditorFor(m => m.Band) %> <input type="submit" value="Save Band" /> <% } %> which posts to the following action: public ActionResult EditPost(BandProfileModel m, string band) { // stuff is done here, but m is null? return View(m); } Basically, I only have one property on my model that is used in the form. The other property in BandProfleModel is just used in the UI for other data. I'm trying to update just the Band property, but for each post, the argument "m" is always null (specifically, the .Band property is null). It's posting just fine to the action, so it isn't a problem with my route. Just the data is null. The ID and name attributes of the fields are BAND_whatever and Band.whatever (whatever being a property of Band), so it seems like it would work... What am I doing wrong? How can I use just one property as part of a form, post back, and have values populated via the model binder for my BandProfileModel property in the action? Thanks.

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  • Null Reference getting REMOTE_ADDR

    - by Josh
    I have an ASMX web service running under IIS7 in classic mode. This service has the following code: try { env.ExternalIP = HttpContext.Current.Request.ServerVariables["REMOTE_ADDR"]; } catch (Exception ex) { LogWriter.WriteError(ex); env.ExternalIP="000.000.000.000"; } This results in the following stack trace. I only modified the names of usercode call stack here to protect the innocent: Message: An Exception of type: NullReferenceException occured in method: GetAdditionalServerVar ExceptionMsg: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. ===Stack Trace=== at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetAdditionalServerVar(Int32 index) at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetServerVariable(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.AddServerVariableToCollection(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.FillInServerVariablesCollection() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Populate() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Get(String name) at System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection.get_Item(String name) at MyService.MyMethod() I'm at a loss here as this is very basic plain vanilla code. EDIT This gets even stranger. I have added some basic code just wondering what server variables I can get at this point. This fails with the same exception when I try and get all the keys: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetAdditionalServerVar(Int32 index) at System.Web.Hosting.ISAPIWorkerRequestInProc.GetServerVariable(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.AddServerVariableToCollection(String name) at System.Web.HttpRequest.FillInServerVariablesCollection() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Populate() at System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.get_AllKeys() at MyService.MyHelper() When I was looking at the framework code looks like this could happen when the array which caches the server variables isn't populated and it looks like this occurs when there a null pointer to some Context...which seems like a fairly core piece of the framework code. I suppose it's time to burn up one of our support tickets with Microsoft.

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  • Understanding ItemsSource and DataContext in a DataGrid

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm trying to understand how the ItemsSource and DataContext properties work in a Silverlight Toolkit DataGrid. I'm currently working with dummy data and trying to get the data in the DataGrid to update when the value of a combo box changes. My MainPage.xaml.vb file currently looks like this: Partial Public Class MainPage Inherits UserControl Private IssueSummaryList As List(Of IssueSummary) Public Sub New() GetDummyIssueSummary("Day") InitializeComponent() dgIssueSummary.ItemsSource = IssueSummaryList 'dgIssueSummary.DataContext = IssueSummaryList ' End Sub Private Sub GetDummyIssueSummary(ByVal timeInterval As String) Dim lst As New List(Of IssueSummary)() 'Generate dummy data for lst ' IssueSummaryList = lst End Sub Private Sub ComboBox_SelectionChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Controls.SelectionChangedEventArgs) Dim cboBox As ComboBox = CType(sender, ComboBox) Dim cboBoxItem As ComboBoxItem = CType(cboBox.SelectedValue, ComboBoxItem) GetDummyIssueSummary(cboBoxItem.Content.ToString()) End Sub End Class My XAML currently looks this for the DataGrid: <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgIssueSummary" AutoGenerateColumns="False" > <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding ProblemType}" Header="Problem Type"/> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Count}" Header="Count"/> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> The problem is that if I set the value of the ItemsSource property of the data grid equal to IssueSummaryList, it will display the data when it loads, but it won't update when the underlying IssueSummaryList collection changes. If I set the DataContext of the grid to be IssueSummaryList, no data will be displayed when it renders. I must not understand how ItemsSource and DataContext are supposed to function, because I expect one of those properties to "just work" when I assign a List object to them. What do I need to understand and change in my code so that as data changes in the List, the data in the grid is updated?

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  • MS Chart in WPF, Setting the DataSource is not creating the Series

    - by Shaik Phakeer
    Hi All, Here I am trying to assign the datasource (using same code given in the sample application) and create a graph, only difference is i am doing it in WPF WindowsFormsHost. due to some reason the datasource is not being assigned properly and i am not able to see the series ("Series 1") being created. wired thing is that it is working in the Windows Forms application but not in the WPF one. am i missing something and can somebody help me? Thanks <Window x:Class="SEDC.MDM.WinUI.WindowsFormsHostWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:wf="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Forms;assembly=System.Windows.Forms" xmlns:CHR="clr- namespace:System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting;assembly=System.Windows.Forms.Dat aVisualization" Title="HostingWfInWpf" Height="230" Width="338"> <Grid x:Name="grid1"> </Grid> </Window> private void drawChartDataBinding() { System.Windows.Forms.Integration.WindowsFormsHost host = new System.Windows.Forms.Integration.WindowsFormsHost(); string fileNameString = @"C:\Users\Shaik\MSChart\WinSamples\WinSamples\data\chartdata.mdb"; // initialize a connection string string myConnectionString = "PROVIDER=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + fileNameString; // define the database query string mySelectQuery = "SELECT * FROM REPS;"; // create a database connection object using the connection string OleDbConnection myConnection = new OleDbConnection(myConnectionString); // create a database command on the connection using query OleDbCommand myCommand = new OleDbCommand(mySelectQuery, myConnection); Chart Chart1 = new Chart(); // set chart data source Chart1.DataSource = myCommand; // set series members names for the X and Y values Chart1.Series"Series 1".XValueMember = "Name"; Chart1.Series"Series 1".YValueMembers = "Sales"; // data bind to the selected data source Chart1.DataBind(); myCommand.Dispose(); myConnection.Close(); host.Child = Chart1; this.grid1.Children.Add(host); } Shaik

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  • ASP.NET Convert to Web App question

    - by mattgcon
    The following web control will not convert for some reason (add designer and cs pages). I am getting a page directive is missing error What is wrong with the code that is causing it to not convert? <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <%@ Register TagPrefix="ipam" TagName="tnavbar" src="~/controls/tnavbar.ascx" %> <script language="C#" runat="server"> string strCurrent = ""; string strDepth = ""; public string Current { get { return strCurrent; } set { strCurrent = value; } } public string Depth { get { return strDepth; } set { strDepth = value; } } void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { idTnavbar.Current = strCurrent; idTnavbar.Item1Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item1Link; idTnavbar.Item2Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item2Link; idTnavbar.Item3Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item3Link; idTnavbar.Item4Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item4Link; idTnavbar.Item5Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item5Link; idTnavbar.Item6Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item6Link; idTnavbar.Item7Link = strDepth + idTnavbar.Item7Link; } </script> <ipam:tnavbar id="idTnavbar" Item1="2000 -- 2001" Item1Link="2000_--_2001.aspx" Item2="2001 -- 2002" Item2Link="2001_--_2002.aspx" Item3="2002 -- 2003" Item3Link="2002_--_2003.aspx" Item4="2003 -- 2004" Item4Link="2003_--_2004.aspx" Item5="2004 -- 2005" Item5Link="2004_--_2005.aspx" Item6="2005 -- 2006" Item6Link="2005_--_2006.aspx" Item7="2006 -- 2007" Item7Link="2006_--_2007.aspx" runat="server" /> Please help, if I can solve this issue many more pages will be fixed to.

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  • Is it possible to store ObjectContext on the client when using WCF and Entity Framework?

    - by Sergey
    Hello, I have a WCF service which performs CRUD operation on my data model: Add, Get, Update and Delete. And I'm using Entity Framework for my data model. On the other side there is a client application which calls methods of the WCF service. For example I have a Customer class: [DataContract] public class Customer { public Guid CustomerId {get; set;} public string CustomerName {get; set;} } and WCF service defines this method: public void AddCustomer(Customer c) { MyEntities _entities = new MyEntities(); _entities.AddToCustomers(c); _entities.SaveChanges(); } and the client application passes objects to the WCF service: var customer = new Customer(){CustomerId = Guid.NewGuid, CustomerName="SomeName"}; MyService svc = new MyService(); svc.Add(customer); // or svc.Update(customer) for example But when I need to pass a great amount of objects to the WCF it could be a perfomance issue because of I need to create ObjectContext each time when I'm doing Add(), Update(), Get() or Delete(). What I'm thinking on is to keep ObjectContext on the client and pass ObjectContext to the wcf methods as additional parameter. Is it possible to create and keep ObjectContext on the client and don't recreate it for each operation? If it is not, how could speed up the passing of huge amount of data to the wcf service? Sergey

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  • ICollectionView.SortDescriptions sort does not work if underlying DataTable has zero rows

    - by BigBlondeViking
    We have a WPF app that has a DataGrid inside a ListView. private DataTable table_; We do a bunch or dynamic column generation ( depending on the report we are showing ) We then do the a query and fill the DataTable row by row, this query may or may not have data.( not the problem, an empty grid is expected ) We set the ListView's ItemsSource to the DefaultView of the DataTable. lv.ItemsSource = table_.DefaultView; We then (looking at the user's pass usage of the app, set the sort on the column) Sort Method below: private void Sort(string sortBy, ListSortDirection direction) { ICollectionView dataView = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(lv.ItemsSource); dataView.SortDescriptions.Clear(); var sd = new SortDescription(sortBy, direction); dataView.SortDescriptions.Add(sd); dataView.Refresh(); } In the Zero DataTable rows scenario, the sort does not "hold"? and if we dynamically add rows they will not be in sorted order. If the DataTable has at-least 1 row when the sort is applied, and we dynamically add rows to the DataTable, the rows com in sorted correctly. I have built a standalone app that replicate this... It is an annoyance and I can add a check to see if the DataTable was empty, and re-apply the sort... Anyone know whats going on here, and am I doing something wrong? FYI: What we based this off if comes from the MSDN as well: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms745786.aspx

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  • Issue with VS 2008 designer and usercontrol.

    - by Ram
    Hello, I have created a custom data grid control. I dragged it on windows form and set its properties like column and all & ran the project. It built successfully and I am able to view the grid control on the form. Now if i try to view that form in designer, I am getting following error.. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Instances of this error (1) 1. Hide Call Stack at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.GetMemberTargetObject(XmlElementData xmlElementData, String& member) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.CreateAssignStatement(XmlElementData xmlElement) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.XmlElementData.get_CodeDomElement() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.EndElement(String prefix, String name, String urn) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.Parse(XmlReader reader) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.ParseXml(String xmlStream, CodeStatementCollection statementCollection, String fileName, String methodName) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomParser.OnMethodPopulateStatements(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.CodeDom.CodeMemberMethod.get_Statements() at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.TypeCodeDomSerializer.Deserialize(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeTypeDeclaration declaration) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager manager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager serializationManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.DeferredLoadHandler.Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextManager.Interop.IVsTextBufferDataEvents.OnLoadCompleted(Int32 fReload) If I ignore the exception, form appears blank with no sign of grid control on it. However I can see the code for the grid in the designer file. Any pointer on this would be a great help.

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  • How to authenticate a Windows Mobile client calling web services in a Web App

    - by cdonner
    I have a fairly complex business application written in ASP.NET that is deployed on a hosted server. The site uses Forms Authentication, and there are about a dozen different roles defined. Employees and customers are both users of the application. Now I have the requirement to develop a Windows Mobile client for the application that allows a very specialized set of tasks to be performed from a device, as opposed to a browser on a laptop. The client wants to increase productivity with this measure. Only employees will use this application. I feel that it would make sense to re-use the security infrastructure that is already in place. The client does not need offline capability. My thought is to deploy a set of web services to a folder of the existing site that only the new role "web service" has access to, and to use Forms Authentication (from a Windows Mobile 5/.Net 3.5 client). Can I do that, is that a good idea, and are there any code examples/references that you can point me to?

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  • solve a classic map-reduce problem with opencl?

    - by liuliu
    I am trying to parallel a classic map-reduce problem (which can parallel well with MPI) with OpenCL, namely, the AMD implementation. But the result bothers me. Let me brief about the problem first. There are two type of data that flow into the system: the feature set (30 parameters for each) and the sample set (9000+ dimensions for each). It is a classic map-reduce problem in the sense that I need to calculate the score of every feature on every sample (Map). And then, sum up the overall score for every feature (Reduce). There are around 10k features and 30k samples. I tried different ways to solve the problem. First, I tried to decompose the problem by features. The problem is that the score calculation consists of random memory access (pick some of the 9000+ dimensions and do plus/subtraction calculations). Since I cannot coalesce memory access, it costs. Then, I tried to decompose the problem by samples. The problem is that to sum up overall score, all threads are competing for few score variables. It keeps overwriting the score which turns out to be incorrect. (I cannot carry out individual score first and sum up later because it requires 10k * 30k * 4 bytes). The first method I tried gives me the same performance on i7 860 CPU with 8 threads. However, I don't think the problem is unsolvable: it is remarkably similar to ray tracing problem (for which you carry out calculation that millions of rays against millions of triangles). Any ideas?

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  • How to override ATTR_DEFAULT_IDENTIFIER_OPTIONS in Models in Doctrine?

    - by user309083
    Here someone explained that setting a 'primary' attribute for any row in your Model will override Doctrine_Manager's ATTR_DEFAULT_IDENTIFIER_OPTIONS attribute: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2040675/how-do-you-override-a-constant-in-doctrines-models This works, however if you have a many to many relation whereby the intermediate table is created, even if you have set both columns in the intermediate to primary an error still results when Doctrine tries to place an index on the nonexistant 'id' column upon table creation. Here's my code: //Bootstrap // set the default primary key to be named 'id', integer, 4 bytes Doctrine_Manager::getInstance()->setAttribute( Doctrine_Core::ATTR_DEFAULT_IDENTIFIER_OPTIONS, array('name' => 'id', 'type' => 'integer', 'length' => 4)); //User Model class User extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->setTableName('users'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('Role as roles', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'user_id', 'refClass' => 'UserRole', 'onDelete' => 'CASCADE' )); } } //Role Model class Role extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->setTableName('roles'); } public function setUp() { $this->hasMany('User as users', array( 'local' => 'id', 'foreign' => 'role_id', 'refClass' => 'UserRole' )); } } //UserRole Model class UserRole extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->setTableName('roles_users'); $this->hasColumn('user_id', 'integer', 4, array('primary'=>true)); $this->hasColumn('role_id', 'integer', 4, array('primary'=>true)); } } Resulting error: SQLSTATE[42000]: Syntax error or access violation: 1072 Key column 'id' doesn't exist in table. Failing Query: "CREATE TABLE roles_users (user_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, role_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, INDEX id_idx (id), PRIMARY KEY(user_id, role_id)) ENGINE = INNODB". Failing Query: CREATE TABLE roles_users (user_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, role_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, INDEX id_idx (id), PRIMARY KEY(user_id, role_id)) ENGINE = INNODB I'm creating my tables using Doctrine::createTablesFromModels();

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  • Conditional Regular Expression testing of a CSV

    - by Alastair Pitts
    I am doing some client side validation in ASP.NET MVC and I found myself trying to do conditional validation on a set of items (ie, if the checkbox is checked then validate and visa versa). This was problematic, to say the least. To get around this, I figured that I could "cheat" by having a hidden element that would contain all of the information for each set, thus the idea of a CSV string containing this information. I already use a custom [HiddenRequired] attribute to validate if the hidden input contains a value, with success, but I thought as I will need to validate each piece of data in the csv, that a regular expression would solve this. My regular expression work is extremely weak and after a good 2 hours I've almost given up. This is an example of the csv string: true,3,24,over,0.5 to explain: true denotes if I should validate the rest. I need to conditionally switch in the regex using this 3 and 24 are integers and will only ever fall in the range 0-24. over is a string and will either be over or under 0.5 is a decimal value, of unknown precision. In the validation, all values should be present and at least of the correct type Is there someone who can either provide such a regex or at least provide some hints, i'm really stuck!

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  • How can I access the group of a linq group-by query from a nested repeater control?

    - by Duke
    I'm using a linq group by query (with two grouping parameters) and would like to use the resulting data in a nested repeater. var dateGroups = from row in data.AsEnumerable() group row by new { StartDate = row["StartDate"], EndDate = row["EndDate"] }; "data" is a DataTable from an SqlDataAdapter-filled DataSet. "dateGroups" is used in the parent repeater, and I can access the group keys using Eval("key.StartDate") and Eval("key.EndDate"). Since dateGroups actually contains all the data rows grouped neatly by Start/End date, I'd like to access those rows to display the data in a child repeater. To what would I set the child repeater's DataSource? I have tried every expression in markup I could think of; I think the problem is that I'm trying to access an anonymous member (and I don't know how.) In case it doesn't turn out to be obvious, what would be the expression to access the elements in each iteration of the child repeater? Is there an expression that would let me set the DataSource in the markup, or will it have to be in the codebehind on some event in the parent repeater?

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  • SQL Syntax to count unique users completing a task

    - by Belliez
    I have the following code which shows me what users has completed ticket and this lists each user and the date they close a ticket. i.e. Paul Matt Matt Bob Matt Paul Matt Matt At the moment I manually count each user myself to see their totals for the day. EDIT: Changed output as columns instead of rows: What I have been trying to do is get SQL Server to do this for me i.e. the final result to look like: Paul | 2 Matt | 5 Bob | 1 My code I am currently using is and I would be greatful if someone can help me change this so I can get it outputting something similar to above? DECLARE @StartDate DateTime; DECLARE @EndDate DateTime; -- Date format: YYYY-MM-DD SET @StartDate = '2013-11-06 00:00:00' SET @EndDate = GETDATE() -- Today SELECT (select Username from Membership where UserId = Ticket.CompletedBy) as TicketStatusChangedBy FROM Ticket INNER JOIN TicketStatus ON Ticket.TicketStatusID = TicketStatus.TicketStatusID INNER JOIN Membership ON Ticket.CheckedInBy = Membership.UserId WHERE TicketStatus.TicketStatusName = 'Completed' and Ticket.ClosedDate >= @StartDate --(GETDATE() - 1) and Ticket.ClosedDate <= @EndDate --(GETDATE()-0) ORDER BY Ticket.CompletedBy ASC, Ticket.ClosedDate ASC Thank you for your help and time.

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  • Custumizing Syntax Highlighting in Vim

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    Hey I have defined a few custom file types for vim. I have done this like this: In vimrc: au BufWinEnter,BufRead,BufNewFile *.jak set filetype=jak And then in jak.vim syn match arrows /<-/ syn match arrows /->/ syn match arrows /=>/ syn match arrows /<=/ highlight arrows ctermfg=brown ... This works. (Formatting applies to any file opened with vim with file extension .jak) My question is how I can keep all the current formatting for a file type but add functionality. For example I would like to add this functionality for .vim files: syn keyword yellow yellow highlight yellow ctermfg=yellow ... (so that I can see how my terminal interpenetrates different colors before choosing them.) I have created ~/.vim/syntax/vim.vim (file only contains the above) and put this into my vimrc: au BufWinEnter,BufRead,BufNewFile *.vim set filetype=vim This has no effect. The word yellow is not colored yellow. I have also tried putting my vim.vim file into ~/.vim/after/syntax/vim.vim As suggested here This is the approach that I would like to take. Seems clean and easily maintainable.

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  • Ruby on Rails: How to sanitize a string for SQL when not using find?

    - by williamjones
    I'm trying to sanitize a string that involves user input without having to resort to manually crafting my own possibly buggy regex if possible, however, if that is the only way I would also appreciate if anyone can point me in the right direction to a regex that is unlikely to be missing anything. There are a number of methods in Rails that can allow you to enter in native SQL commands, how do people escape user input for those? The question I'm asking is a broad one, but in my particular case, I'm working with a column in my Postgres database that Rails does not natively understand as far as I know, the tsvector, which holds plain text search information. Rails is able to write and read from it as if it's a string, however, unlike a string, it doesn't seem to be automatically escaping it when I do things like vector= inside the model. For example, when I do model.name='::', where name is a string, it works fine. When I do model.vector='::' it errors out: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: PGError: ERROR: syntax error in tsvector: "::" "vectors" = E'::' WHERE "id" = 1 This seems to be a problem caused by lack of escaping of the semicolons, and I can manually set the vector='\:\:' fine. I also had the bright idea, maybe I can just call something like: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute "UPDATE medias SET vectors = ? WHERE id = 1", "::" However, this syntax doesn't work, because the raw SQL commands don't have access to find's method of escaping and inputting strings by using the ? mark. This strikes me as the same problem as calling connection.execute with any type of user input, as it all boils down to sanitizing the strings, but I can't seem to find any way to manually call Rails' SQL string sanitization methods. Can anyone provide any advice?

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