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  • PHP - "Fat Free Framework" Find Methods and Showing Results in Template

    - by user1672808
    Just started trying the "Fat Free Framework" I'm building a site using a MySQL DB with 265 fields, and 5000+ rows in the DB; I can load() a specific record easily, no problems. When using find(), afind(), and even "select()", template will show blank lines or lines with "filler" text, with the correct number of rows for the query results, but no text/data from the DB itself; Same problem whether using objects or simply arrays from result (afind() and find()). I've copied/pasted the code verbatim from examples and from documentation, with only the DB specific items changed. Still, no luck. CODE IN PHP FILE (function from CLASS): static function home() { $featured=new Axon('boats'); $F3::set('boatlist',$featured->afind('D_CustomerID=173')); F3::set('content',TEMPLATE_DIR .'/home.html'); echo Template::serve(TEMPLATE_DIR .'/layout.html'); } TEMPLATE home.html: <div class="span8"> <h3> Featured Boats </h3> <F3:repeat group="{{@boatlist}}" value="{{@boat}}"> <div style="margin-left: 2em" class="thumbnails"> <p> <a href="boat/{{@boat['D_BoatNum']}}">{{trim(@boat['D_Description'])}}</a> by {{@boat['D_CustomerID']}} </p> <p> {{@boat['D_Price']}} </p> </div> </F3:repeat> </div> The number of rows this produces coincides with the correct number of rows in the DB. However, the actual data from each field does not show. Any ideas?

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  • Switch statement usage - C

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I have a thread function on Process B that contains a switch to perform certain operations based on the results of an event sent from Process A, these are stored as two elements in an array. I set the first element to the event which signals when Process A has data to send and I have the second element set to the event which indicates when Process A has closed. I have began to implement the functionality for the switch statement but I'm not getting the results as I expect. Consider the following: // //Thread function DWORD WINAPI ThreadFunc(LPVOID passedHandle) { for(i = 0; i < 2; i++) { ghEvents[i] = OpenEvent(EVENT_ALL_ACCESS, FALSE, TEXT("Global\\ProducerEvents")); if(ghEvents[i] == NULL) { getlasterror = GetLastError(); } } dwProducerEventResult = WaitForMultipleObjects( 2, ghEvents, FALSE, INFINITE); switch (dwProducerEventResult) { case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 0: { //Producer sent data //unpackedHandle = *((HWND*)passedHandle); MessageBox(NULL,L"Test",L"Test",MB_OK); break; } case WAIT_OBJECT_0 + 1: { //Producer closed ExitProcess(1); break; } default: return; } } As you can see if the event in the first array is signalled Process B should display a simple message box, if the second array is signalled the application should close. When I actually close Process A, Process B displays the message box instead. If I leave the first case blank (Do nothing) both applications close as they should. Furthermore Process B sends data an error is thrown (When I comment out the unpacking): Have I implemented my switch statement incorrectly? I though I handled the unpacking of the HWND correctly too, any suggestions? Thanks for your time.

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  • Flash "visible" issue

    - by justkevin
    I'm writing a tool in Flex that lets me design composite sprites using layered bitmaps and then "bake" them into a low overhead single bitmapData. I've discovered a strange behavior I can't explain: toggling the "visible" property of my layers works twice for each layer (i.e., I can turn it off, then on again) and then never again for that layer-- the layer stays visible from that point on. If I override "set visible" on the layer as such: override public function set visible(value:Boolean):void { if(value == false) this.alpha = 0; else {this.alpha = 1;} } The problem goes away and I can toggle "visibility" as much as I want. Any ideas what might be causing this? Edit: Here is the code that makes the call: private function onVisibleChange():void { _layer.visible = layerVisible.selected; changed(); } The changed() method "bakes" the bitmap: public function getBaked():BitmapData { var w:int = _composite.width + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var h:int = _composite.height + (_atmosphereOuterBlur * 2); var bmpData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h,true,0x00000000); var matrix:Matrix = new Matrix(); var bounds:Rectangle = this.getBounds(this); matrix.translate(w/2,h/2); bmpData.draw(this,matrix,null,null,new Rectangle(0,0,w,h),true); return bmpData; } Incidentally, while the layer is still visible, using the Flex debugger I can verify that the layer's visible value is "false".

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  • Rails emails not sending in staging environment

    - by jrdioko
    In a Rails application I set up a new staging environment with the following parameters in its environments/ file: config.action_mailer.perform_deliveries = true config.action_mailer.raise_delivery_errors = true config.action_mailer.delivery_method = :smtp However, when the system generates an email, it gets printed to the staging.log file instead of being sent. My SMTP settings work fine in other environments. What configuration am I missing to get the emails to actually send? Edit: Yes, the staging box is set up with valid configuration for an SMTP server it has access to. It seems like the problem isn't with the SMTP settings (if it was, wouldn't I get errors in the logs?), but with the Rails configuration. The application is still redirecting emails to the log file (saying "Sent mail: ...") as opposed to actually going through SMTP. Edit #2: It looks like the emails actually have been sending correctly, they just happen to print to the log as well. I'm trying to use the sanitize_email gem to redirect the mail to another address, and that doesn't seem to be working, which is why I thought the emails weren't going out. So I think that solves my problem, although I'm still curious what in ActionMailer's settings controls whether emails are sent, logged to the log file, or both. Edit #3: The problem with sanitize_email boiled down to me needing to add the new staging environment to ActionMailer::Base.local_environments. I'll keep this question open to see if anyone can answer my last question (what determines whether ActionMailer's emails get sent out, logged to the log file, or both?)

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  • Ruby script/console and Ruby script/server using two different DBs?

    - by aronchick
    Has anyone seen where script/console and script/server load two different databases (though both report using the same)? Here's the first output $ script/server => Booting WEBrick => Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 => Call with -d to detach => Ctrl-C to shutdown server [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick 1.3.1 [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10) [i386-mingw32] [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick::HTTPServer#start: pid=7148 port=3000 No errors. I then run my standard code for entering a form - no problems. Checking the Dev Database (.yml at bottom): mysql> select * from books; [...] | 712 | Book | Book Name | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | [...] 712 rows in set (0.00 sec) The code CLEARLY saved it seconds ago And now here's the output of script/console: $ script/console Loading development environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> Books.all => [] Nothing. Further, upon further inspection, it's using the production database, but I can't figure out why. Any thoughts here? All consoles have been closed and reopened. UPDATE: Requested .yml file (can't see how it'd be helpful (user name and password are all the same for each)) - development: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBdev username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBtest username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 production: adapter: mysql database: BooksDB username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000

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  • Getting value of "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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  • Session hijacking prevention...how far will my script get me? additional prevention procedures?

    - by Yusaf Khaliq
    When the user logs in the current session vairables are set $_SESSION['user']['timeout'] = time(); $_SESSION['user']['ip'] = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; $_SESSION['user']['agent'] = $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']; In my common.php page (required on ALL php pages) i have used the below script, which resets a 15 minute timer each time the user is active furhtermore checks the IP address and checks the user_agent, if they do not match that as of when they first logged in/when the session was first set, the session is unset furthermore with inactivity of up to 15 minutes the session is also unset. ... is what i have done a good method for preventing session hijacking furthermore is it secure and or is it enough? If not what more can be done? if(!empty($_SESSION['user'])){ if ($_SESSION['user']['timeout'] + 15 * 60 < time()) { unset($_SESSION['user']); } else { $_SESSION['user']['timeout'] = time(); if($_SESSION['user']['ip'] != $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']){ unset($_SESSION['user']); } if($_SESSION['user']['agent'] != $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT']){ unset($_SESSION['user']); } } }

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  • Can I use the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL entity classes in 'disconnected' mode?

    - by Gary McGill
    Suppose I have an automatically-generated Employee class based on the Employees table in my database. Now suppose that I want to pass employee data to a ShowAges method that will print out name & age for a list of employees. I'll retrieve the data for a given set of employees via a linq query, which will return me a set of Employee instances. I can then pass the Employee instances to the ShowAges method, which can access the Name & Age fields to get the data it needs. However, because my Employees table has relationships with various other tables in my database, my Employee class also has a Department field, a Manager field, etc. that provide access to related records in those other tables. If the ShowAges method were to invoke any of those methods, this would cause lots more data to be fetched from the database, on-demand. I want to be sure that the ShowAges method only uses the data I have already fetched for it, but I really don't want to have to go to the trouble of defining a new class which replicates the Employee class but has fewer methods. (In my real-world scenario, the class would have to be considerably more complex than the Employee class described here; it would have several 'joined' classes that do need to be populated, and others that don't). Is there a way to 'switch off' or 'disconnect' the Employees instances so that an attempt to access any property or related object that's not already populated will raise an exception? If not, then I assume that since this must be a common requirement, there might be an already-established pattern for doing this sort of thing?

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  • getting proxies of the correct type in nhibernate

    - by Nir
    I have a problem with uninitialized proxies in nhibernate The Domain Model Let's say I have two parallel class hierarchies: Animal, Dog, Cat and AnimalOwner, DogOwner, CatOwner where Dog and Cat both inherit from Animal and DogOwner and CatOwner both inherit from AnimalOwner. AnimalOwner has a reference of type Animal called OwnedAnimal. Here are the classes in the example: public abstract class Animal { // some properties } public class Dog : Animal { // some more properties } public class Cat : Animal { // some more properties } public class AnimalOwner { public virtual Animal OwnedAnimal {get;set;} // more properties... } public class DogOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } public class CatOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } The classes have proper nhibernate mapping, all properties are persistent and everything that can be lazy loaded is lazy loaded. The application business logic only let you to set a Dog in a DogOwner and a Cat in a CatOwner. The Problem I have code like this: public void ProcessDogOwner(DogOwner owner) { Dog dog = (Dog)owner.OwnedAnimal; .... } This method can be called by many diffrent methods, in most cases the dog is already in memory and everything is ok, but rarely the dog isn't already in memory - in this case I get an nhibernate "uninitialized proxy" but the cast throws an exception because nhibernate genrates a proxy for Animal and not for Dog. I understand that this is how nhibernate works, but I need to know the type without loading the object - or, more correctly I need the uninitialized proxy to be a proxy of Cat or Dog and not a proxy of Animal. Constraints I can't change the domain model, the model is handed to me by another department, I tried to get them to change the model and failed. The actual model is much more complicated then the example and the classes have many references between them, using eager loading or adding joins to the queries is out of the question for performance reasons. I have full control of the source code, the hbm mapping and the database schema and I can change them any way I want (as long as I don't change the relationships between the model classes). I have many methods like the one in the example and I don't want to modify all of them. Thanks, Nir

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  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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  • Serializing Exceptions WCF + Silverlight

    - by Bram
    I have a WCF service I use to submit bugs for my project. Snippet of the data class: Private _exception As Exception <DataMember()> _ Public Property Exception As Exception Get Return _exception End Get Set(ByVal value As Exception) _exception = value End Set End Property I have a Silverlight app that uses the WCF service to send any bugs home if and when they occur. This is the error I'm testing with: Dim i As Integer = 5 i = i / 0 The problem is SL is banging on with this message: System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException was unhandled by user code Message=There was an error while trying to serialize parameter :bug. The InnerException message was 'Type 'System.OverflowException' with data contract name 'OverflowException:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer.'. Please see InnerException for more details. Is there some trick to get a generic .NET Exception (any InnerException) to serialize properly? I'm not doing anything funky with the exception - it's just a plain 'ol exception Thanks for any help.

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  • How can I add the column data type after adding the column headers to my datatable?

    - by Kevin
    Using the code below (from a console app I've cobbled together), I add seven columns to my datatable. Once this is done, how can I set the data type for each column? For instance, column 1 of the datatable will have the header "ItemNum" and I want to set it to be an Int. I've looked at some examples on thet 'net, but most all of them show creating the column header and column data type at once, like this: loadDT.Columns.Add("ItemNum", typeof(Int)); At this point in my program, the column already has a name. I just want to do something like this (not actual code): loadDT.Column[1].ChangeType(typeof(int)); Here's my code so far (that gives the columns their name): // get column headings for datatable by reading first line of csv file. StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"c:\load_forecast.csv"); headers = sr.ReadLine().Split(','); foreach (string header in headers) { loadDT.Columns.Add(header); } Obviously, I'm pretty new at this, but trying very hard to learn. Can someone point me in the right direction? Thanks!

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  • restrict documents for mapreduce with mongoid

    - by theBernd
    I implemented the pearson product correlation via map / reduce / finalize. The missing part is to restrict the documents (representing users) to be processed via a filter query. For a simple query like mapreduce(mapper, reducer, :finalize => finalizer, :query => { :name => 'Bernd' }) I get this to work. But my filter criteria is a little bit more complicated: I have one set of preferences which need to have at least one common element and another set of preferences which may not have a common element. In a later step I also want to restrict this to documents (users) within a certain geographical distance. Currently I have this code working in my map function, but I would prefer to separate this into either query params as supported by mongoid or a javascript function. All my attempts to solve this failed since the code is either ignored or raises an error. I did a couple of tests. A regular find like User.where(:name.in => ['Arno', 'Bernd', 'Claudia']) works and returns #<Mongoid::Criteria:0x00000101f0ea40 @selector={:name=>{"$in"=>["Arno", "Bernd", "Claudia"]}}, @options={}, @klass=User, @documents=[]> Trying the same with mapreduce User.collection. mapreduce(mapper, reducer, :finalize => finalizer, :query => { :name.in => ['Arno', 'Bernd', 'Claudia'] }) fails with `serialize': keys must be strings or symbols (TypeError) in bson-1.1.5 The intermediate query parameter looks like this :query=>{#<Mongoid::Criterion::Complex:0x00000101a209e8 @key=:name, @operator="in">=>["Arno", "Bernd", "Claudia"]} and at least @operator looks a bit weird to me. I'm also uncertain if the class name can be omitted. BTW - I'm using mongodb 1.6.5-x86_64, and the mongoid 2.0.0.beta.20, mongo 1.1.5 and bson 1.1.5 gems on MacOS. What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • SubSonic 3 screws up selecteditem?

    - by SteveCav
    If you have a moment, please try this: -Download Subsonic 3. -Start a new proj and add SS's ActiveRecord templates. -Point it to any SQL Server DB and generate the classes. -Add a WPF project. -Create a window and add a combobox or listbox. -Set the ItemsSource from the SS DAL, and format it how you wish. -Add a button that will show you some value from the SelectedItem (using messagebox, console, whatever). -Run the project. -Click on the third item in the list. -Click on the second item in the list. -Click on the button. When I do that, the button gives me the value of the THIRD item, not the second. In other words, once the SelectedItem is set the first time it STAYS, no matter which item is subsequently highlighted on the screen. This is happening to me whatever control I use (combobox, listbox, even datagrid) and it ONLY happens with Subsonic Activerecord objects. If I write my own POCOs with identical properties and bind a list of them instead, the controls behave as expected. Does this happen to you? Any ideas?

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  • How do I bind an iTunes style source list to an NSTableView using Core Data?

    - by Austin
    I have an iTunes style interface in my application: Source list (NSOutlineView) on the left that contains different libraries and playlists with an NSTableView on the right side of the interface displaying information for "Presentations". Similar to iTunes, I am showing the same type of information in the table view whether a library or playlist is selected (title, author, date created, etc). I currently have an NSArrayController connected to my NSTableView and was setting the fetch predicate based on what was selected in the source list. This works fine when selecting a library because I can just set the fetch predicate to filter by the "type" field in my Presentation Core Data entity. When I try to adjust the fetch predicate for the playlist however, it doesn't look like there is any way to set the fetch predicate because I've got a table in between Playlists and Presentations to keep up with the order within the Playlist. According to the Apple docs, these type of predicates are not doable with Core Data (it basically doesn't multiple inner joins). Below is the relevant portion of my Data Model. Is my data model setup incorrectly? Should I drop the NSArrayController and handle connecting the NSTableView up by hand? I'm trying to figure out if there is a simple fix, or really a design flaw.

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  • How can I create a new Person object correctly in Javascript?

    - by TimDog
    I'm still struggling with this concept. I have two different Person objects, very simply: ;Person1 = (function() { function P (fname, lname) { P.FirstName = fname; P.LastName = lname; return P; } P.FirstName = ''; P.LastName = ''; var prName = 'private'; P.showPrivate = function() { alert(prName); }; return P; })(); ;Person2 = (function() { var prName = 'private'; this.FirstName = ''; this.LastName = ''; this.showPrivate = function() { alert(prName); }; return function(fname, lname) { this.FirstName = fname; this.LastName = lname; } })(); And let's say I invoke them like this: var s = new Array(); //Person1 s.push(new Person1("sal", "smith")); s.push(new Person1("bill", "wonk")); alert(s[0].FirstName); alert(s[1].FirstName); s[1].showPrivate(); //Person2 s.push(new Person2("sal", "smith")); s.push(new Person2("bill", "wonk")); alert(s[2].FirstName); alert(s[3].FirstName); s[3].showPrivate(); The Person1 set alerts "bill" twice, then alerts "private" once -- so it recognizes the showPrivate function, but the local FirstName variable gets overwritten. The second Person2 set alerts "sal", then "bill", but it fails when the showPrivate function is called. The new keyword here works as I'd expect, but showPrivate (which I thought was a publicly exposed function within the closure) is apparently not public. I want to get my object to have distinct copies of all local variables and also expose public methods -- I've been studying closures quite a bit, but I'm still confused on this one. Thanks for your help.

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  • Make Ant's delete task fail when a directory exists and is not deleted but not when it doesn't exist

    - by Tim Visher
    I have tho following clean function in my build script and I'd like to know how I can improve it. <target name="clean" description="Clean output directories."> <!-- Must not fail on error because it fails if directories don't exist. Is there really no better way to do this? --> <delete includeEmptyDirs="true" failonerror="false"> <fileset dir="${main.build.directory}" /> <fileset dir="dist" /> <fileset dir="${documentation.build.directory}" /> <fileset dir="/build-testing" /> </delete> </target> Specifically regarding my comment, I'm unhappy with the fact that I can't run this on a fresh box because the directory structure hasn't been set up yet by the other targets. We run the build in such a way that it entirely recreates the structures necessary for testing and deployment every time to avoid stale class files and such. With the way that delete currently is set up, a failure to delete a file does not fail the build and I'd like it to. I don't want it to fail the build if the file doesn't exist though. If it doesn't exist then what I'm asking it to do has already happened. Thoughts?

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  • Altering lazy-loaded object's private variables

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm running into an issue with private setters when using NHibernate and lazy-loading. Let's say I have a class that looks like this: public class User { public int Foo {get; private set;} public IList<User> Friends {get; set;} public void SetFirstFriendsFoo() { // This line works in a unit test but does nothing during a live run with // a lazy-loaded Friends list Users(0).Foo = 1; } } The SetFirstFriendsFoo call works perfectly inside a unit test (as it should since objects of the same type can access each others private properties). However, when running live with a lazy-loaded Friends list, the SetFirstFriendsFoo call silently fails. I'm guessing the reason for this is because at run-time, the Users(0).Foo object is no longer of type User, but of a proxy class that inherits from User since the Friends list was lazy-loaded. My question is this: shouldn't this generate a run-time exception? You get compile-time exceptions if you try to access another class's private properties, but when you run into a situation like this is looks like the app just ignores you and continues along its way.

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  • Eclipse CDT: cannot debug or terminate application

    - by Paul Lammertsma
    I have Eclipse set up fairly nicely to run the G++ compiler through Cygwin. Even the character encoding is set up correctly! There still seems to be something wrong with my configuration: I can't debug. The pause button in the debug view is simply disabled, and no threads appear in my application tree. It seems that gdb is simply not communicating with Eclipse. Presently, I have the debug settings as follows: Debugger: "Cygwin gdb Debugger" GDB debugger: gdb GDB command file: .gdbinit Protocol: Default I should mention here that I have no idea what .gdbinit does; in my project it is merely an empty file. What is wrong with my configuration? Debugging When attempting to terminate the application in debug mode, Eclipse displays the following error: Target request failed: failed to interrupt. I can't kill the process, either; I have to kill its parent gdb.exe, which in turn kills my application. Running When running it normally, a bunch of kill.exes are called, doing nothing, while Eclipse displays the following error: Terminate failed. I can kill FaceDetector.exe from the task manager. Process Explorer This is what it looks like in Process Explorer (debugging left, running right):

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  • Idiomatic default sort using WCF RIA, Entity Framework 4, Silverlight 4?

    - by Duncan Bayne
    I've got two Silverlight 4.0 ComboBoxes; the second displays the children of the entity selected in the first: <ComboBox Name="cmbThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Things,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="CmbThingsSelectionChanged" /> <ComboBox Name="cmbChildThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedThing.ChildThings,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" /> The code behind the view provides a (simple, hacky) way to databind those ComboBoxes, by loading Entity Framework 4.0 entities through a WCF RIA service: public EntitySet<Thing> Things { get; private set; } public Thing SelectedThing { get; private set; } protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { var context = new SortingDomainContext(); context.Load(context.GetThingsQuery()); context.Load(context.GetChildThingsQuery()); Things = context.Things; DataContext = this; } private void CmbThingsSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { SelectedThing = (Thing) cmbThings.SelectedItem; if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged.Invoke(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedThing")); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; What I'd like to do is have both combo boxes sort their contents alphabetically, and I'd like to specify that behaviour in the XAML if at all possible. Could someone please tell me what is the idiomatic way of doing this with the SL4 / EF4 / WCF RIA technology stack?

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  • Minimum privileges to read SQL Jobs using SQL SMO

    - by Gustavo Cavalcanti
    I wrote an application to use SQL SMO to find all SQL Servers, databases, jobs and job outcomes. This application is executed through a scheduled task using a local service account. This service account is local to the application server only and is not present in any SQL Server to be inspected. I am having problems getting information on job and job outcomes when connecting to the servers using a user with dbReader rights on system tables. If we set the user to be sysadmin on the server it all works fine. My question to you is: What are the minimum privileges a local SQL Server user needs to have in order to connect to the server and inspect jobs/job outcomes using the SQL SMO API? I connect to each SQL Server by doing the following: var conn = new ServerConnection { LoginSecure = false, ApplicationName = "SQL Inspector", ServerInstance = serverInstanceName, ConnectAsUser = false, Login = user, Password = password }; var smoServer = new Server (conn); I read the jobs by reading smoServer.JobServer.Jobs and read the JobSteps property on each of these jobs. The variable server is of type Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server. user/password are of the user found in each SQL Server to be inspected. If "user" is SysAdmin on the SQL Server to be inspected all works ok, as well as if we set ConnectAsUser to true and execute the scheduled task using my own credentials, which grants me SysAdmin privileges on SQL Server per my Active Directory membership. Thanks!

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  • Properly declare delegation in Objective C (iPhone)

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    Ok, This has been explained a few times (I got most of the way there using this post on SO), but I am missing something. I am able to compile cleanly, and able to set the delegate as well as call methods from the delegate, but I'm getting a warning on build: No definition of protocol 'DetailViewControllerDelegate' is found I have a DetailViewController and a RootViewController only. I am calling a method in RootViewController from DetailViewController. I have the delegate set up as so: In RootViewController.h: #import "DetailViewController.h" @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate, DetailViewControllerDelegate> //Error shows up here { //Some Stuff Here } //Some other stuff here @end In RootViewController.m I define the delegate when I create the view using detailViewController.delegate = self In DetailViewController.h: @protocol DetailViewControllerDelegate; #import "RootViewController.h" @interface DetailViewController : UITableViewController <UITextFieldDelegate> { id <DetailViewControllerDelegate> delegate; } @property (nonatomic, assign) id <DetailViewControllerDelegate> delegate; @end @protocol DetailViewControllerDelegate //some methods that reside in RootViewController.m @end I feel weird about declaring the protocol above the import in DetailViewController.h, but if I don't it doesn't build. Like I said, the methods are called fine, and there are no other errors going on. What am I missing here?

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  • how can I speed up insertion of many rows to a table via ADO.NET?

    - by jcollum
    I have a table that has 5 columns: AcctId (int), Address1 (varchar), Address2 (varchar), Person1 (varchar), Person2 (varchar) . I'm generating random data to insert into this table via a C# console application. I've tried doing this random data insert via SQL-Server and decided it was not a good solution -- SQL is not good at random on an each-row basis. Generating the random data -- 975k rows of it -- takes a minimal amount of time. It's in a List of custom objects. I need to take this random data and update many rows in the database with the new random data. I tried updating the rows one at a time, very slow because of the repeated searching of the List object in code. So I think the best approach is to put all the randomized data into a table in the database, then update all the other tables that use this data. I.e. UPDATE t SET t.Address1=d.Address1 FROM Table1 t INNER JOIN RandomizedData d ON d.AcctId = t.Acct_ID. The database is very un-normalized so this Acct data is sprinkled all over the place. I've got no control of the normalization. So, having decided to insert all of the randomized data into a single table, I set out to create insert scripts: USE TheDatabase Insert tmp_RandomizedData SELECT 1,'4392 EIGHTH AVE','','JENNIFER CARTER','BARBARA CARTER' UNION ALL SELECT 2,'2168 MAIN ST','HNGR F','DANIEL HERNANDEZ','SUSAN MARTIN' // etc another 98 times... // FYI, this is not real data! I'm building this INSERT script in batches of 100. It's taking on average 175 ms to run each insert. Does this seem like a long time? It's going to take about 35 mins to run the whole insert. The table doesn't have a primary key or any indexes. I was planning on adding those after all the data in inserted (thinking that that would be faster). Is there a better way to do this?

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  • How do you reenable a validation control w/o it simultaneously performing an immediate validation?

    - by Velika2
    When I called this function to enable a validator from client javascript: `ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=valPassportOtherText.ClientID%>'), true); //enable` validation control the required validation control immediately performed it validation, found the value in the associated text box blank and set focus to the textbox (because SetFocusOnError was set to true). As a result, the side effect was that focus was shifted to the control that was associated with the Validation control, i teh example, txtSpecifyOccupation. <asp:TextBox ID="txtSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" AutoCompleteType="Disabled" CssClass="DefaultTextBox DefaultWidth" MaxLength="24" Rows="2"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtSpecifyOccupation" ErrorMessage="1.14b Please specify your &lt;b&gt;Occupation&lt;/b&gt;" SetFocusOnError="True">&nbsp;Required</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> Perhaps there is a way to enable the (required) validator without having it simultaneously perform the validation (at least until the user has tabbed off of it?) I'd like validation of the txtSpecifyOccupation textbox to occur only on a Page submit or when the user has tabbed of the required txtSpecifyoccupation textbox. How can I achieve this?

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  • Getting an "i" from GEvent

    - by Cosizzle
    Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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