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  • "Illegal characters in path." Visual Studio WinForm Design View

    - by jacksonakj
    I am putting together a lightweight MVP pattern for a WinForms project. Everything compiles and runs fine. However when I attempt to open the WinForm in design mode in Visual Studio I get a "Illegal characters in path" error. My WinForm is using generics and inheriting from a base Form class. Is there a problem with using generics in a WinForm? Here is the WinForm and base Form class. public partial class TapsForm : MvpForm<TapsPresenter, TapsFormModel>, ITapsView { public TapsForm() { InitializeComponent(); } public TapsForm(TapsPresenter presenter) :base(presenter) { InitializeComponent(); UpdateModel(); } public IList<Taps> Taps { set { gridTaps.DataSource = value; } } private void UpdateModel() { Model.RideId = Int32.Parse(cboRide.Text); Model.Latitude = Double.Parse(txtLatitude.Text); Model.Longitude = Double.Parse(txtLongitude.Text); } } Base form MvpForm: public class MvpForm<TPresenter, TModel> : Form, IView where TPresenter : class, IPresenter where TModel : class, new() { private readonly TPresenter presenter; private TModel model; public MvpForm() { } public MvpForm(TPresenter presenter) { this.presenter = presenter; this.presenter.RegisterView(this); } protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); if (presenter != null) presenter.IntializeView(); } public TModel Model { get { if (model == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("The Model property is currently null, however it should have been automatically initialized by the presenter. This most likely indicates that no presenter was bound to the control. Check your presenter bindings."); return model; } set { model = value;} } }

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  • Preparing a MySQL INSERT/UPDATE statement with DEFAULT values

    - by Raveren
    Quoting MySQL INSERT manual - same goes for UPDATE: Use the keyword DEFAULT to set a column explicitly to its default value. This makes it easier to write INSERT statements that assign values to all but a few columns, because it enables you to avoid writing an incomplete VALUES list that does not include a value for each column in the table. Otherwise, you would have to write out the list of column names corresponding to each value in the VALUES list. So in short if I write INSERT INTO table1 (column1,column2) values ('value1',DEFAULT); A new row with column2 set as its default value - whatever it may be - is inserted. However if I prepare and execute a statement in PHP: $statement = $pdoObject-> prepare("INSERT INTO table1 (column1,column2) values (?,?)"); $statement->execute(array('value1','DEFAULT')); The new row will contain 'DEFAULT' as its text value - if the column is able to store text values. Now I have written an abstraction layer to PDO (I needed it) and to get around this issue am considering to introduce a const DEFAULT_VALUE = "randomstring"; So I could execute statements like this: $statement->execute(array('value1',mysql::DEFAULT_VALUE)); And then in method that does the binding I'd go through values that are sent to be bound and if some are equal to self::DEFAULT_VALUE, act accordingly. I'm pretty sure there's a better way to do this. Has someone else encountered similar situations?

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  • Build failed question - maven - jre or jdk problem

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    Hi all, I have my JAVA_HOME set to C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jdk1.6.0_18 After I run maven install I get this message from eclipse: Reason: Unable to locate the Javac Compiler in: C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\..\lib\tools.jar Please ensure you are using JDK 1.4 or above and not a JRE (the com.sun.tools.javac.Main class is required). In most cases you can change the location of your Java installation by setting the JAVA_HOME environment variable. I'm certain that this is the tricky part Please ensure you are using JDK 1.4 or above and not a JRE When I run configuration its set to JRE6, how do I change it to JDK 1.6 which I have already installed EDIT I even tried to modify the plugin : <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-compiler-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.0.2</version> <configuration> <source>1.6</source> <target>1.6</target> <executable>C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jdk1.6.0_18\bin</executable> </configuration> </plugin> Still I get the same error Maybe I forgot to say I use eclipse maven plugin .. how can I change from JRE to JDK in eclipse ?

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  • Broken flash movie player! allowFullScreen does not work with anything other than a wmode value of "

    - by lhnz
    I have a flash player on a page which plays videos. I also have modal popups which need to be able to display over the top of the flash player when they are opened, etc... I can't change either of these requirements since they are part of the spec I have been given. Flash seems to ignore z-indexes I set on it with css, and the modal popups will therefore only appear above the video player if I set the video player's wmode to opaque or transparent. However, if I do this then the full screen functionality stops working correctly: when I un-fullscreen the video it stays zoomed in. In short If you open a popup on an item page or another page containing flash the popup should be displayed above this. Flash ignores z-index values. You can stop flash ignoring z-index values by setting wmode to opaque or transparent rather than the default: window. This stops full screen from working correctly. Has anybody else faced this issue before? What can I do to fix it? I was thinking of recreating the video player with wmode=opaque whenever I opened a modal popup and then switching it back to wmode=window when the modal popup is closed, since this would mean that the popup should display above it (as wmode=opaque) and the fullscreen should work correct (as wmode=window). However, this is not ideal at all: as well as being a hack it would also mean that the video would stop playing if somebody clicked a button which opened a popup. Cheers!

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  • DataContext, DataBinding and Element Binding in Silverlight

    - by Matt
    I'm having one hell of a time trying to get my databinding to work correctly. I have reason to believe that what I'm trying to accomplish can't be done, but we'll see what answers I get. I've got a UserControl. This UserControl contains nothing more than a button. Now within the code behind, I've got a property name IsBookmarked. When IsBookmarked is set, code is run that animates the look of the button. The idea is that you click the button and it visually changes. We'll call this UserControl a Bookmark control. Now I have another control, which we'll call the FormControl. My FormControl contains a child Bookmark control. I've tried to do databinding on my Bookmark control, but it's not working. Here's some code to help you out. <UserControl ......> <q:Bookmark x:Name="BookMarkControl1" IsBookmarked="{Binding IsSiteBookmarked}" /> </UserControl> public void Control_Loaded(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataContext = new Employee { IsSiteBookmarked = True }; } public partial class Bookmark : UserControl { bool _IsSiteBookmarked= false; public bool IsSiteBookmarked { get {return _IsSiteBookmarked;} set { _IsSiteBookmarked= value; SwitchMode(value); } } }

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  • Pass a hidden jqGrid value when editing on ASP.Net MVC

    - by taylonr
    I have a jqGrid in an ASP.Net MVC. The grid is defined as: $("#list").jqGrid({ url: '<%= Url.Action("History", "Farrier", new { id = ViewData["horseId"]}) %>', editurl: '/Farrier/Add', datatype: 'json', mtype: 'GET', colNames: ['horseId', 'date', 'notes'], colModel: [ { name: 'horseId', index: 'horseId', width: 250, align: 'left', editable:false, editrules: {edithidden: true}, hidden: true }, { name: 'date', index: 'farrierDate', width: 250, align: 'left', editable:true }, { name: 'notes', index: 'farrierNotes', width: 100, align: 'left', editable: true } ], pager: jQuery('#pager'), rowNum: 5, rowList: [5, 10, 20, 50], sortname: 'farrierDate', sortorder: "DESC", viewrecords: true }); What I want to be able to do, add a row to the grid, where the horseId is either a) not displayed or b) greyed out. But is passed to the controller when saving. The way it's set up is this grid will only have 1 horse id at a time (it will exist on a horse's property page.) The only time I've gotten anything to work is when I made it editable, but then that opens it up for the user to modify the id, which isn't a good idea. So is there some way I can set this value before submitting the data? it does exist as a variable on this page, if that helps any (and I've checked that it isn't null). Thanks

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  • Qt 5.3 OpenGL - vertex buffer object drawing using the core profile

    - by user3700881
    Im using Qt 5.3 to create a QWindow to do some basic rendering stuff. The QWindow is declared like this: class OpenGLWindow : public QWindow, protected QOpenGLFunctions_3_3_Core { Q_OBJECT ... } It is initialized in the constructor: OpenGLWindow::OpenGLWindow(QWindow *parent) : QWindow(parent) { QSurfaceFormat format; format.setVersion(3,3); format.setProfile(QSurfaceFormat::CoreProfile); this->setSurfaceType(OpenGLSurface); this->setFormat(format); this->create(); _context = new QOpenGLContext; _context->setFormat(format); _context->create(); _context->makeCurrent(this); this->initializeOpenGLFunctions(); ... } And that's the rendering code: void OpenGLWindow::render() { if(!isExposed()) return; _context->makeCurrent(this); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glUseProgram(_shaderProgram); glBindBuffer(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, _positionBufferObject); glEnableVertexAttribArray(0); glVertexAttribPointer(0, 4, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, 0); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLES, 0, 3); glDisableVertexAttribArray(0); glUseProgram(0); _context->swapBuffers(this); } I am trying to draw a simple triangle using a vertex and fragment shader. The problem is that the triangle is not showing up when the core profile is set. Only when I set the OpenGL version to 2.0 or when I use the compatibility profile, it shows up. From my point of view that doesn't make any sense because I am not using fixed functionality at all. What am I missing?

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  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

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  • Why Java language does not offer a way to declare getters and setters of a given "field" through ann

    - by zim2001
    I actually happily design and develop JEE Applications for quite 9 years, but I realized recently that as time goes by, I feel more and more fed up of dragging all these ugly bean classes with their bunch of getters and setters. Considering a basic bean like this : public class MyBean { // needs getter AND setter private int myField1; // needs only a getter, no setter private int myField2; // needs only a setter, no getter private int myField3; /** * Get the field1 * @return the field1 */ public int getField1() { return myField1; } /** * Set the field1 * @param value the value */ public void setField1(int value) { myField1 = value; } /** * Get the field2 * @return the field2 */ public int getField2() { return myField2; } /** * Set the field3 * @param value the value */ public void setField3(int value) { myField3 = value; } } I'm dreaming of something like this : public class MyBean { @inout(public,public) private int myField1; @out(public) private int myField2; @in(public) private int myField3; } No more stupid javadoc, just tell the important thing... It would still be possible to mix annotation and written down getters or setters, to cover cases when it should do non-trivial sets and gets. In other words, annotation would auto-generate the getter / setter code piece except when a literate one is provided. Moreover, I'm also dreaming of replacing things like that : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.getField1(); b.setField3(v+1); by such : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.field1; b.field3 = v+1; In fact, writing "b.field1" on the right side of an expression would be semantically identical to write "b.getField1()", I mean as if it has been replaced by some kind of a preprocessor. It's just an idea but I'm wondering if I'm alone on that topic, and also if it has major flaws. I'm aware that this question doesn't exactly meet the SO credo (we prefer questions that can be answered, not just discussed) so I flag it community wiki...

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  • Function within function in R

    - by frespider
    Can you please explain to me why th code complain saying that Samdat is not found? I am trying to switch between the models as you can see, so i declared a functions that contains these specific models and I just need to call these function as one of the argument in the get.f function where the resampling will change the structure for each design matrix in the model. the code complain the Samdat is not found when it is found. Also, is there a way I can make the condition statement as if(Model == M1()) instead I have to create another argument M to set if(M==1) Can you explain please? dat <- cbind(Y=rnorm(20),rnorm(20),runif(20),rexp(20),rnorm(20),runif(20), rexp(20),rnorm(20),runif(20),rexp(20)) nam <- paste("v",1:9,sep="") colnames(dat) <- c("Y",nam) M1 <- function(){ a1 = cbind(Samdat[,c(2:5,7,9)]) b1 = cbind(Samdat[,c(2:4,6,8,7)]) c1 = b1+a1 list(a1=a1,b1=b1,c1=c1)} M2 <- function(){ a1= cbind(Samdat[,c(2:5,7,9)])+2 b1= cbind(Samdat[,c(2:4,6,8,7)])+2 c1 = a1+b1 list(a1=a1,b1=b1,c1=c1)} M3 <- function(){ a1= cbind(Samdat[,c(2:5,7,9)])+8 b1= cbind(Samdat[,c(2:4,6,8,7)])+8 c1 = a1+b1 list(a1=a1,b1=b1,c1=c1)} ################################################################# get.f <- function(asim,Model,M){ sse <-c() for(i in 1:asim){ set.seed(i) Samdat <- dat[sample(1:nrow(dat),nrow(dat),replace=T),] Y <- Samdat[,1] if(M==1){ a2 <- Model$a1 b2 <- Model$b1 c2 <- Model$c1 s<- a2+b2+c2 fit <- lm(Y~s) cof <- sum(summary(fit)$coef[,1]) coff <-Model$cof sse <-c(sse,coff) } else if(M==2){ a2 <- Model$a1 b2 <- Model$b1 c2 <- Model$c1 s<- c2+12 fit <- lm(Y~s) cof <- sum(summary(fit)$coef[,1]) coff <-Model$cof sse <-c(sse,coff) } else { a2 <- Model$a1 b2 <- Model$b1 c2 <- Model$c1 s<- c2+a2 fit <- lm(Y~s) cof <- sum(summary(fit)$coef[,1]) coff <- Model$cof sse <-c(sse,coff) } } return(sse) } get.f(10,Model=M1(),M=1) get.f(10,Model=M2(),M=2) get.f(10,Model=M3(),M=3)

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  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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  • Transaction Isolation Level of Serializable not working for me

    - by Shahriar
    I have a website which is used by all branches of a store and what it does is that it records customer purchases into a table called myTransactions.myTransactions table has a column named SerialNumber.For each purchase i create a record in the transactions table and assign a serial to it.The stored procedure that does this calls a UDF function to get a new serialNumber before inserting the record.Like below : Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2,Value3,...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) end Create function getTransactionNSerialNumber as begin RETURN isnull(SELECT TOP (1) SerialNumber FROM myTransactions READUNCOMMITTED ORDER BY SerialNumber DESC),0) + 1 end The website is being used by so many users in different stores at the same time and it is creating many duplicate serialNumbers(same SerialNumbers).So i added a Sql transaction with ReadCommitted level to the transaction and i still got duplicate transaction numbers.I changed it to SERIALIZABLE in order to lock the resources and i not only got duplicate transaction numbers(!!HOW!!) but i also got sporadic deadlocks between the same stored procedure calls.This is what i tried : (With ommissions of try catch blocks and rollbacks) Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRASNACTION ins insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2 , Value3, ...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) COMMIT TRANSACTION ins SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION READCOMMITTED end I even copied the function that gets the serial number directly into the stored procedure instead of the UDF function call and still got duplicate serialNumbers.So,How can a stored procedure line create something Like the c# lock() {} block. By the way,i have to implement the transaction serial number using the same pattern and i can't change the serialNumber to any other identity field or whatever.And for some reasons i need to generate the serialNumber inside the databse and i can't move SerialNumber generation to application level. Thank you.

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  • Dynamic SQL Server stored procedure

    - by Pinu
    ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetDocumentsAdvancedSearch] @SDI CHAR(10) = NULL ,@Client CHAR(4) = NULL ,@AccountNumber VARCHAR(20) = NULL ,@Address VARCHAR(300) = NULL ,@StartDate DATETIME = NULL ,@EndDate DATETIME = NULL ,@ReferenceID CHAR(14) = NULL AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- DECLARE DECLARE @Sql NVARCHAR(4000) DECLARE @ParamList NVARCHAR(4000) SELECT @Sql = 'SELECT DISTINCT ISNULL(Documents.DocumentID, '') ,Person.Name1 ,Person.Name2 ,Person.Street1 ,Person.Street2 ,Person.CityStateZip ,ISNULL(Person.ReferenceID,'') ,ISNULL(Person.AccountNumber,'') ,ISNULL(Person.HasSetPreferences,0) ,Documents.Job ,Documents.SDI ,Documents.Invoice ,ISNULL(Documents.ShippedDate,'') ,ISNULL(Documents.DocumentPages,'') ,Documents.DocumentType ,Documents.Description FROM Person LEFT OUTER JOIN Documents ON Person.PersonID = Documents.PersonID LEFT OUTER JOIN DocumentType ON Documents.DocumentType = DocumentType.DocumentType LEFT OUTER JOIN Addressess ON Person.PersonID = Addressess.PersonID' SELECT @Sql = @Sql + ' WHERE Documents.SDI IN ( '+ QUOTENAME(@sdi) + ') OR (Person.AssociationID = ' + ''' 000000 + ''' + 'AND Person.Client = ' + QUOTENAME(@Client) IF NOT (@AccountNumber IS NULL) SELECT @Sql = @Sql + 'AND Person.AccountNumber LIKE' + QUOTENAME(@AccountNumber) IF NOT (@Address IS NULL) SELECT @Sql = @Sql + 'AND Person.Name1 LIKE' +QUOTENAME(@Address)+ 'AND Person.Name2 LIKE' +QUOTENAME(@Address)+ 'AND Person.Street1 LIKE' +QUOTENAME(@Address)+ 'AND Person.Street2 LIKE' +QUOTENAME(@Address)+ 'AND Person.CityStateZip LIKE' +QUOTENAME(@Address) IF NOT (@StartDate IS NULL) SELECT @Sql = @Sql + 'AND Documents.ShippedDate >=' +@StartDate IF NOT (@EndDate IS NULL) SELECT @Sql = @Sql + 'AND Documents.ShippedDate <=' +@EndDate IF NOT (@ReferenceID IS NULL) SELECT @Sql = @Sql + 'AND Documents.ReferenceID =' +QUOTENAME(@ReferenceID) -- Insert statements for procedure here -- PRINT @Sql SELECT @ParamList = '@Psdi CHAR(10),@PClient CHAR(4),@PAccountNumber VARCHAR(20),@PAddress VARCHAR(300),@PStartDate DATETIME ,@PEndDate DATETIME,@PReferenceID CHAR(14)' EXEC SP_EXECUTESQL @Sql,@ParamList,@Sdi,@Client,@AccountNumber,@Address,@StartDate,@EndDate,@ReferenceID --PRINT @Sql END ERROR Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 23 Incorrect syntax near '000000'. Msg 105, Level 15, State 1, Line 23 Unclosed quotation mark after the character string 'AND Person.Client = [1 ]AND Person.AccountNumber LIKE[1]'.

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  • Copy to clipboard does not work when loaded with ajax call

    - by kylex
    I have the following code which works the way one would expect (click on the button and it copies the text in the input box): <script type="text/javascript" src="ABSOLUTE_LINK/ZeroClipboard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> ZeroClipboard.setMoviePath( 'ABSOLUTE_LINK/ZeroClipboard.swf' ); </script> Copy to Clipboard: <input type="text" id="clip_text" size="40" value="Copy me!"/><br/><br/> <div id="d_clip_button">Copy To Clipboard</div> <script language="JavaScript"> echo "var clip = new ZeroClipboard.Client(); clip.setText( '' ); // will be set later on mouseDown clip.setHandCursor( true ); clip.setCSSEffects( true ); clip.addEventListener( 'load', function(client) { } ); clip.addEventListener( 'complete', function(client, text) { alert("Copied text to clipboard: " + text ); } ); clip.addEventListener( 'mouseOver', function(client) { } ); clip.addEventListener( 'mouseOut', function(client) { } ); clip.addEventListener( 'mouseDown', function(client) { // set text to copy here clip.setText( document.getElementById('clip_text').value ); } ); clip.addEventListener( 'mouseUp', function(client) { } ); clip.glue( 'd_clip_button' ); </script> However, when this code is loaded using an ajax call, the functionality disappears. Is there anything I can do to get this working when it's called via ajax?

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  • Backwards compatibility when using Core Data

    - by Alex
    Could anybody shed some light as to why is my app crashing with the following error on iPhone OS 2.2.1 dyld: Symbol not found: _OBJC_CLASS_$_NSPredicate Referenced from: /var/mobile/Applications/456F243F-468A-4969-9BB7-A4DF993AE89C/AppName.app/AppName Expected in: /System/Library/Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Foundation I have weak linked CoreData.framework, and have the Base SDK set to 3.0 and Deployment Target set to SDK 2.2 The app already uses other 3.0 features when available and I did not have any problems with those. But apparently the backward-compatibility methods used for other features do not work with Core Data. The app crashes before app delegate's applicationDidFinishLaunching gets called. Here's the debugger log: [Session started at 2010-05-25 20:17:03 -0400.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1119) (Thu May 14 05:35:37 UTC 2009) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "--host=i386-apple-darwin --target=arm-apple-darwin".tty /dev/ttys001 Loading program into debugger… sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all warning: Unable to read symbols from "MessageUI" (not yet mapped into memory). warning: Unable to read symbols from "CoreData" (not yet mapped into memory). Program loaded. target remote-mobile /tmp/.XcodeGDBRemote-12038-42 Switching to remote-macosx protocol mem 0x1000 0x3fffffff cache mem 0x40000000 0xffffffff none mem 0x00000000 0x0fff none run Running… [Switching to thread 10755] [Switching to thread 10755] Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 1 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 2 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 3 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 4 Re-enabling shared library breakpoint 5 (gdb) continue warning: Unable to read symbols for ""/Users/alex/iPhone Projects/AppName/build/Debug-iphoneos"/AppName.app/AppName" (file not found). dyld: Symbol not found: _OBJC_CLASS_$_NSPredicate Referenced from: /var/mobile/Applications/456F243F-468A-4969-9BB7-A4DF993AE89C/AppName.app/AppName Expected in: /System/Library/Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Foundation (gdb)

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  • Filter entities that match all pairs

    - by Jon
    I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there?

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  • Why does jQuery.ajax() add a parameter to the url?

    - by FK82
    Hi, I have a data fetching method that uses jQuery.ajax() to fetch xml files. /* */data: function() { /* debug */try { var url = arguments[0] ; var type = arguments[1] ; var scope = arguments[2] ; var callback = arguments[3] ; var self = this ; if(this.cache[url]) { callback(this.cache[url]) ; } else if(!this.cache[url]) { $.ajax({ type: "GET" , url: url , dataType: type , cache: false , success: function(data) { if(type == "text/xml") { var myJson = AUX.json ; var jsonString = myJson.build(data,scope,null) ; var jsonObject = $.parseJSON(jsonString) ; self.cache[url] = jsonObject ; callback(url) ; } else if(type == "json") { self.cache[url] = data ; callback(url) ; } } , error: function() { throw "Ajax call failed." ; } }) ; } /* debug */} catch(e) { /* debug */ alert("- caller: signTutor.data\n- " + e) ; /* debug */} } , My problem is: jQuery somehow adds a parameter (?_=1272708280072) to the url if there are escaped (hexadecimal notation) or unescaped utf-8 characters outside of the ASCII range -- i believe -- in the file name. It all works well if the file name does not contain characters in that range. Type is set to xml so there should not be a confusion of types. Headers of the xml files are also set adequately. I can see from the console that jQuery throws an error, but I'm not sure as to where the problem really is. Probably a problem with file name formatting, but I did not find any resources on the web as to AJAX file name specifications. Any ideas? Thanks for you help!

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  • Using singleton instead of a global static instance

    - by Farstucker
    I ran into a problem today and a friend recommended I use a global static instance or more elegantly a singleton pattern. I spent a few hours reading about singletons but a few things still escape me. Background: What Im trying to accomplish is creating an instance of an API and use this one instance in all my classes (as opposed to making a new connection, etc). There seems to be about 100 ways of creating a singleton but with some help from yoda I found some thread safe examples. ..so given the following code: public sealed class Singleton { public static Singleton Instance { get; private set; } private Singleton() { APIClass api = new APIClass(); //Can this be done? } static Singleton() { Instance = new Singleton(); } } How/Where would you instantiate the this new class and how should it be called from a separate class? EDIT: I realize the Singleton class can be called with something like Singleton obj1 = Singleton.Instance(); but would I be able to access the methods within the APIs Class (ie. obj1.Start)? (not that I need to, just asking) EDIT #2: I might have been a bit premature in checking the answer but I do have one small thing that is still causing me problems. The API is launching just fine, unfortunately Im able to launch two instances? New Code public sealed class SingletonAPI { public static SingletonAPI Instance { get; private set; } private SingletonAPI() {} static SingletonAPI() { Instance = new SingletonAPI(); } // API method: public void Start() { API myAPI = new API();} } but if I try to do something like this... SingletonAPI api = SingletonAPI.Instance; api.Start(); SingletonAPI api2 = SingletonAPI.Instance; // This was just for testing. api2.Start(); I get an error saying that I cannot start more than one instance.

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  • Cucumber Error: Socket Error for Test Environment Host in REST API

    - by tmo256
    I posted this to the Cucumber group with no replies, which makes me wonder if this is actually a cucumber issue or not. I'm pretty new to cucumber, and there are a number of things I really don't quite understand about how the cucumber environment is set up and executed within the test environment. I have a REST API rails app I'm testing with cucumber, using the RestClient gem to generate a post to controller create action. When I run the feature with a hard-coded URL pointing to a running localhost server (my local dev server environment; replacing tickets_url with "http:// localhost/tickets" in the snippet below), my cucumber steps execute as expected. However, when the resource URL resolves to the cucumber host I'm declaring, I get a socket error exception. getaddrinfo: nodename nor servname provided, or not known (SocketError) From the steps file: When /^POS Adapter sends JSON data to the Tickets resource$/ do ticket = { :ticket = { ... } } host! "test.host" puts tickets_url RestClient.post tickets_url, ticket.to_json, :content_type = :json, :accepts = :json end (the "puts" statement prints "http://test.host/tickets") Using the following gems: cucumber-0.6.1 webrat-0.6.0 rest-client-1.2.0 I should also say I have a similar set up in another rails app, using test.host as my host, and it seems to work fine. I'd appreciate any insight on what I might be missing in my configuration or what this could be related to.

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  • question about InnoDB deadlock in MySQL?

    - by WilliamLou
    I found this kind of interesting problem in MySQL InnoDB engine, could anyone explain why the engine always claim it's a deadlock. First, I created a table with a single row, single column: CREATE TABLE `SeqNum` (`current_seq_num` bigint(30) NOT NULL default '0', PRIMARY KEY (`current_seq_num`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 | Now, I have two MySQL connector threads, In thread1: mysql> begin; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> select `current_seq_num` into @curr_seq FROM SeqNum FOR UPDATE; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) Now, in thread2, I did the exactly same: mysql> begin; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> select `current_seq_num` into @curr_seq FROM SeqNum FOR UPDATE; before the default innodb_lock_wait_timeout, the thread2 just wait for thread1 to release its exclusive lock on the table, and it's normal. However, in thread1, if I input the following update query: mysql> update SeqNum set `current_seq_num` = 8; ERROR 1213 (40001): Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction Now, thread2 get the select query finished because thread1 quits. In addition, in thread1, if I input the update query with a where clause, it can be executed very well: mysql> update SeqNum set `current_seq_num` = 8 where `current_seq_num` =5 Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) Could anyone explain this?

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  • Kohana 3 jQuery/AJAX request not working

    - by dscher
    I am trying to post some data to a controller in Kohana 3 using the jQuery AJAX method. I seem to have an issue with the data not getting to where I want it to be. I want the data to go to the /application/classes/controller/stock.php file where the file will process the data. I can't seem to figure this one out. Hopefully someone can help. My jQuery ajax call is: $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'add_stock', data: { 'links': 'link_array' } }); 'add_stock' is the name of the action within the controller. I didn't know what else to try. I've also tried '.' and './' hoping that would be right but it's not. In Firebug, although it says the request was 200 OK, I see that the "RESPONSE" is "Failed to load source for: http://localhost/ddm/v2/stocks/add_stock" and my script in my controller which grabs the data isn't working. Here is that code in case it helps: $links = $_POST['links']; $link_obj = Jelly::factory('link') ->set('stock', $stock->id) ->set('links', $links); $link_obj->save(); I think that the problem is that I'm giving the ajax call the ROUTE and not the actual page it needs to deliver the POST data to. I just can't figure it out here. Any help?

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  • How to pull one commit at a time from a remote git repository?

    - by Norman Ramsey
    I'm trying to set up a darcs mirror of a git repository. I have something that works OK, but there's a significant problem: if I push a whole bunch of commits to the git repo, those commits get merged into a single darcs patchset. I really want to make sure each git commit gets set up as a single darcs patchset. I bet this is possible by doing some kind of git fetch followed by interrogation of the local copy of the remote branch, but my git fu is not up to the job. Here's the (ksh) code I'm using now, more or less: git pull -v # pulls all the commits from remote --- bad! # gets information about only the last commit pulled -- bad! author="$(git log HEAD^..HEAD --pretty=format:"%an <%ae>")" logfile=$(mktemp) git log HEAD^..HEAD --pretty=format:"%s%n%b%n" > $logfile # add all new files to darcs and record a patchset. this part is OK darcs add -q --umask=0002 -r . darcs record -a -A "$author" --logfile="$logfile" darcs push -a rm -f $logfile My idea is Try git fetch to get local copy of the remote branch (not sure exactly what arguments are needed) Somehow interrogate the local copy to get a hash for every commit since the last mirroring operation (I have no idea how to do this) Loop through all the hashes, pulling just that commit and recording the associated patchset (I'm pretty sure I know how to do this if I get my hands on the hash) I'd welcome either help fleshing out the scenario above or suggestions about something else I should try. Ideas?

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  • Fluent NHibernate auto mapping: map property from another table's column

    - by queen3
    I'm trying to use S#arp architecture... which includes Fluent NHibernate I'm newbie with (and with NHibernate too, frankly speaking). Auto mapping is used. So I have this: public class UserAction : Entity { public UserAction() { } [DomainSignature] [NotNull, NotEmpty] public virtual string Name { get; set; } [NotNull, NotEmpty] public virtual string TypeName { get; private set; } } public class UserActionMap : IAutoMappingOverride<UserAction> { public void Override(AutoMap<UserAction> mapping) { mapping.WithTable("ProgramComponents", m => m.Map(x => x.TypeName)); } } Now, table UserActions references table ProgramComponents (many to one) and I want property UserAction.TypeName to have value from db field ProgramComponents.TypeName. However, the above code fails with NHibernate.MappingException: Duplicate property mapping of TypeName found in OrderEntry3.Core.UserAction As far as I understand the problem is that TypeName is already auto-mapped... but I haven't found a way to remove the automatic mapping. Actually I think that my WithTable/Map mapping has to replace the automatic TypeName mapping, but seems like it does not. I also tried different mapping (names are different but that's all the same): mapping.WithTable("ProgramComponents", m => m.References<ProgramComponent>( x => x.Selector, "ProductSelectorID" ) and still get the same error. I can overcome this with mapping.HasOne<ProgramComponent>(x => x.Selector); but that's not what I exactly wants to do. And I still wonder why the first two methods do not work. I suspect this is because of WithTable.

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  • How to specify selector when CAKeyframeAnimation is finished?

    - by darenchow
    I'm using a CAKeyframeAnimation to animate a view along a CGPath. When the animation is done, I'd like to be able to call some other method to perform another action. Is there a good way to do this? I've looked at using UIView's setAnimationDidStopSelector:, however from the docs this looks like it only applies when used within a UIView animation block (beginAnimations and commitAnimations). I also gave it a try just in case, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's some sample code (this is within a custom UIView sub-class method): // These have no effect since they're not in a UIView Animation Block [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; // Set up path movement CAKeyframeAnimation *pathAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"path"]; pathAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; pathAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; pathAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; pathAnimation.duration = 1.0f; CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, self.center.x, self.center.y); // add all points to the path for (NSValue* value in myPoints) { CGPoint nextPoint = [value CGPointValue]; CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, nextPoint.x, nextPoint.y); } pathAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); [self.layer addAnimation:pathAnimation forKey:@"pathAnimation"]; A workaround I was considering that should work, but doesn't seem like the best way, is to use NSObject's performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:. As long as I set the delay equal to the duration of the animation, then it should be fine. Is there a better way? Thanks!

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  • Using prepared statements with JDBCTemplate

    - by Bernhard V
    Hi. I'm using the Jdbc template and want to read from the database using prepared statements. I iterate over many lines in a csv file and on every line I execute some sql select queries with it's values. Now I want to speed up my reading from the database but I just can't get the Jdbc template to work with prepared statements. Actually I even don't know how to do it. There is the PreparedStatementCreator and the PreparedStatementCreator. As in this example both of them are created with anonymous inner classes. But inside the PreparedStatementCreator class I don't have access to the values I want to set in the prepared statement. Since I'm iterating through a csv file I can't hard code them as a String because I don't know them. I also can't pass them to the PreparedStatementCreator because there are no arguments for the constructor. I was used to the creation of prepared statements being fairly simple. Something like PreparedStatement updateSales = con.prepareStatement( "UPDATE COFFEES SET SALES = ? WHERE COF_NAME LIKE ? "); updateSales.setInt(1, 75); updateSales.setString(2, "Colombian"); updateSales.executeUpdate(): as in the Java tutorial. Your help would be very appreciated.

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