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  • Clarification of a some code

    - by Legend
    I have come across a website that appears to use Ajax but does not include any js file except one file called ajax.js which has the following: function run(c, f, b, a, d) { var e = null; if (b && f) { document.getElementById(b).innerHTML = f } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { e = new XMLHttpRequest() } else { if (window.ActiveXObject) { e = new ActiveXObject(Microsoft.XMLHTTP) } } e.onreadystatechange = function () { if (e.readyState == 4) { if (e.status == 200 || e.statusText == "OK") { if (b) { document.getElementById(b).innerHTML = e.responseText } if (a) { setTimeout(a, 0) } } else { console.log("AJAX Error: " + e.status + " | " + e.statusText); if (b && d != 1) { document.getElementById(b).innerHTML = "AJAX Error. Please try refreshing." } } } }; e.open("GET", c, true); e.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); e.send(null) } Like you might have guessed, the way it issues queries inside the page with queries like this: run('page.php',loadingText,'ajax-test', 'LoadSamples()'); I must admit that this is the first time I've seen a page from which I could not figure how things are being done. I have a few questions: Is this Server-Side Ajax or something similar? If not, can someone clarify what exactly is this? Why does one use this? Is it for hiding the design details? (which are otherwise revealed in plain text by javascript) How difficult would it be to convert my existing application into this design pattern? (maybe a subjective question but any short suggestion will do) Any suggestions?

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  • Mystery: How does Google do cross-domain iframe communication?

    - by Shraga
    Hi everyone, When you host Googles web search element on a page, a div is created which incorporates an iframe which points to a Google adsense ads page. However, if there are no ads for the specific query, Google somehow changes the class on YOUR domain to render the div (and iframe) invisible. They are NOT using postMessage, as it also works in IE7. They are also not using the fragment identifier method, as no hash appears in the url. So how do they do it? To check what I'm saying just put the following into a regular html page: <!-- Google Custom Search Element --> <div id="cse" style="width:100%;">Loading</div> <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('search', '1'); google.setOnLoadCallback(function(){ new google.search.CustomSearchControl().draw('cse'); }, true); </script> and then do a search for "cars" (or anything else that will definitely have ads) and then for "wzxv", which has no ads...

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  • UnknownHostException again!

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I posted one question previously and all of them answered that there is some problem with DNS but i changed my DNS to many addressed and now i have the most reliable, google DNS :- 8.8.8.8 Still i get the same UnknownHostException. What can be the problem? This is my code :- DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = db.parse("http://rss.news.yahoo.com/rss/india"); Infact if i pass address as something very common like :- http://google.com i still get the same error. Please help me :(. I have my submissions tomorrow. Thanks in advance :) EDIT : If i type the same address in my mozilla, it works great. So, i am sure that there is no DNS problem. 2nd EDIT :- I found this link http://www.ehow.com/how_4747553_fix-unknownhostexception-java-applications-ubuntu.html But when i run the command sudo apt-get install lib32nss-mdns i get package not found. Somebody even mentioned :- -Djava.net.preferIPv4Stack=true But where do i write this statement of Djava? I am using Netbeans 6.8 to run my web application

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  • Remove the hash after Ajax loading (I'm ajaxing wordpress 8-) )

    - by Alberto
    Hi everybody, I followed this great tutorial to"ajax" my blog:http://www.deluxeblogtips.com/2010/05/how-to-ajaxify-wordpress-theme.html But it creates some problems and I think the problem is in the hash that ajax creates. So, after the content is loaded, how can I remove the hash from the url? I copy my code here: jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var $mainContent = $("#content"), siteUrl = "http://" + top.location.host.toString(), url = ''; $(document).delegate("a[href^='"+siteUrl+"']:not([href*=/wp-admin/]):not([href*=/wp-login.php]):not([href$=/feed/]):not([href*=/go.php]):not(.comment-reply-link)", "click", function() { location.hash = this.pathname; $('html, body').animate({scrollTop:0}, 'fast'); return false; }); $("#searchform").submit(function(e) { location.hash = '?s=' + $("#search").val(); e.preventDefault(); }); $(window).bind('hashchange', function(){ url = window.location.hash.substring(1); if (!url) { return; } url = url + " #inside"; $mainContent.html('<div id="loader">Caricamento in corso...</div>').load(url, function() { //$mainContent.animate({opacity: "1"}); scriptss(); }); }); $(window).trigger('hashchange'); }); Thank all very much!

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  • Website hosting from home - IIS6 [closed]

    - by Paul
    I'm wanting to host a few websites from home, primarily because I'm using some BETA Microsoft software (.NET 4 and EF) and don't want to install it on my production server which is hosted at eukhost.com. Basically, I'm completely new to this sort of thing. So far, here is what I've done: Registered the domain name at namecheap.com (let's call it mydomain.com) Gone to "Nameserver Registration" in the panel and entered my IP address for the NS1 and NS2 records (let's say the IP is 0.0.0.0). Gone to "Domain Name Server Setup" and entered ns1.mydomain.com & ns2.mydomain.com Forwarded requests from port 80 to my internal IP (let's say 192.168.1.254) Created the website in IIS (I'm just testing with a single website so far, so have not created any host header values) Now, if I type in the IP address (http://0.0.0.0) I get the site as expected. However, if I enter http://www.mydomain.com I get an error saying "DNS Error - Cannot find server". I'm aware that there is a service from DynDNS that will automatically change the IP if I have a dynamic address, however my IP has remained static since I installed the ISP (since October) so I don't need this. Is there any way that I can get the DNS to work just by configuring IIS or something in Windows? I don't really want to have to pay for any 3rd party service. Thanks,

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  • Using Javascript to get URL Vars, not working when multiple values present in QueryString

    - by bateman_ap
    Hi, I am using a Javascript function to get the values of a URL to pass to jQuery using the function below: function getUrlVars() { var vars = [], hash; var hashes = window.location.href.slice(window.location.href.indexOf('?') + 1).split('&'); for(var i = 0; i < hashes.length; i++) { hash = hashes[i].split('='); vars.push(hash[0]); vars[hash[0]] = hash[1]; } return vars; } And then setting the value like this: var type = getUrlVars()["type"] This all works perfectly, however I have just come into a situation where I need to get multiple values, one of my form elements are checkboxes where multiple values can be checked, so my URL will look something like this: http://www.domain.com/test.php?type=1&cuisine[]=23&cuisine[]=43&name=test If I alert out the cuisine value using the function above I only ever get the final value: alert (getUrlVars()["cuisine[]"]); Would alert "43". What I would like it to be is a comma delimited string of all "cuisine" values. ie in the above example "23,43" Any help very welcome! In case any solution requires it I am using PHP 5.3 and Jquery 1.4

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  • Need some help setting up subdomains for my site

    - by KarimSaNet
    I'm setting up my website and want to have it so all subdomain requests are rewritten to the appropriate subdirectory. For example http://projects.karimsa.net/ -> http://karimsa.net/projects/ But I want to use the Apache rewrite mod to do this so that the URL in the browser stays the same. Here is what my config looks like at the moment: ## rewrite subdomains RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(.*).karimsa.net RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www.karimsa.net [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://karimsa.net/%1/$1 [R=301,L] And my CNAME records on 'projects.karimsa.net': Domain TTL Data Type projects.karimsa.net 14400 karimsa.net CNAME Theoretically, I feel this should work. But when I go to the URL, it gives me a server misconfiguration error, my provider's default webpage. What I should see is the index.php under /projects/. What am I doing wrong? Any help would be appreciated, thanks for reading. Addition: I realized I forgot to mention some of the problem. The domain 'karimsa.net' is parked at 'karimsa.x10.mx'. If I set up the same configuration on 'projects.karimsa.x10.mx', the rewrite and CNAME work. But on the parked domain I still get the default webpage.

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  • XML in Authorware 7.01

    - by Mikael
    Let me explain the setup that is being used. Right now I have an authorware program which loads an ocx control. This control receives data in the form on an XML string. This part is working properly. However I need parse this XML string in authorware and have not been successful. I have been trying to use the XMLParser Xtra. The documentation listed here shows how to create a new XMLParser object and then shows how to call the object but never explains how to link the Parser to a XML file or XML string. The information I have been using can be found here https://www.adobe.com/livedocs/authorware/7/using_aw_en/wwhelp/wwhimpl/common/html/wwhelp.htm?context=Using_Authorware_7&file=09_va110.htm#224295 I need more information on how to Parse XML with this function or if there is another way to do this in Authorware. As a side note the documentation says it cannot create or append to XML, I will need to do this also inside of Authorware. Is this possible and if so, how?

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  • Apprequest Dialog stopped working (FB-AS3 API)

    - by warran
    I'm writing ActionScript game and wanted to integrate it with FB, so I used http://code.google.com/p/facebook-actionscript-api/ with custom dialog function I've found in same issue thread. It goes like this: protected function dialog(method:String, callback:Function, stageReference:Stage, stageWebView:StageWebView, params:* = null):void { dialogCallback = callback; stageRef = stageReference; webView = stageWebView; webView.stage = stageReference; webView.assignFocus(); dialogWindow = new DialogWindow(handleDialog); dialogWindow.open(method, applicationId, webView, params); } I've written module to handle all the FB stuff and it worked perfectly. But few days ago I've noticed that dialog shows up, but when I select friends and try to send apprequest to them i get error: An error occurred with your app. Please try again later. API Error Code: 2 API Error Description: Service temporarily unavailable Error Message: User can't send this request: Unknown error I've checked it, and found out, that after selecting friends and clicking send dialog changes location to http://www.facebook.com/dialog/apprequest, the error occures, and than after clicking "ok" it changes location to redirect_uri. Do you have any ideas? Is this my fault or facebooks'?

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  • Can't call an object method. PHP reports variable undefined

    - by user1285697
    This is the weirdest bug! It is probably something silly, but I have no idea how to fix it. If anyone could help, I would be most grateful! I have three files, one is called items.php, another is called tableFunctions.php, and the third is called mysql.php. I use two global objects called 'mysql' and 'tableFunctions'. They are stored in the files 'mysql.php', and 'tableFunctions.php', respectively. In each file, I create an instance of its object, assigning it to the global variable $_mysql, or $_table. like this: In the file mysql.php: global $_mysql; $_mysql = new mysql(); In the file tableFunctions.php: global $_table; $_table = new tableFunctions(); Here's how it is supposed to work: The items.php file includes the tableFunctions.php file... Which in turn, needs the mysql.php file, so it includes it too. In the items.php file, I call the method getTable(), which is contained in the object tableFunctions.(and in the variable $_table.) Like this: $t = $_table->getTable('items'); The getTable function calls the method, arrayFromResult(), which is contained within in the object mysql.(and in the variable $_mysql.) Like this: $result = $_mysql->arrayFromResult($r); That's where I get the error. PHP says that the variable '$_mysql' is undefined, but I defined it in the 'mysql.php' file.(see above) I also included mysql.php with the following code: include_once 'mysql.php'; I have no idea what is wrong! If anyone can help that would be much appreciated. The source files can be downloaded with the following link: https://www.dropbox.com/sh/bjj2gyjsybym89r/YLxqyNvQdn

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  • Clarification on ZVals

    - by Beachhouse
    I was reading this: http://www.dereleased.com/2011/04/27/the-importance-of-zvals-and-circular-references/ And there's an example that lost me a bit. $foo = &$bar; $bar = &$foo; $baz = 'baz'; $foo = &$baz; var_dump($foo, $bar); /* string(3) "baz" NULL */ If you’ve been following along, this should make perfect sense. $foo is created, and pointed at a ZVal location identified by $bar; when $bar is created, it points at the same place $foo was pointed. That location, of course, is null. When $foo is reassigned, the only thing that changes is to which ZVal $foo points; if we had assigned a different value to $foo first, then $bar would still retain that value. I learned to program in C. I understand that PHP is different and it uses ZVals instead of memory locations as references. But when you run this code: $foo = &$bar; $bar = &$foo; It seems to me that there would be two ZVals. In C there would be two memory locations (and the values would be of the opposite memory location). Can someone explain?

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  • IE 7 floated div auto-clearing next element ?

    - by schweb-design-llc
    Hello, I'm having trouble with the following example. Background: I first have a element floated to the right with an image output inside it. I then have a element with other content within it. In FF and IE 8, as expected, the .images div floated to the right displays floated to the right pushing the content within the .product-body div to the left nicely. The problem: But when viewed in IE 7 compatibility mode, the .product-body div is cleared underneath the .images div and thus the .images div does not fall nicely to the right as expected. IT does this regardless of whether or not i have clear:none; on the .broduct-body div. Please see the example at www.hotelmarketingbudget.com Look at the source code there at the div element #content-body to see these divs. Feel free to use Firebug or IE Dev toolbar or whatnot to check this out. The relevant CSS: content-body{ width:auto; height:auto; position:relative; margin:0 auto; } .product-group .images { float:right; width:auto; height:auto; position:relative; margin:0 auto; margin-left:15px; } .product-group .product-body { width:auto; height:auto; position:relative; margin:0 auto; } I've spent hours already trying to figure out how to fix this- googling, reading other threads here on stackoverflow, but alas i cannot find any solutions and it's hard to know what words to even search with. I'm really hoping this is just some brain-fart on my part. Any advice or ideas or questions would be GREATLY appreciated!

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  • C# keyhook question

    - by user203123
    I copied the following code from http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cs/CSLLKeyboardHook.aspx, public int hookProc(int code, int wParam, ref keyboardHookStruct lParam) { if (code >= 0) { Keys key = (Keys)lParam.vkCode; if (HookedKeys.Contains(key)) { KeyEventArgs kea = new KeyEventArgs(key); if((wParam == WM_KEYDOWN || wParam == WM_SYSKEYDOWN) && (KeyDown != null)) {KeyDown(this, kea) ;} else if ((wParam == WM_KEYUP || wParam == WM_SYSKEYUP) && (KeyUp != null)) {KeyUp(this, kea); } if (kea.Handled) {return 1;} } } lParam.vkCode ++; lParam.scanCode ++; return CallNextHookEx(hhook, code, wParam, ref lParam); } It works fine but when I make a little change: lParam.vkCode ++; or lParam.scanCode ++; right before the return CallNextHookEx(...), the original keys still appears in Notepad. Ex. If I press "a", I expect the letter in Notepad will be "b" but it still "a". It seems like "lParam" doesn't change. Couldn't understand why?

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  • Page specific CSS or a single css file when developing a mobile (webkit) based site?

    - by Mike
    I am working on a mobile site for webkit browsers. I have been trying to find information on using multiple style sheets versus a single css file. There is a lot of information on this topic, but it not a lot of information pertaining to mobile browsers. My site will have a bunch of pages that while have page specific css. For a non-mobile site, it seems like generally people say that a single file will be faster, but that multiple files are easier to develop. However, on a mobile site is that still the case? If you put everything in one file, that will get cached after load, but that will make the first load slower. If you had page specific files, the first page would get loaded quicker, but every other page would then take a hit while making the page specific css http request. Does anyone have any thoughts on this? It sounds like they are saying one file is better as long as its under 1 MB (which my files def will)? http://www.yuiblog.com/blog/2010/07/12/mobile-browser-cache-limits-revisited/

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  • Convert html with image to ms.word

    - by user1629258
    I have the html code as below: file.html <body> <h1>TEST</h1> <p>this is test</p> <table> <tr> <td>1</td> <td>2</td> </tr> <tr> <td>3</td> <td>4</td> </tr> <tr> <td>5</td> <td><img src="../../../wamp/www/html2doc/SGEPP.jpg"></td> </tr> </table> html2doc.php <?php $handle = fopen("doc2html.html","r"); $contents = ''; while (!feof($handle)) { $contents .= fread($handle, 8192); } header("Content-type: application/vnd.ms-word"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment;Filename=html2word.doc"); echo $contents; ?> The problems: when I convert it,I get html2word.doc but I can get only all texts from html file.For the images in html file I can not get it, it is missing images.So I want to get all data from html and images also.How do I fix this?Anyone help me please,Thanks.

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  • (JQuery) How to call a custom function before following link

    - by morpheous
    I want to achieve the following behavior in a page link. When the link is clicked, I want to: First, send (POST) some data back to the server Second, allow the browser to navigate to the url that the link was pointing to. I am relatively new to JQuery, and here is my first attempt below. I will be grateful to any jQuery gurus in here to fillin the blanks (and maybe point out how the snippet below may be improved). <html> <head>test page</head> <body> <div><a id="hotlink" href="http://www.example.com">Clik and see</a></div> </body> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('hotlink').click(function(){ //AJAX Post data here ... //follow the link url (i.e. navigate/browse to the link) ... }); }); </script> </html>

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  • Not getting concept of null

    - by appu
    Hy Guys, Beginning with mysql. I am not able to grasp the concept of NULL. Check screen-shot (*declare_not_null, link*). In it when I specifically declared 'name' field to be NOT NULL. When i run the 'desc test' table command, the table description shows default value for name field to be NULL.Why is that so? From what I have read about NULL, it connotes a missing or information that is not applicable. So when I declare a field to be NOT NULL it implies (as per my understanding) that user must enter a value for the name field else the DB engine should generate an error i.e. record will not be entered in DB. However when i run 'insert into test value();' the DB engine enters the record in table. Check screen-shot(*empty_value, link*). FLICKR LINKS *declare_not_null* http://www.flickr.com/photos/55097319@N03/5302758813/ *empty_values* Check the second screenshot on flickr Q.2 what would be sql statemetn to drop a primary key from a table's field. If I use 'ALTER TABLE test drop key id;' it gives the following: ERROR: Incorrect table definition; there can be only one auto column and it must be defined as a key. Thanks for your help..

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  • using buttons to open webviews

    - by A-P
    hey guys im trying to make the buttons on my project to open a different webview url. Im new to ios programming, but im used to andriod programming. Is this possible? Ive a,ready created another webview view that sits in the supporting files folderHere is my code below Viewcontroller.m #import "ViewController.h" @implementation ViewController - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; // Release any cached data, images, etc that aren't in use. } #pragma mark - View lifecycle - (void)viewDidLoad { NSString *urlString = @"http://www.athletic-profile.com/Application"; //Create a URL object. NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; //URL Requst Object NSURLRequest *webRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; //Load the request in the UIWebView. [webView loadRequest:webRequest]; [super viewDidLoad]; // Do any additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. } - (void)viewDidUnload { [super viewDidUnload]; // Release any retained subviews of the main view. // e.g. self.myOutlet = nil; } - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillAppear:animated]; } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; } - (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewWillDisappear:animated]; } - (void)viewDidDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidDisappear:animated]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { // Return YES for supported orientations return (interfaceOrientation != UIInterfaceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown); } @synthesize webView; @end

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  • Alert Box Methods

    - by Vecta
    I just need a little advice on what may be the best method for handling my situation. I'm in need of placing three buttons in the sidebar of the website I maintain. The website is massive and hard to handle. Currently, it's all HTML files (there are over 10,000 of them believe it or not). We're transitioning to a database website so I don't want to make any sweeping changes that are site-wide, as they may just be scrapped in our re-design process in coming months. However, these buttons are for an application process. When you click on them, an alert box will need to pop up to give you a bit of information and they either allow you to cancel the action or proceed. The buttons are currently located in the left nav which is included on every page of the website. Would it be possible to accomplish this using JS or jQuery? I'd be unable to easily add scripts into the tags on all of the applicable pages, but I'd like to avoid the browser driven "http://www...Says: blah blah" message if possible. Any insight is greatly appreciated! Thank you!

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  • how to pass instance variables between handlers (routes) in sinatra (without flash, sessions, class variable or db)?

    - by jj_
    Say you have: get '/' do haml :index end get '/form' do haml :form end post '/form' do @message = params[:message] redirect to ('/') --- how to pass @message here? end I'd like the @message instance variable to be available (passed to) in "/" action as well, so I can show it in haml view. How can I do that without using session, flash, a @@class_variable, or db persistence ? I'd simply like to pass values as if I was working with passing values between methods. I don't want to use session cookies because user could have them turned off, I don't like it being a class variable which is exposed to all code, and I don't need to overhead of a db. Thanks edit: This is another question explaining a very easy way to deal with this in rails Passing parameters in rails redirect_to This is some more info i gathered around from forums. The following works for rails, i've tried it in Sinatra but no luck, but please try it, maybe I did something wrong, I don't know, and if this code help someone come up with a new idea, please share it If you are redirecting to action2 at the end of action1, just append the value to the end of the redirect: my_var = <some logic> redirect_to :action => 'action2', :my_var => my_var on the same thread another user proposes the folowing: def action1 redirect_to :action => 'action2', :value => params[:current_varaible] end def action2 puts params[:value].inspect end source: http://www.ruby-forum.com/topic/134953 Can something like this work in Sinatra? Thanks

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  • JQuery validation using is() and multiple CSS classes

    - by Alex
    Hi Folks, Trying to debug something that basically .trim()'s, .val()'s and .length's a textarea input as HTML below (truncated): <form id="Kontaktanfrage" method="post" action="tests/testform/"> ... <textarea cols="50" rows="8" id="el_12" name="FORM[Kontaktanfrage][el_12]" title="Ihre Nachricht: *" class="textarea required"></textarea> ... </form> JavaScript: function validateField(formId, fieldId) { if (fieldId) { var element = "form#"+formId+" input#"+fieldId; var fieldValue = jQuery.trim(jQuery(element).val()); var fieldLength = fieldValue.length; var fieldError = ""; if ($(element).is('.textarea.required') && fieldLength == 0) { fieldError = "error message"; } } } The above if check is never true. Using JQuery: 1.4.1. Having seen other examples online, I can't see what the difference should be. Feel free to test it in FireBug at (http://www.initiat.de/tests/testform/). Any help appreciated, can't see what I'm doing wrong.

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  • Can you write files in Chrome 8?

    - by greggory.hz
    I'm wondering if, with the new File API exposed in Chrome (I'm not concerned with cross-browser support at this time), it would be possible to write back to files opened via a file input. You can see an example of what I'm trying to accomplish here: http://www.grehz.com/ide. I know I can use server side scripts to dynamically create the files and allow the user to download them normally. I'm hoping that there's a way to accomplish this purely client side. I had read somewhere that you can write to files opened via a file input. I haven't been able to find any examples of this, though I have seen passing references to a FileWriter class. I would be completely not surprised if this wasn't possible though (it seems likely that there are security issues with this). Just looking for some guidance or resources. UPDATE: I was reading here: http://dev.w3.org/2009/dap/file-system/file-writer.html As I was playing around in Chrome, it looks like FileSaver and FileWriter are not implemented, but BlobBuilder is. I can call getBlob() on the BB object, is there any way I can then save that without FileSave or FileWriter?

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  • Wordpress curl save Images

    - by Jeton Ramadani
    I am working on saving images from external sites into a folder in my wordpress theme. And I was wondering if its Ok to call curl twice or can it be done with one time. Example: $data = get_url('http://www.veoh.com/watch/v19935546Y8hZPgbZ'); // getting the url first curl instance preg_match('/fullHighResImagePath="(.*?)"/', $data, $thumbnail); // find the image from content savePhoto($thumbnail, $post->ID); //2nd instance of curl to save the image function get_url($url) { $user_agent = "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2)"; $ytc = curl_init(); // initialize curl handle curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_URL, $url); // set url to post to curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 1); // Fail on errors curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); // allow redirects curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // return into a variable curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_PORT, 80); //Set the port number curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 15); // times out after 15s curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_HEADER, 1); // include HTTP headers curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); $source = curl_exec($ytc); curl_close($ytc); $data = trim( $source ); return $data; } function savePhoto($remoteImage, $isbn) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $remoteImage); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 0); $fileContents = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); if (DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR=='/'){ $absolute_path = dirname(__FILE__).'/'; } else { $absolute_path = str_replace('\\', '/', dirname(__FILE__)).'/'; } $newImg = imagecreatefromstring($fileContents); return imagejpeg($newImg, $absolute_path ."video_images/{$isbn}.jpg",100); }

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  • Specific path to java class file when embedded into HTML; Help urgent

    - by Jeevanism
    This is a resonant post to one of my other query due to an error with Java applet embedded into CMS pages. well, I tell issue:- Problem:- I have a website using Concrete 5 CMS, in which I have a page that I have embedded a Java applet class. This applet should show the system information which this applet is working fine in simple single HTML pages. now whenever I access my plugin Test page which created in Concrete 5 CMS (this page I embedded this java applet), it shows a Java error. The error is says incompatible Magic Number. Observation:- After a lot of searching through various tech forums, I finally found that, the issue is happened because the browser cannot load Java class file. The class file path location is wrong. Here below I post the log of server access when I test in my local machine. 127.0.0.1 - - [20/Dec/2012:12:59:28 +0800] "GET /linuxhouse/index.php/techlab/java/testvm.class HTTP/1.1" 200 1896 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (Linux 2.6.37.6-0.9-desktop) Java/1.6.0_29" 127.0.0.1 - - [20/Dec/2012:12:59:29 +0800] "GET /linuxhouse/index.php/techlab/java/testvm.class HTTP/1.1" 200 1896 "-" "Mozilla/4.0 (Linux 2.6.37.6-0.9-desktop) Java/1.6.0_29" <<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<<< Clearly, the path to Java class file is wrong. But I have no idea how to specify exact path in an embedded code. Is this a CMS specific issue. I have disabled Pretty URL feature of CMS. But still I cannot find the solution. here the referred Page that shows the java error. http://www.linux-house.net/v3/techlab/plugin pls pls give some insight..URGENT SOS

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  • definition of wait-free (referring to parallel programming)

    - by tecuhtli
    In Maurice Herlihy paper "Wait-free synchronization" he defines wait-free: "A wait-free implementation of a concurrent data object is one that guarantees that any process can complete any operation in a finite number of steps, regardless the execution speeds on the other processes." www.cs.brown.edu/~mph/Herlihy91/p124-herlihy.pdf Let's take one operation op from the universe. (1) Does the definition mean: "Every process completes a certain operation op in the same finite number n of steps."? (2) Or does it mean: "Every process completes a certain operation op in any finite number of steps. So that a process can complete op in k steps another process in j steps, where k != j."? Just by reading the definition i would understand meaning (2). However this makes no sense to me, since a process executing op in k steps and another time in k + m steps meets the definition, but m steps could be a waiting loop. If meaning (2) is right, can anybody explain to me, why this describes wait-free? In contrast to (2), meaning (1) would guarantee that op is executed in the same number of steps k. So there can't be any additional steps m that are necessary e.g. in a waiting loop. Which meaning is right and why? Thanks a lot, sebastian

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