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• Intermittent fillMode=kCAFillModeForwards bug using CAKeyframeAnimation with path

  - by Mark24x7

  I'm having an intermittent problem when I move a UIImageView around the screen using CAKeyframeAnimation. I want the position of the UIImageView to remain where the animation ends when it is done. This bug only happens for certain start and end points. When I use random points it works correctly most of the time, but about 5-15% of the time it fails and snaps back to the pre-animation position. The problem only appears when using CAKeyframeAnimation using the path property. If I use the values property the bug does not appear. I am setting removedOnCompletion = NO, and fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards. I have posted a link to a test Xcode below. Here is my code for setting up the animation. I have a property usePath. When this is YES, the bug appears. When I set usePath to NO, the snap back bug does not happen. In this case I am using a path that is a simple line, but once I resolve this bug with a simple path, I will use a more complex path with curves in it. // create the point CAKeyframeAnimation *moveAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; if (self.usePath) { CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, startPt.x, startPt.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, endPt.x, endPt.y); moveAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); } else { moveAnimation.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:startPt], [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:endPt], nil]; } moveAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; moveAnimation.duration = 0.5f; moveAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; // leaves presentation layer in final state; preventing snap-back to original state moveAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; moveAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseOut]; // moveAnimation.delegate = self; // start the animation [ball.layer addAnimation:moveAnimation forKey:@"moveAnimation"]; To dl and view my test project goto test project (http://www.24x7digital.com/downloads/PathFillModeBug.zip) Tap the 'Move Ball' button to start the animation of the ball. I have hard coded a start and end point which causes the bug to happen every time. Use the switch to change usePath to YES or NO. When usePath is YES, you will see the snap back bug. When usePath is NO, you will not see the snap back bug. I'm using SDK 3.1.3, but I have seen this bug using SDK 3.0 as well, and I have seen the bug on the Sim and on my iPhone. Any idea on how to fix this or if I am doing something wrong are appreciated. Thanks, Mark.

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• Unique ID Defined by Most-Derived Class accessible through Base Class

  - by Narfanator

  Okay, so, the idea is that I have a map of "components", which inherit from componentBase, and are keyed on an ID unique to the most-derived*. Only, I can't think of a good way to get this to work. I tried it with the constructor, but that doesn't work (Maybe I did it wrong). The problem with any virtual, etc, inheritance tricks are that the user has to impliment them at the bottom, which can be forgotten and makes it less... clean. *Right phrase? If - is inheritance; foo is most-derived: foo-foo1-foo2-componentBase Here's some code showing the problem, and why CRTP can't cut it: (No, it's not legit code, but I'm trying to get my thoughts down) #include<map> class componentBase { public: virtual static char idFunction() = 0; }; template <class T> class component : public virtual componentBase { public: static char idFunction(){ return reinterpret_cast<char>(&idFunction); } }; class intermediateDerivations1 : public virtual component<intermediateDerivations1> { }; class intermediateDerivations2 : public virtual component<intermediateDerivations2> { }; class derived1 : public intermediateDerivations1 { }; class derived2 : public intermediateDerivations1 { }; //How the unique ID gets used (more or less) std::map<char, componentBase*> TheMap; template<class T> void addToMap(componentBase * c) { TheMap[T::idFunction()] = c; } template<class T> T * getFromMap() { return TheMap[T::idFunction()]; } int main() { //In each case, the key needs to be different. //For these, the CRTP should do it: getFromMap<intermediateDerivations1>(); getFromMap<intermediateDerivations2>(); //But not for these. getFromMap<derived1>(); getFromMap<derived2>(); return 0; } More or less, I need something that is always there, no matter what the user does, and has a sortable value that's unique to the most-derived class. Also, I realize this isn't the best-asked question, I'm actually having some unexpected difficultly wrapping my head around it in words, so ask questions if/when you need clarification.

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• NSString stringWithFormat swizzled to allow missing format numbered args

  - by coneybeare

  Based on this SO question asked a few hours ago, I have decided to implement a swizzled method that will allow me to take a formatted NSString as the format arg into stringWithFormat, and have it not break when omitting one of the numbered arg references (%1$@, %2$@) I have it working, but this is the first copy, and seeing as this method is going to be potentially called hundreds of thousands of times per app run, I need to bounce this off of some experts to see if this method has any red flags, major performance hits, or optimizations #define NUMARGS(...) (sizeof((int[]){__VA_ARGS__})/sizeof(int)) @implementation NSString (UAFormatOmissions) + (id)uaStringWithFormat:(NSString *)format, ... { if (format != nil) { va_list args; va_start(args, format); // $@ is an ordered variable (%1$@, %2$@...) if ([format rangeOfString:@"$@"].location == NSNotFound) { //call apples method NSString *s = [[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:format arguments:args] autorelease]; va_end(args); return s; } NSMutableArray *newArgs = (NSMutableArray *)[NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity:NUMARGS(args)]; id arg = nil; int i = 1; while (arg = va_arg(args, id)) { NSString *f = (NSString *)[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%%%d\$\@", i]; i++; if ([format rangeOfString:f].location == NSNotFound) continue; else [newArgs addObject:arg]; } va_end(args); char *newArgList = (char *)malloc(sizeof(id) * [newArgs count]); [newArgs getObjects:(id *)newArgList]; NSString* result = [[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:format arguments:newArgList] autorelease]; free(newArgList); return result; } return nil; } The basic algorithm is: search the format string for the %1$@, %2$@ variables by searching for %@ if not found, call the normal stringWithFormat and return else, loop over the args if the format has a position variable (%i$@) for position i, add the arg to the new arg array else, don't add the arg take the new arg array, convert it back into a va_list, and call initWithFormat:arguments: to get the correct string. The idea is that I would run all [NSString stringWithFormat:] calls through this method instead. This might seem unnecessary to many, but click on to the referenced SO question (first line) to see examples of why I need to do this. Ideas? Thoughts? Better implementations? Better Solutions?

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• when I click submit it should change the text and update the row something is wrong there

  - by Yousef Altaf

  good morning programers, I have this small code which content a news control panel and I made a submit button there to active or inactive the news row so if I click on this button it should change if it's active it will be inactive it worked but there's something wrong there when I click on item one it updates the last on the table not the first on as it should do. here is the code that I use <?php $getNewsData="select * from news"; $QgetNewsData=$db->query($getNewsData)or die($db->error); $count=mysqli_num_rows($QgetNewsData); while($newsRow = mysqli_fetch_array($QgetNewsData)) { $getActivityStatus=$newsRow['news_activity']; switch($getActivityStatus){ case 1: echo"<input style='color:red; font-weight:bold; background:none; border:0;' name='inactive' type='submit' value='?????' /><input name='inActive' type='hidden' value='".$newsRow['news_id']."'/>"; break; case 0: echo"<input style='color:green; font-weight:bold; background:none; border:0;' name='active' type='submit' value='?????' /><input name='Active' type='hidden' value='".$newsRow['news_id']."'/>"; break;} } if(isset($_POST['inactive'])){ $inActive=$_POST['inActive']; echo $inActive; $updateStatus="UPDATE news SET news_activity=0 WHERE news_id='".$inActive."' "; $QupdateStatus=$db->query($updateStatus)or die($db->error); if($QupdateStatus){ } } if(isset($_POST['active'])){ $Active=$_POST['Active']; echo $Active; $updateStatus="UPDATE news SET news_activity=1 WHERE news_id='".$Active."' "; $QupdateStatus=$db->query($updateStatus)or die($db->error); if($QupdateStatus){ header("Location:CpanelHome.php?id=7"); } } ?> please any idea to solve this problem. Thanks, regards

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• PHP Associative array sort

  - by Mithun

  I have an array like one below. Currently it is sorted alphabetically by the OwnerNickName field. Now i want to brig the array entry with OwnerNickName 'My House' as the first entry of the array and rest sorted alphabetically by OwnerNickName. Any idea? Array ( [0318B69D-5DEB-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364] => Array ( [OwnerNickName] => andy [Rooms] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [Label] => Living Room [RoomKey] => FC795A73-695E-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) ) ) [286C29DE-A9BE-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC] => Array ( [OwnerNickName] => anton [Rooms] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [Label] => KidsRoom [RoomKey] => E79D7991-64DC-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) [1] => Array ( [Label] => Basement [RoomKey] => CC12C0C4-68AA-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) [2] => Array ( [Label] => Family Room [RoomKey] => 67A280D4-64D9-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) ) ) [8BE18F84-AC22-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC] => Array ( [OwnerNickName] => mike [Rooms] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [Label] => Family Room [RoomKey] => 1C6AFB39-6835-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) ) ) [29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC] => Array ( [OwnerNickName] => My House [Rooms] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [Label] => Basement [RoomKey] => 61ECFAB2-6376-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) [1] => Array ( [Label] => Rec Room [RoomKey] => 52B8B781-6376-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) [2] => Array ( [Label] => Deck [RoomKey] => FFEB4102-64DE-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) [3] => Array ( [Label] => My Room2 [RoomKey] => 112473E4-64DF-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) [4] => Array ( [Label] => Bar Room [RoomKey] => F82C47A8-64DE-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364 ) ) ) )

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• "RFC 2833 RTP Event" Consecutive Events and the E "End" Bit

  - by brian_d

  Hello, I can send out a RFC 2833 dtmf event as outlined at http://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc2833.txt When I do set the E "End" bit, but leave it as 0, I get the following behaviour: If for example keys 7874556332111111145855885#3 were pressed, then ALL events would be sent and show up in a program like wireshark, however only 87456321458585#3 would sound. So the first key (which I figure could be a separate issue) and any repeats of an event (ie 11111) are failing to sound. In section 3.9, figure 2 of the above linked document, they give a 911 example. Here all but the last event have the E bit set. When I set the bit for all numbers, I never get an event to sound. I have thought of a couple possible thing but do not know if they are the reason: 1) figure 2 shows payload types of 96 and 97 sent. I have not nor know how to exactly. In section 3.8, codes 96 and 97 are described as "the dynamic payload types 96 and 97 have been assigned for the redundancy mechanism and the telephone event payload respectively" 2) In section 3.5, "E:", "A sender MAY delay setting the end bit until retransmitting the last packet for a tone, rather than on its first transmission" Does anyone have an idea of how to actually do this? I have also fiddled around with timestamp intervals and the RTP marker. Any help is greatly appreciated. Here is a sample wireshark event capture of the relevant areas: 6590 31.159045000 xx.x.x.xxx --.--.---.-- RTP EVENT Payload type=RTP Event, DTMF Pound # (end) Real-Time Transport Protocol Stream setup by SDP (frame 6225) Setup frame: 6225 Setup Method: SDP 10.. .... = Version: RFC 1889 Version (2) ..0. .... = Padding: False ...0 .... = Extension: False .... 0000 = Contributing source identifiers count: 0 0... .... = Marker: False Payload type: telephone-event (101) Sequence number: 0 Extended sequence number: 65536 Timestamp: 0 Synchronization Source identifier: 0x15f27104 (368210180) RFC 2833 RTP Event Event ID: DTMF Pound # (11) 1... .... = End of Event: True .0.. .... = Reserved: False ..00 0000 = Volume: 0 Event Duration: 2048

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• How to programmatically bind to a Core Data model?

  - by Dave Gallagher

  Hello. I have a Core Data model, and was wondering if you know how to create a binding to an Entity, programmatically? Normally you use bind:toObject:withKeyPath:options: to create a binding. But I'm having a little difficulty getting this to work with Core Data, and couldn't find anything in Apple's docs regarding doing this programmatically. The Core Data model is simple: An Entity called Book An Attribute of Book called author (NSString) I have an object called BookController. It looks like so: @interface BookController : NSObject { NSString *anAuthor; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *anAuthor; // @synthesize anAuthor; inside @implementation I'd like to bind anAuthor inside BookController, to author inside a Book entity. This is how I'm attempting to wrongly do it (it partially works): // A custom class I made, providing an interface to the Core Data database CoreData *db = [[CoreData alloc] init]; // Creating a Book entity, saving it [db addMocObject:@"Book"]; [db saveMoc]; // Fetching the Book entity we just created NSArray *books = [db fetchObjectsForEntity:@"Book" withPredicate:nil withSortDescriptors:nil]; NSManagedObject *book = [books objectAtIndex:0]; // Creating the binding BookController *bookController = [[BookController alloc] init]; [bookController bind:@"anAuthor" toObject:book withKeyPath:@"author" options:nil]; // Manipulating the binding [bookController setAnAuthor:@"Bill Gates"]; Now, when updating from the perspective of bookController, things don't work quite right: // Testing the binding from the bookController's perspective [bookController setAnAuthor:@"Bill Gates"]; // Prints: "bookController's anAuthor: Bill Gates" NSLog(@"bookController's anAuthor: %@", [bookController anAuthor]); // OK! // ERROR HERE - Prints: "bookController's anAuthor: (null)" NSLog(@"Book's author: %@", [book valueForKey:@"author"]); // DOES NOT WORK! :( When updating from the perspective of the Book entity, things work fine: // ------------------------------ // Testing the binding from the Book's (Entity) perspective (this works perfect) [book setValue:@"Steve Jobs" forKey:@"author"]; // Prints: "bookController's anAuthor: Steve Jobs" NSLog(@"bookController's anAuthor: %@", [bookController anAuthor]); // OK! // Prints: "bookController's anAuthor: Steve Jobs" NSLog(@"Book's author: %@", [book valueForKey:@"author"]); // OK! It appears that the binding is partially working. I can update it on the side of the Model and it propagates up to the Controller via KVO, but if I update it on the side of the Controller, it doesn't trickle down to the Model via KVC. Any idea on what I'm doing wrong? Thanks so much for looking! :)

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• Need help with Xpath methods in javascript (selectSingleNode, selectNodes)

  - by Andrija

  I want to optimize my javascript but I ran into a bit of trouble. I'm using XSLT transformation and the basic idea is to get a part of the XML and subquery it so the calls are faster and less expensive. This is a part of the XML: <suite> <table id="spis" runat="client"> <rows> <row id="spis_1"> <dispatch>'2008', '288627'</dispatch> <data col="urGod"> <title>2008</title> <description>Ur. god.</description> </data> <data col="rbr"> <title>288627</title> <description>Rbr.</description> </data> ... </rows> </table> </suite> In the page, this is the javascript that works with this: // this is my global variable for getting the elements so I just get the most // I can in one call elemCollection = iDom3.Table.all["spis"].XML.DOM.selectNodes("/suite/table/rows/row").context; //then I have the method that uses this by getting the subresults from elemCollection //rest of the method isn't interesting, only the selectNodes call _buildResults = function (){ var _RowList = elemCollection.selectNodes("/data[@col = 'urGod']/title"); var tmpResult = ['']; var substringResult=""; for (i=0; i<_RowList.length; i++) { tmpResult.push(_RowList[i].text,iDom3.Global.Delimiter); } ... //this variant works elemCollection = iDom3.Table.all["spis"].XML.DOM _buildResults = function (){ var _RowList = elemCollection.selectNodes("/suite/table/rows/row/data[@col = 'urGod']/title"); var tmpResult = ['']; var substringResult=""; for (i=0; i<_RowList.length; i++) { tmpResult.push(_RowList[i].text,iDom3.Global.Delimiter); } ... The problem is, I can't find a way to use the subresults to get what I need.

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• Multiple views and source list in a Core Data app

  - by Ellie P.

  I'm working on my first major Cocoa app for an undergraduate research project. The application is document-based and uses Core Data. One of the entities is an abstract entity, Page. Page is parent of several types of pages: ie PageWithHeaderAndFooter, PageWithTwoColumns, BasicPage etc. Page has attributes, such as title and author, that all pages have in common. Each specific type of page has a certain number of layout blocks (PageWithHeaderAndFooter has three: header, footer, body. BasicPage has one: body. etc.) Additionally, all Page subclasses define layout-specific implementations of certain methods. The other relevant entity is Style, which defines the visual look of a Page. (Think of Pages as HTML and Style as CSS.) I would like my app to have an iTunes/Mail-like source list with sections. (One section would be Pages, the other would be Styles.) I have a pretty good idea how to do the sectioned source list (this was a great help). However, after hours of headbanging and fruitless googling, here's what I can't figure out: Pages and Styles listed in the source list, and when you select one of them, all of the relevant fields for that object appear at the right (mostly NSTextViews, pop up menus, etc). I laid that out and did all of the bindings in Interface Builder. The problem is, if my source list contains different types of pages, how do I get a different view to display at the right depending on the type of page selected? For example, if a BasicPage is selected, I want just what you see above: the general page stuff and one NSTextView that corresponds to the one field body of BasicPage. But if I select a PageWithHeaderAndFooter, I want to display the general page stuff plus three NSTextViews (one for header, body, and footer.) If I have a Style selected, I want to display various pop up menus, color wells, etc. For the pages at least, we're only talking about one or more NSTextViews, each of which corresponds to a String attribute of the respective entity. How would you do this? Thank you for your help!

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• Right edge border unpainted & theme drawing on non client area

  - by CodeVisio

  Basically, the problem concerns border flickering during window resizing on Windows. My first goal was to repositioning controls on a dialog during resizing of it. I think I got a good dynamic repositioning without almost any flickering during this operation, but here I'm talking about main window border flickering. However, I wasn't able to eliminate it at all. To simplify the example try to create a simple win32 app with default code VS provided. I'm testing it on Window 7(64bit) with the default theme (Windows 7 basic, no transparency) and VS2008. 1) Do not add code to the app. 2) run it in debug mode. 3) Drag the left edge of the window slowly toward the left of the screen and at the same time keep an eye on the right edge border of the window. You should see a redrawing taking in action. 4) Repeat step 3 moving rapidly the mouse, you should see the flickering on the right edge more clearly. If you invert the edge, that is moving the right edge of the window, then the left edge stay firmly there without unpainted regions. The same process happens for the top edge border vs. the bottom one. Now, enable he Classic Theme (that similar to Win2000) and repeat again the steps above. The right edge is perfectly there without flickering at all! If you keep an eye in the Output Window of Visual Studio when you run in debug mode you should see a list of dll loaded together with your exe. If you run in debug mode with the default theme you will see uxtheme.dll loaded. On the contrary, with classic theme enabled the uxtheme.dll is not loaded (dwmapi.dll is always loaded). Probably uxtheme.dll is loaded at runtime, based on desktop settings and it takes in action for redrawing your windows non-client area. Another trick you could use to see the effect of this flickering is to add a case for WM_NCPAINT and return 0 instead to call the DefWindowProc(). Repeating the steps above and moving fast you should see a big part of the right edge of the window completely erased by background windows. This doesn't happen for the top and bottom ones. Any idea to resolve this flickering? Thank you!

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• CSS Background image arbitrarily not getting requested at all

  - by Pekka

  I`m in the process of building a template for Redmine (a project management system based on Ruby on Rails.) Ruby is running on a virtual server from a Bitnami.org installation package. The OS is Windows. The template essentially consists of a styles.css file. In that file, I have the following line: #header { padding: 0px; padding-top: 48px; background-color: #62DFFF; background-image: url(../images/bkg.jpg); background-position: center bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; height:150px; } It's a header element with a background image. The problem: This background image arbitrarily appears and disappears when reloading the page. It is more often missing than it is not. Say you reload the page in your browser ten times in twenty seconds; the image will appear in two instances, and be missing in the 18 others. I would have put this down to server problems, but the weird thing is that when it's missing, the request for the image doesn't appear in Firebug's net tab at all. Even if it were cached, the request should be there, shouldn't it? Raw screenshots of the identical page on two reloads: I am 100% sure the CSS file does not change in between. I have examined both instances with Firebug and the CSS is identical. When I change the image's URL by editing the style declaration in firebug to bkg.jpg?xyz=123445 then the image will get loaded, which is making me think this must be a server problem. It happens in both Firefox and Chrome so it must be something basic I'm overlooking. What could be causing a browser not to load a resource at all? I have zero idea about Ruby nor Rails - getting Redmine running and customized is all I have ever had to do with this platform - so I don't really know where to start debugging. Apache's, Mongrel's and Redmine's error logs look fine, though. And then again, this looks like a browser issue. I'm stumped.

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• Suggestions for designing large-scale Java webapp from the group up

  - by Chris Thompson

  Hi all, I'm about to start developing a large-scale system and I'm struggling with which direction to proceed. I've done plenty of Java web apps before and I have plenty of experience with servlet containers and GWT and some experience with Spring. The problem is most of my webapps have been thrown together just to be a proof of concept and what I'm struggling with is what set of frameworks to use. I need to have both a browser based application as well as a web service designed to support access from mobile devices (Android and iPhone for now). Ideally, I'd like to design this system in such a way that I don't end up rewriting all of my servlets for each client (browser and phone) although I don't mind having some small checks in there to properly format the data. In addition, although I'm the only developer now, that won't necessarily be the case down the road and I'd like to design something that scales well both with regards to traffic and number of developers (isn't just a nightmare to maintain). So where I am now is planning on using GWT to design the browser-based interface but I'm struggling with how to reuse that code with to present the interface (most likely xml) for the mobile devices. Using GWT RPC would, I think, make it relatively easy to do all of the AJAX in the browser, but might make generating xml for the mobile phones difficult. In addition, I like the idea of using something like Hibernate for persistence and Spring Security to secure the whole thing. Again, I'm not sure how well those will cooperate with GWT (I think Hibernate should be fine...) There's obviously a lot more to this than I've presented here, but I've tried to give you the 5-minute overview. I'm a bit stumped and was wondering if anybody in the community had any experience starting from this place. Does what I'm trying to do make sense? Is it realistic? I have no doubt I can make all of these frameworks speak the same language, I'm just wondering if it's worth my time to fight with them. Also, am I missing a framework that would be really beneficial? Thanks in advance and sorry for the relatively broad question... Chris

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• Window Media Player issues two requests for the audio on web page

  - by Ron Harlev

  I'm using Windows Media Player in a web page. I have version 11 installed so that is the version I'm testing with right now. The player is embedded on the page with this HTML: <OBJECT id='MS_mediaPlayer' width="400" height="45" classid='CLSID:6BF52A52-394A-11D3-B153-00C04F79FAA6' codebase='http://activex.microsoft.com/activex/controls/mplayer/en/nsmp2inf.cab#Version=5,1,52,701' standby='Loading Microsoft Windows Media Player components...' type='application/x-oleobject'> <param name='autoStart' value="false"> <param name='uiMode' value="invisible"> <param name='loop' value="false"> </OBJECT> I'm calling in JavaScript: MS_mediaPlayer.URL = "SomeAudioFile.mp3" MS_mediaPlayer.controls.play(); When I look at Fiddler I can see that the player actually downloads "SomeAudioFile.mp3" twice. Is there some setting I have wrong? I was trying to set the "autoPlay" to true and avoid calling "play()". Got the same result - two downloads. UPDATE: The first request's user-agent is "Windows-Media-Player/11.0.5721.5268". The second has "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 5.1; GTB6; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.30; .NET CLR 3.0.04506.648; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729)". Looks like the browser is running the same request the second time. No Idea why Any ideas? UPDATE (4/1/10): Still no solution. I debugged the JS thoroughly and there is only one call to MediaPlayer.URL='.....' to set the audio file. Nothing else triggers the media player to load the file and there is no other place referencing the audio file on the page. One other interesting fact is that this doesn't happen (the double loading of the audio) when I run the browser locally on my development web server. But other remote requests to the same web server generate the double audio loading. I believe I eliminated any correlation with specific IE version or media player version. This happens with IE6-8 and WM9-12

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• Binary socket and policy file in Flex

  - by Daniil

  Hi, I'm trying to evaluate whether Flex can access binary sockets. Seems that there's a class calles Socket (flex.net package). The requirement is that Flex will connect to a server serving binary data. It will then subscribe to data and receive the feed which it will interpret and display as a chart. I've never worked with Flex, my experience lies with Java, so everything is new to me. So I'm trying to quickly set something simple up. The Java server expects the following: DataInputStream in = ..... byte cmd = in.readByte(); int size = in.readByte(); byte[] buf = new byte[size]; in.readFully(buf); ... do some stuff and send binary data in something like out.writeByte(1); out.writeInt(10000); ... etc... Flex, needs to connect to a localhost:6666 do the handshake and read data. I got something like this: try { var socket:Socket = new Socket(); socket.connect('192.168.110.1', 9999); Alert.show('Connected.'); socket.writeByte(108); // 'l' socket.writeByte(115); // 's' socket.writeByte(4); socket.writeMultiByte('HHHH', 'ISO-8859-1'); socket.flush(); } catch (err:Error) { Alert.show(err.message + ": " + err.toString()); } The first thing is that Flex does a <policy-file-request/>. I've modified the server to respond with: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE cross-domain-policy SYSTEM "/xml/dtds/cross-domain-policy.dtd"> <cross-domain-policy> <site-control permitted-cross-domain-policies="master-only"/> <allow-access-from domain="192.168.110.1" to-ports="*" /> </cross-domain-policy> After that - EOFException happens on the server and that's it. So the question is, am I approaching whole streaming data issue wrong when it comes to Flex? Am I sending the policy file wrong? Unfortunately, I can't seem to find a good solid example of how to do it. It seems to me that Flex can do binary Client-Server application, but I personally lack some basic knowledge when doing it. I'm using Flex 3.5 in IntelliJ IDEA IDE. Any help is appreciated. Thank you!

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• TcpListener is queuing connections faster than I can clear them

  - by Matthew Brindley

  As I understand it, TcpListener will queue connections once you call Start(). Each time you call AcceptTcpClient (or BeginAcceptTcpClient), it will dequeue one item from the queue. If we load test our TcpListener app by sending 1,000 connections to it at once, the queue builds far faster than we can clear it, leading (eventually) to timeouts from the client because it didn't get a response because its connection was still in the queue. However, the server doesn't appear to be under much pressure, our app isn't consuming much CPU time and the other monitored resources on the machine aren't breaking a sweat. It feels like we're not running efficiently enough right now. We're calling BeginAcceptTcpListener and then immediately handing over to a ThreadPool thread to actually do the work, then calling BeginAcceptTcpClient again. The work involved doesn't seem to put any pressure on the machine, it's basically just a 3 second sleep followed by a dictionary lookup and then a 100 byte write to the TcpClient's stream. Here's the TcpListener code we're using: // Thread signal. private static ManualResetEvent tcpClientConnected = new ManualResetEvent(false); public void DoBeginAcceptTcpClient(TcpListener listener) { // Set the event to nonsignaled state. tcpClientConnected.Reset(); listener.BeginAcceptTcpClient( new AsyncCallback(DoAcceptTcpClientCallback), listener); // Wait for signal tcpClientConnected.WaitOne(); } public void DoAcceptTcpClientCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { // Get the listener that handles the client request, and the TcpClient TcpListener listener = (TcpListener)ar.AsyncState; TcpClient client = listener.EndAcceptTcpClient(ar); if (inProduction) ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(state => HandleTcpRequest(client, serverCertificate)); // With SSL else ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(state => HandleTcpRequest(client)); // Without SSL // Signal the calling thread to continue. tcpClientConnected.Set(); } public void Start() { currentHandledRequests = 0; tcpListener = new TcpListener(IPAddress.Any, 10000); try { tcpListener.Start(); while (true) DoBeginAcceptTcpClient(tcpListener); } catch (SocketException) { // The TcpListener is shutting down, exit gracefully CheckBuffer(); return; } } I'm assuming the answer will be related to using Sockets instead of TcpListener, or at least using TcpListener.AcceptSocket, but I wondered how we'd go about doing that? One idea we had was to call AcceptTcpClient and immediately Enqueue the TcpClient into one of multiple Queue<TcpClient> objects. That way, we could poll those queues on separate threads (one queue per thread), without running into monitors that might block the thread while waiting for other Dequeue operations. Each queue thread could then use ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem to have the work done in a ThreadPool thread and then move onto dequeuing the next TcpClient in its queue. Would you recommend this approach, or is our problem that we're using TcpListener and no amount of rapid dequeueing is going to fix that?

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• Adding Parsekit To An Xcode Project

  - by Garry

  I am trying to add the Parsekit framework to my OSX Xcode project. I've never added a 3rd party framework before and I can't get it to work right. I dragged the included Xcode project into my 'Groups & Files' pane and chose to Add it to my project. I then dragged Parsekit.framework underneath the Link Binary With Libraries heading. Then I double-clicked my target app and added Parsekit as a Direct Dependency. I also added libicucore.dylib as a Linked Library (as it says to do this on their site). Finally, in the Build settings tab of my target info I set the Header Search Paths to /Users/path/to/include/directory and the Other Linker Flags to -ObjC -all_load. Running this as a debug build work fine with no errors. However, when I build my app to release and then try to run the executable created, the app fails to load with the following error message: MyApp cannot be opened because of a problem. Check with the developer to make sure myApp works with this version of Mac OS X. Here is the dump from the crash reporter: Process: MyApp [11658] Path: /Users/Garry/Programming/Xcode/Mac/MyApp/build/Release/MyApp.app/Contents/MacOS/MyApp Identifier: com.yourcompany.MyApp Version: ??? (???) Code Type: X86-64 (Native) Parent Process: launchd [135] Date/Time: 2010-05-24 17:08:08.475 +0100 OS Version: Mac OS X 10.6.3 (10D573) Report Version: 6Interval Since Last Report: 133300 sec Crashes Since Last Report: 3 Per-App Crashes Since Last Report: 3 Anonymous UUID: DF0265E4-B5A0-45E1-8B71-D52A27CFDDCA Exception Type: EXC_BREAKPOINT (SIGTRAP) Exception Codes: 0x0000000000000002, 0x0000000000000000 Crashed Thread: 0 Dyld Error Message: Library not loaded: @executable_path/../Frameworks/ParseKit.framework/Versions/A/ParseKit Referenced from: /Users/Garry/Programming/Xcode/Mac/MyApp/build/Release/MyApp.app/Contents/MacOS/MyApp Reason: image not found Model: MacBookPro5,5, BootROM MBP55.00AC.B03, 2 processors, Intel Core 2 Duo, 2.53 GHz, 4 GB, SMC 1.47f2 Graphics: NVIDIA GeForce 9400M, NVIDIA GeForce 9400M, PCI, 256 MB Memory Module: global_name AirPort: spairport_wireless_card_type_airport_extreme (0x14E4, 0x8D), Broadcom BCM43xx 1.0 (5.10.91.27) Bluetooth: Version 2.3.1f4, 2 service, 2 devices, 1 incoming serial ports Network Service: AirPort, AirPort, en1 Network Service: Ethernet Adaptor (en6), Ethernet, en6 Serial ATA Device: Hitachi HTS545025B9SA02, 232.89 GB Serial ATA Device: HL-DT-ST DVDRW GS23N USB Device: Built-in iSight, 0x05ac (Apple Inc.), 0x8507, 0x24400000 USB Device: Internal Memory Card Reader, 0x05ac (Apple Inc.), 0x8403, 0x26500000 USB Device: IR Receiver, 0x05ac (Apple Inc.), 0x8242, 0x04500000 USB Device: Apple Internal Keyboard / Trackpad, 0x05ac (Apple Inc.), 0x0237, 0x04600000 USB Device: BRCM2046 Hub, 0x0a5c (Broadcom Corp.), 0x4500, 0x06100000 USB Device: Bluetooth USB Host Controller, 0x05ac (Apple Inc.), 0x8213, 0x06110000 After building the app, in addition to the executable file, Xcode is also creating a file called MyApp.app.dSYM. Any idea what that is?? I am developing with Xcode 3.2.2 on an Intel MBP running 10.6.3. Many thanks for any help offered.

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• How to Configure SSL over Database in Spring?

  - by Sameer Malhotra

  Hi, I want to add SSL security in the Database layer. I am using Struts2.1.6, Spring 2.5, JBOSS 5.0 and Informix 11.5. Any idea how to do this? I have researched through a lot on the internet but could not find any solution. Please suggest! Here is my datasource and entity manager beans which is working perfect without SSL: <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="database" value="INFORMIX" /> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <property name="driverClassName" value="com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver" /> <property name="url" value="jdbc:informix-sqli://SERVER_NAME:9088/DB_NAME:INFORMIXSERVER=SERVER_NAME;DELIMIDENT=y;" /> <property name="username" value="username" /> <property name="password" value="password" /> <property name="minIdle" value="2" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.MethodInvokingFactoryBean" lazy-init="false"> <property name="targetObject" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="targetMethod" value="addConnectionProperty" /> <property name="arguments"> <list> <value>characterEncoding</value> <value>UTF-8</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="jdbcTemplate" class="org.springframework.jdbc.core.JdbcTemplate" scope="prototype"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager" />

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• Tunnel over HTTPS

  - by ephemient

  At my workplace, the traffic blocker/firewall has been getting progressively worse. I can't connect to my home machine on port 22, and lack of ssh access makes me sad. I was previously able to use SSH by moving it to port 5050, but I think some recent filters now treat this traffic as IM and redirect it through another proxy, maybe. That's my best guess; in any case, my ssh connections now terminate before I get to log in. These days I've been using Ajaxterm over HTTPS, as port 443 is still unmolested, but this is far from ideal. (Sucky terminal emulation, lack of port forwarding, my browser leaks memory at an amazing rate...) I tried setting up mod_proxy_connect on top of mod_ssl, with the idea that I could send a CONNECT localhost:22 HTTP/1.1 request through HTTPS, and then I'd be all set. Sadly, this seems to not work; the HTTPS connection works, up until I finish sending my request; then SSL craps out. It appears as though mod_proxy_connect takes over the whole connection instead of continuing to pipe through mod_ssl, confusing the heck out of the HTTPS client. Is there a way to get this to work? I don't want to do this over plain HTTP, for several reasons: Leaving a big fat open proxy like that just stinks A big fat open proxy is not good over HTTPS either, but with authentication required it feels fine to me HTTP goes through a proxy -- I'm not too concerned about my traffic being sniffed, as it's ssh that'll be going "plaintext" through the tunnel -- but it's a lot more likely to be mangled than HTTPS, which fundamentally cannot be proxied Requirements: Must work over port 443, without disturbing other HTTPS traffic (i.e. I can't just put the ssh server on port 443, because I would no longer be able to serve pages over HTTPS) I have or can write a simple port forwarder client that runs under Windows (or Cygwin) Edit DAG: Tunnelling SSH over HTTP(S) has been pointed out to me, but it doesn't help: at the end of the article, they mention Bug 29744 - CONNECT does not work over existing SSL connection preventing tunnelling over HTTPS, exactly the problem I was running into. At this point, I am probably looking at some CGI script, but I don't want to list that as a requirement if there's better solutions available.

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• Cannot populate form with ajax and populate jquery plugin

  - by Azriel_

  I'm trying to populate a form with jquery's populate plugin, but using $.ajax The idea is to retrieve data from my database according to the id in the links (ex of link: get_result_edit.php?id=34), reformulate it to json, return it to my page and fill up the form up with the populate plugin. But somehow i cannot get it to work. Any ideas: here's the code: $('a').click(function(){ $('#updatediv').hide('slow'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "get_result_edit.php", success: function(data) { var $response=$(data); $('#form1').populate($response); } }); $('#updatediv').fadeIn('slow'); return false; whilst the php file states as follow: <?php $conn = new mysqli('localhost', 'XXXX', 'XXXXX', 'XXXXX'); @$query = 'Select * FROM news WHERE id ="'.$_GET['id'].'"'; $stmt = $conn->query($query) or die ($mysql->error()); if ($stmt) { $results = $stmt->fetch_object(); // get database data $json = json_encode($results); // convert to JSON format echo $json; } ?> Now first thing is that the mysql returns a null in this way: is there something wrong with he declaration of the sql statement in the $_GET part? Second is that even if i put a specific record to bring up, populate doesn't populate. Update: I changed the populate library with the one called "PHP jQuery helper functions" and the difference is that finally it says something. finally i get an error saying NO SUCH ELEMENT AS i wen into the library to have a look and up comes the following function function populateFormElement(form, name, value) { // check that the named element exists in the form var name = name; // handle non-php naming var element = form[name]; if(element == undefined) { debug('No such element as ' + name); return false; } // debug options if(options.debug) { _populate.elements.push(element); } } Now looking at it one can see that it should print out also the name, but its not printing it out. so i'm guessing that retrieving the name form the json is not working correctly. Link is at http://www.ocdmonline.org/michael/edit%5Fnews.php with username: Testing and pass:test123 Any ideas?

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• C# - How to override GetHashCode with Lists in object

  - by Christian

  Hi, I am trying to create a "KeySet" to modify UIElement behaviour. The idea is to create a special function if, eg. the user clicks on an element while holding a. Or ctrl+a. My approach so far, first lets create a container for all possible modifiers. If I would simply allow a single key, it would be no problem. I could use a simple Dictionary, with Dictionary<Keys, Action> _specialActionList If the dictionary is empty, use the default action. If there are entries, check what action to use depending on current pressed keys And if I wasn't greedy, that would be it... Now of course, I want more. I want to allow multiple keys or modifiers. So I created a wrapper class, wich can be used as Key to my dictionary. There is an obvious problem when using a more complex class. Currently two different instances would create two different key, and thereby he would never find my function (see code to understand, really obvious) Now I checked this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/638761/c-gethashcode-override-of-object-containing-generic-array which helped a little. But my question is, is my basic design for the class ok. Should I use a hashset to store the modifier and normal keyboardkeys (instead of Lists). And If so, how would the GetHashCode function look like? I know, its a lot of code to write (boring hash functions), some tips would be sufficient to get me started. Will post tryouts here... And here comes the code so far, the Test obviously fails... public class KeyModifierSet { private readonly List<Key> _keys = new List<Key>(); private readonly List<ModifierKeys> _modifierKeys = new List<ModifierKeys>(); private static readonly Dictionary<KeyModifierSet, Action> _testDict = new Dictionary<KeyModifierSet, Action>(); public static void Test() { _testDict.Add(new KeyModifierSet(Key.A), () => Debug.WriteLine("nothing")); if (!_testDict.ContainsKey(new KeyModifierSet(Key.A))) throw new Exception("Not done yet, help :-)"); } public KeyModifierSet(IEnumerable<Key> keys, IEnumerable<ModifierKeys> modifierKeys) { foreach (var key in keys) _keys.Add(key); foreach (var key in modifierKeys) _modifierKeys.Add(key); } public KeyModifierSet(Key key, ModifierKeys modifierKey) { _keys.Add(key); _modifierKeys.Add(modifierKey); } public KeyModifierSet(Key key) { _keys.Add(key); } }

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• Trouble cross-referencing two XML child nodes in AS3

  - by Dwayne

  I am building a mini language translator out of XML nodes and Actionscript 3. I have my XML ready. It contains a series of nodes with two children in them. Here is a sample: <translations> <entry> <english>man</english> <cockney>geeza</cockney> </entry> <entry> <english>woman</english> <cockney>lily</cockney> </entry> </translations> The AS3 part consist of one input box named "textfield_txt" where the English word will be typed in. An output text field for the translation called "cockney_txt". Finally, one button to execute the translation called "generate_mc". The idea is to have actionscript look through the XML for key English words after the user types it in the "textfield", cross-freferences the children then returns the Cockney translation as a value. The trouble is, when I test it I get no response or error messages- it's completely silent. I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. At present, I have setup a conditional statement to tell me whether the function works or not. The result is, no it's not! Here's the code below. I hope someone can help. Cheers! generate_mc.buttonMode=true; var English:String; var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("Language.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); } generate_mc.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onClick); function onClick(event:MouseEvent) { English = textfield.text; cockney_txt.text = myXML.translations.entry.cockney; if(textfield.text.toLowerCase() == myXML.translations.entry.english.toLowerCase){ //return myXML.translations.entry.cockney; trace("success"); }else{ trace("try again!"); // ***I get this as a result } }

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• vb.net one dimensional string array manipulation difficulty

  - by Luay

  Hi, I am having some problems with manipulating a one dimensional string array in vb.net and would like your assistance please. My objective is to get 4 variables (if possible) from a file path. these variables are: myCountry, myCity, myStreet, Filename. All declared as string. The file location is also declared as string. so I have: Dim filePath As String to illustrate my problem and what I am trying to do I have the following examples: 1- C:\my\location\is\UK\Birmingham\Summer Road\this house.txt. In this example myCountry would be= UK. myCity= Birmingham. myStreet=Summer Road. Filename=this house.txt 2- C:\my Location\is\France\Lyon\that house.txt. here myCountry=France. myCity=Lyon. There is no street. Filename=that house.txt 3- C:\my Location is\Germany\the other house.txt Here myCountry=Germany. No city. No street. Filename=the other house.txt What I am trying to say is I have no idea before hand about the lenght of the string or the position of the variables I want. I also don't know if I am going to find/get a city or street name in the path. However I do now that i will get myCountry and it will be one of 5 options: UK, France, Germany, Spain, Italy. To tackle my problem, the first thing I did was Dim pathArr() As String = filePath.Split("\") to get the FileName I did: FileName = pathArr.Last To get myCountry I did: If filePath.Contains("UK") Then myCountry = "UK" ElseIf filePath.Contains("France") Then myCountry = "France" ElseIf filePath.Contains("Germany") Then myCountry = "Germany" ElseIf filePath.Contains("Spain") Then myCountry = "Spain" ElseIf filePath.Contains("Italy") Then myCountry = "Italy" End If in trying to figure out myCity and myStreet (and whether they exist in the string in the first place) I started with: Dim ind As Integer = Array.IndexOf(pathArr, myCountry) to get the index of the myCountry string. I thought I could make my way from there but I am stuck and don't know what to do next. Any help will be appreciated. Thanks

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• How to dynamically expand a string in C

  - by sa125

  Hi - I have a function that recursively makes some calculations on a set of numbers. I want to also pretty-print the calculation in each recursion call by passing the string from the previous calculation and concatenating it with the current operation. A sample output might look like this: 3 (3) + 2 ((3) + 2) / 4 (((3) + 2) / 4) x 5 ((((3) + 2) / 4) x 5) + 14 ... and so on So basically, the second call gets 3 and appends + 2 to it, the third call gets passed (3) + 2 , etc. My recursive function prototype looks like this: void calc_rec(int input[], int length, char * previous_string); I wrote a 2 helper functions to help me with the operation, but they implode when I test them: /********************************************************************** * dynamically allocate and append new string to old string and return a pointer to it **********************************************************************/ char * strapp(char * old, char * new) { // find the size of the string to allocate int len = sizeof(char) * (strlen(old) + strlen(new)); // allocate a pointer to the new string char * out = (char*)malloc(len); // concat both strings and return sprintf(out, "%s%s", old, new); return out; } /********************************************************************** * returns a pretty math representation of the calculation op **********************************************************************/ char * mathop(char * old, char operand, int num) { char * output, *newout; char fstr[50]; // random guess.. couldn't think of a better way. sprintf(fstr, " %c %d", operand, num); output = strapp(old, fstr); newout = (char*)malloc( 2*sizeof(char)+sizeof(output) ); sprintf(newout, "(%s)", output); free(output); return newout; } void test_mathop() { int i, total = 10; char * first = "3"; printf("in test_mathop\n"); while (i < total) { first = mathop(first, "+", i); printf("%s\n", first); ++i; } } strapp() returns a pointer to newly appended strings (works), and mathop() is supposed to take the old calculation string ("(3)+2"), a char operand ('+', '-', etc) and an int, and return a pointer to the new string, for example "((3)+2)/3". Any idea where I'm messing things up? thanks.

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• EntityManagerFactory error on Websphere

  - by neverland

  I have a very weird problem. Have an application using Hibernate and spring.I have an entitymanger defined which uses a JNDI lookup .It looks something like this <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="ConfigAPPPersist" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="false" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="org.hibernate.dialect.Oracle9Dialect" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.WebSphereDataSourceAdapter"> <property name="targetDataSource"> <bean class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName" value="jdbc/pmp" /> </bean> </property> </bean> This application runs fine in DEV. But when we move to higher envs the team that deploys this application does it successfully initially but after a few restarts of the application the entitymanager starts giving this problem Caused by: javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: ConfigAPPPersist] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createContainerEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:132) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.createNativeEntityManagerFactory(LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:224) at org.springframework.orm.jpa.AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.afterPropertiesSet(AbstractEntityManagerFactoryBean.java:291) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.invokeInitMethods(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1368) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.initializeBean(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:1334) ... 32 more Caused by: org.hibernate.MappingException: **property mapping has wrong number of columns**: com.***.***.jpa.marketing.entity.MarketBrands.$performasure_j2eeInfo type: object Now you would say this is pretty obvious the entity MarketBrands is incorrect. But its not it maps to the table just fine. And the same code works on DEV. Also the jndi cannot be incorrect since it deploys and works fine initially but throws uo this error after a restart. This is weird and not very logical. But if someone has faced this or has any idea on what might be causing this Please!! help The persistence.xml for the persitence unit has very little <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd" version="1.0"> <persistence-unit name="ConfigAPPPersist"> <!-- commented code --> </persistence-unit> </persistence>

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• Register all GUI components as Observers or pass current object to next object as a constructor argu

  - by Jack

  First, I'd like to say that I think this is a common issue and there may be a simple or common solution that I am unaware of. Many have probably encountered a similar problem. Thanks for reading. I am creating a GUI where each component needs to communicate (or at least be updated) by multiple other components. Currently, I'm using a Singleton class to accomplish this goal. Each GUI component gets the instance of the singleton and registers itself. When updates need to be made, the singleton can call public methods in the registered class. I think this is similar to an Observer pattern, but the singleton has more control. Currently, the program is set up something like this: class c1 { CommClass cc; c1() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC1( this ); C2 c2 = new c2(); } } class c2 { CommClass cc; c2() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC2( this ); C3 c3 = new c3(); } } class c3 { CommClass cc; c3() { cc = CommClass.getCommClass(); cc.registerC3( this ); C4 c4 = new c4(); } } etc. Unfortunately, the singleton class keeps growing larger as more communication is required between the components. I was wondering if it's a good idea to instead of using this singleton, pass the higher order GUI components as arguments in the constructors of each GUI component: class c1 { c1() { C2 c2 = new c2( this ); } } class c2 { C1 c1; c2( C1 c1 ) { this.c1 = c1 C3 c3 = new c3( c1, this ); } } class c3 { C1 c1; C2 c2; c3( C1 c1, C2 c2 ) { this.c1 = c1; this.c2 = c2; C4 c4 = new c4( c1, c2, this ); } } etc. The second version relies less on the CommClass, but it's still very messy as the private member variables increase in number and the constructors grow in length. Each class contains GUI components that need to communicate through CommClass, but I can't think of a good way to do it. If this seems strange or horribly inefficient, please describe some method of communication between classes that will continue to work as the project grows. Also, if this doesn't make any sense to anyone, I'll try to give actual code snippets in the future and think of a better way to ask the question. Thanks.

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