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  • Updates to fullcalendar events (through updateEvent) not maintaining across ajax month changes

    - by user549615
    Hey there. I have the calendar configured to allow me to edit and add (drag/drop) calendar events. I use .fullCalendar('updateEvent', theEvent) to edit an event, and it immediately updates on the page. Excellent. If I move to another month and then move back (get via ajax), that change is undone. By contrast, if I add a new event by drag/drop using: .fullCalendar('renderEvent', newEventObject, true); it appears on the calendar, and if I move to another month, and move back, it maintains. If I edit this newly added event object, and move to another month and back, the updates are retained! So the "stickiness" of edits seem to work on newly added events, but not events that were pulled via ajax (since it just pulls a fresh version via ajax when the month changes). My calendar config is: $('#calendar').fullCalendar({ theme: true, header: { left: "prev,next today", center: 'title', right: "today prev,next" }, selectable: true, selectHelper: true, select: calendarSelect, droppable: true, drop: calendarDrop, events:getCalendarData, eventClick:calendarEventClicked }); I tried setting editable: true, as well, but no dice. I noticed that if I view "event.source" on one of the ajax pulled events, it shows me a function, and if i read the source attribute on one of the "added" events, it reads [object]. So I tried setting the event.source of the event being added, to that same event object: curCalendarEvent.source = curCalendarEvent But no dice. It sets, but when I move back month forward again, it returns to the function as a source. I tried adding lazyFetching: false to my calendar config, but that didn't help. I even tried a .fullCalendar('renderEvent', curCalendarEvent, true); on the existing "edited" event to see if I could get "stick" to work, and it didn't help. The only thing I can think of doing is deleting the event flat out and recreating it. Any help would be appreciated. -Brian

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  • Directly accessing the modem in Windows Mobile

    - by kigurai
    For some reasons I need to be able to access the internal modem of a Windows Mobile smartphone (a HTC s740 with WM version 6.1). What I want is to be able to access it like it was a serial port in order to give AT-commands. I have code that uses the TAPI Line interface and lineGetID() to get a "handle" on which I shuld be able to do ReadFile()/WriteFile(). Sadly I have not gotten it to work. What I do currently is: Initialize TAPI with lineInitializeEx() Open the Line with lineOpen() Iterate through each available device and get info. Currently I am selecting the "UNIMODEM"/"Hayes compatible on COM1" device. But maybe I should choose the "TAPI cellular service"/"Cellular Line" instead? I have tried the "Cellular Line" device with the same result. Use lineGetID() on the selected device to get a handle. Do WriteFile("AT\r") and then directly do a ReadFile(), which should give me a "OK" back if it really was the modem I accessed. Realize that it doesn't work and get annoyed... But this has so far been a no-go. Does anyone have any idea on how to do it? I am doing this in Native WIN32 C++ on Windows Mobile 6 SDK. UPDATE: I have so far managed to get a data connection between two phones using RIL, which gives me a serial port handle to write and read from. BUT, I still would like to be able to interact directly with the modem to send AT-commands. So, the bounty I am starting only concerns getting direct access to the modem in order to give AT-commands. My investigations so far indicates that this was possible in previous versions of Windows Mobile (by opening COM2 and/or COM9 and slaying RIL, or something like that) but I have not yet seen code which works on WM6.

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  • What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

    - by David M
    Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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  • Can't get automated release working with Hudson + Git + Maven Release Plugin

    - by Christopher Maier
    As the title says, I'm trying to get an automated release job working on Hudson. It's a Maven project, and all the code is in Git. Manually, I do the release on my personal machine like so: git checkout master mvn -B release:prepare release:perform This works perfectly. The Maven release plugin properly pushes the release tag to the origin repository as well as the next commit that bumps the version to the next SNAPSHOT. However, when I run this same Maven job through Hudson (either by creating my own "release" job or by using the M2 Release Plugin) it doesn't work so well. The release tag gets pushed out to the origin repository, and the release gets pushed out to our Nexus repository, but the subsequent commit that bumps the version to the next SNAPSHOT doesn't go out. Furthermore, the "master" branch in the origin repository doesn't get changed at all. I've looked in Hudson's workspace for the job, however, and the version has been updated. After looking at the output from the Hudson job, it appears that the Git plugin does not actually checkout "master", but rather it's SHA1 id. That is, if the "master" branch label points to commit "f6af76f541f1a1719e9835cdb46a183095af6861", Hudson does git checkout -f f6af76f541f1a1719e9835cdb46a183095af6861 instead of git checkout -f master As a result, the changes that the Maven release plugin is making are not actually on any branch (certainly not on "master") and these changes don't make it to the origin repository. It runs on the right code, but bookkeeping-wise, the changes seem to get lost because no branch label points to them. Has anybody gotten the Hudson + Git + Maven Release Plugin combo to work properly? Is there some additional configuration somewhere I can set to make this happen? Or is this a bug in the Hudson Git plugin? Thanks in advance.

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  • Inserting script from jQuery / Javascript

    - by Colby77
    Hi, I'm trying to insert reCaptcha code into my page from jQuery, but it doesn't work. Here is my code: $("#button").click(function() { $("#loginBox").html($.getRecaptcha()); }) When I try the following, my code doesn't even run. I think it's trying to execute instead of rendering it. $.getRecaptcha = function(){ return '<script type="text/javascript"' + 'src="http://api.recaptcha.net/challenge?' + 'k=6Ld3iAsAAAAAAGyX8QT244GagPEpCDSD-96o4gEi"></script>'; } With the following, the code runs, but when I click to #button I get an empty, full white browser window. $.getRecaptcha = function(){ var captcha = $("<script>") .attr("type", "text/javascript") .attr("src", "http://api.recaptcha.net/challenge?k=6Ld3iAsAAAAAAGyX8QT244GagPEpCDSD-96o4gEi"); return captcha; } I don't want to insert reCaptcha code into my html from the beginning, because it downloads the reCaptcha content from the reCaptcha server even if my users don't want to use it. I could set the visibility of the container that holds the reCaptcha to invisible (display: none;), but it will dowload the content irrespectively of it. I can insert the "noScript" code that reCaptcha gives us, but it doesn't work either, because it can spot that the browser allow javascript but I use noScript. Any suggestions? (I know I put my public reCaptcha key into the code, but it is just for testing purposes, and you could get it from my html or javascript code anyway)

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  • Send document to printer from web page

    - by FiveTools
    I have a webpage that activates a print job on a printer. This works in the localhost environment but does not work when the application is deployed to the webserver. I'm using the PrintDocument class from the .net System.Drawing.Print namespace. I'm now assuming the printer has to be available to the application on the remote server? Any suggestions on how I would get this to work? PrintDocument pd = new PrintDocument(); PaperSource ps = new PaperSource(); pd.DefaultPageSettings.PaperSize = new System.Drawing.Printing.PaperSize("Custom", 1180, 850); pd.PrintPage += new PrintPageEventHandler (this.pd_PrintPage); // Set your printer's name. Obtain from // System's Printer Dialog Box. pd.PrinterSettings.PrinterName = "Okidata ML 321 Turbo/D (IBM)"; //PrintPreviewDialog dlgPrintPvw = new PrintPreviewDialog(); //dlgPrintPvw.Document = pd; //dlgPrintPvw.Focus(); //dlgPrintPvw.ShowDialog(); pd.Print();

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  • h:commandButton action not working inside a h:datatable.

    - by Chris
    I'm stuck with this piece of jsf code that I don't understand why it's working when used outside a datatable and doesn't inside a datatable... <h:dataTable id="myTable" rendered="true" value="#{bean.selectedItemsList}" var="items"> <h:column> <h:commandButton action="#{bean.removeItemFromList}" image="/resources/images/deleterow.gif"> <f:actionListener binding="#{bean.actionListenerImpl}" type="com.mycorp.ActionListenerImpl"/> </h:commandButton> </h:column> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{items}" /> </h:column> </h:dataTable> I read around the net to put value="#{items}" inside the action listener so the action can get the items in the row like this: <f:actionListener value="#{items}" binding="#{bean.actionListenerImpl}" type="com.mycorp.ActionListenerImpl"/> But it's doesn't work either. Bu if I do the action outside the data table everything work fine. <h:commandButton action="#{bean.removeItemFromList}" image="/resources/images/deleterow.gif"> <f:actionListener binding="#{bean.actionListenerImpl}" type="com.mycorp.ActionListenerImpl"/> </h:commandButton> Side note I also tried a4j:commandButton and didn't so I guess my problem is probably the actionlistener or how the bean handling it.

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  • Problem with IE

    - by coolboycsaba
    I have the following code: function header(){ experience += ''; var expimage = ''; for(var cik=0;cik<experience.length;cik++){ switch(experience[cik]){ case '0': expimage += 'img0'; break; case '1': expimage += 'img1'; break; case '2': expimage += 'img2'; break; case '3': expimage += 'img3'; break; case '4': expimage += 'img4'; break; case '5': expimage += 'img5'; break; case '6': expimage += 'img6'; break; case '7': expimage += 'img7'; break; case '8': expimage += 'img8'; break; case '9': expimage += 'img9'; break; } } document.getElementById('level').innerHTML = expimage; alert(expimage); } But it only work on chrome or mozilla. It shows up an empty alert box, but it work on firefox and chrome.

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  • Use Lambda in Attribute constructor to get method's parameters

    - by Anthony Shaw
    I'm not even sure if this is possible, but I've exhausted all of my ideas trying to figure this out, so I figured I'd send this out to the community and see what you thought. And, if it's not possible, maybe you'd have some ideas as well. I'm trying to make an Attribute class that I can add to a method that would allow me to use a lambda expression to get each parameter of the method public ExampleAttribute : Attribute { public object Value { get; set; } public ExampleAttribute(--something here to make the lambda work--, object value) { Value = value; } } I'd like to be able to something like this below: [Example(x=x.Id, 4)] [Example(x=x.filter, "string value")] public ActionResult Index(int Id, string filter) { return View(); } I understand that I might be completely dreaming with this idea. I'm basically trying to write a model to allow for self-documenting REST API Documentation. In a recent project here at work we wrote a dozen or so services with 5 to 15 methods on each, I figure it's easier to write something to do this, than to hand code a documentation page for each. I would plan to eventually release this as an open-source project once I have it in a place that I feel it's releasable.

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  • Correct use of setEmtpyView in AdapterView

    - by Sebi
    I'm really having trouble using the setEmptyView method. I tried it to implement it in GridView and ListView, but both of them didnt work. Here a sample codeblock: networkGames = (GridView) baseLayer.findViewById(R.id.all_game_grid_network); networkGames.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.game_border); networkGames.setSelector(R.drawable.game_active_border); networkGames.setOnItemClickListener(new NetworkGameListener()); networkGames.setEmptyView(View.inflate(baseLayer, R.drawable.no_network_games, null)); networkGames.setAdapter(new NetworkAdapter()); The network adapter contains no items: private class NetworkAdapter extends BaseAdapter { /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.widget.Adapter#getCount() */ @Override public int getCount() { return 0; } /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.widget.Adapter#getItem(int) */ @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return null; } /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.widget.Adapter#getItemId(int) */ @Override public long getItemId(int position) { return 0; } /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.widget.Adapter#getView(int, android.view.View, android.view.ViewGroup) */ @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { return null; } } I also tried to call networkGames.setAdapter(null), but this doesnt work either. My emtpyView looks like this: <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/LinearLayout01" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <TextView android:text="There are currently no network games available. Start a new one." android:id="@+id/TextView01" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center"> </TextView> </LinearLayout> I really don't know what I'm doing wrong. I also read various tutorials, but none of them metnioned any problems.

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  • Can I copy an entire Magento application to a new server?

    - by Gapton
    I am quite new to Magento and I have a case where a client has a running ecommerce website built with Magento and is running on Amazon AWS EC2 server. If I can locate the web root (/var/www/) and download everything from it (say via FTP), I should be able to boot up my virtual machine with LAMP installed, put every single files in there and it should run, right? So I did just that, and Magento is giving me an error. I am guessing there are configs somewhere that needs to be changed in order to make it work, or even a lot of paths need to be changed etc. Also databases to be replicated. What are the typical things I should get right? Database is one, and the EC2 instance uses nginx while I use plain Apache, I guess that won't work straight out of the box, and I probably will have to install nginx and a lot of other stuffs. But basically, if I setup the environment right, it should run. Is my assumption correct? Thanks for answering!

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  • django powering multiple shops from one code base on a single domain

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am new to django and python and am trying to figure out how to modify an existing app to run multiple shops through a single domain. Django's sites middleware seems inappropriate in this particular case because it manages different domains, not sites run through the same domain, e.g. : domain.com/uk domain.com/us domain.com/es etc. Each site will need translated content - and minor template changes. The solution needs to be flexible enough to allow for easy modification of templates. The forms will also need to vary a bit, e.g minor variances in fields and validation for each country specific shop. I am thinking along the lines of the following as a solution and would love some feedback from experienced django-ers: In short: same codebase, but separate country specific urls files, separate templates and separate database Create a middleware class that does IP localisation, determines the country based on the URL and creates a database connection, e.g. /au/ will point to the au specific database and so on. in root urls.py have routes that point to a separate country specific routing file, e..g (r'^au/',include('urls_au')), (r'^es/',include('urls_es')), use a single template directory but in that directory have a localised directory structure, e.g. /base.html and /uk/base.html and write a custom template loader that looks for local templates first. (or have a separate directory for each shop and set the template directory path in middleware) use the django internationalisation to manage translation strings throughout slight variances in forms and models (e.g. ZA has an ID field, France has 'door code' and 'floor' etc.) I am unsure how to handle these variations but I suspect the tables will contain all fields but allowing nulls and the model will have all fields but allowing nulls. The forms will to be modified slightly for each shop. Anyway, I am keen to get feedback on the best way to go about achieving this multi site solution. It seems like it would work, but feels a bit "hackish" and I wonder if there's a more elegant way of getting this solution to work. Thanks, imanc

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  • howto distinguish composition and self-typing use-cases

    - by ayvango
    Scala has two instruments for expressing object composition: original self-type concept and well known trivial composition. I'm curios what situations I should use which in. There are obvious differences in their applicability. Self-type requires you to use traits. Object composition allows you to change extensions on run-time with var declaration. Leaving technical details behind I can figure two indicators to help with classification of use cases. If some object used as combinator for a complex structure such as tree or just have several similar typed parts (1 car to 4 wheels relation) than it should use composition. There is extreme opposite use case. Lets assume one trait become too big to clearly observe it and it got split. It is quite natural that you should use self-types for this case. That rules are not absolute. You may do extra work to convert code between this techniques. e.g. you may replace 4 wheels composition with self-typing over Product4. You may use Cake[T <: MyType] {part : MyType} instead of Cake { this : MyType => } for cake pattern dependencies. But both cases seem counterintuitive and give you extra work. There are plenty of boundary use cases although. One-to-one relations is very hard to decide with. Is there any simple rule to decide what kind of technique is preferable? self-type makes you classes abstract, composition makes your code verbose. self-type gives your problems with blending namespaces and also gives you extra typing for free (you got not just a cocktail of two elements but gasoline-motor oil cocktail known as a petrol bomb). How can I choose between them? What hints are there? Update: Let us discuss the following example: Adapter pattern. What benefits it has with both selt-typing and composition approaches?

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  • Calling unmanaged code from within C#

    - by Charles Gargent
    I am trying to use a dll in my c# program but I just cant seem to get it to work. I have made a test app shown below. The return value is 0, however it does not actually do what it is supposed to do. Whereas the following command does work: rundll32 cmproxy.dll,SetProxy /source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename roxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /Profile "C:\Documents and ettings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp" Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Net; using WUApiLib; namespace nac { class Program { [DllImport("cmproxy.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] static extern int SetProxy(string cmdLine); static void Main(string[] args) { string cmdLine = @"/source_filename proxy-1.txt /backup_filename proxy.bak /DialRasEntry NULL /TunnelRasEntry DSLVPN /Profile ""C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\Application Data\Microsoft\Network\Connections\Cm\dslvpn.cmp"""; Console.WriteLine(SetProxy(cmdLine)); } } } Here is the contents of the dumpbin /exports command File Type: DLL Section contains the following exports for cmproxy.dll 00000000 characteristics 3E7FEF8C time date stamp Tue Mar 25 05:56:28 2003 0.00 version 1 ordinal base 1 number of functions 1 number of names ordinal hint RVA name 1 0 00001B68 SetProxy Summary 1000 .data 1000 .reloc 1000 .rsrc 2000 .text When this works it sets the proxy server for a VPN connection.

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  • jQuery - Increase the value of a counter when a button is clicked

    - by Taimur
    Hi, I'm making a system where a user clicks a button and their score increases. There is a counter which I would like to increase the value of using jQuery (so that the page does not need to refresh) when the button is clicked. How would I go about this? <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#update").click(function() { $("#counter")++; } </script> #update is the button, #counter is the counter. In php, ++ increases something's value. What's the jQuery equivalent? Also, when the button is clicked, it needs to send a request which updates the score value in a mysql database as well, without the page refreshing. Does anyone know how I would do that? Thanks a lot UPDATE: I've tried a few of the methods below, but nothing seems to work! Do I need to change anything else for it to work? I've created a test page for it: <html> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var count = 0; $("#update").click(function() { count++; $("#counter").html("My current count is: "+count); } </script> <button id="update" type="button">Button</button> <div id="counter">1</div> </body> </htlm>

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  • Masspay and MySql

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am testing Paypal's masspay using their 'MassPay NVP example' and I having difficulty trying to amend the code so inputs data from my MySql database. Basically I have user table in MySql which contains email address, status of payment (paid,unpaid) and balance. CREATE TABLE `users` ( `user_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `email` varchar(100) collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL, `status` enum('unpaid','paid') collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL default 'unpaid', `balance` int(10) NOT NULL default '0', PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=6 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 COLLATE=latin1_general_ci Data : 1 [email protected] paid 100 2 [email protected] unpaid 11 3 [email protected] unpaid 20 4 [email protected] unpaid 1 5 [email protected] unpaid 20 6 [email protected] unpaid 15 I then have created a query which selects users with an unpaid balance of $10 and above : $conn = db_connect(); $query=$conn->query("SELECT * from users WHERE balance >='10' AND status = ('unpaid')"); What I would like to is for each record returned from the query for it to populate the code below: Now the code which I believe I need to amend is as follows: for($i = 0; $i < 3; $i++) { $receiverData = array( 'receiverEmail' => "[email protected]", 'amount' => "example_amount",); $receiversArray[$i] = $receiverData; } However I just can't get it to work, I have tried using mysqli_fetch_array and then replaced "[email protected]" with $row['email'] and "example_amount" with row['balance'] in various methods of coding but it doesn't work. Also I need it to loop to however many rows that were retrieved from the query as <3 in the for loop above. So the end result I am looking for is for the $nvpStr string to pass with something like this: $nvpStr = "&EMAILSUBJECT=test&RECEIVERTYPE=EmailAddress&CURRENCYCODE=USD&[email protected]&L_Amt=11&[email protected]&L_Amt=11&[email protected]&L_Amt=20&[email protected]&L_Amt=20&[email protected]&L_Amt=15"; Thanks

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  • WCF, IIS6.0 (413) Request Entity Too Large.

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, guys. I've got annoyed problem. I've got WCF service(basicHttpBinding with Transport security Https). This service implements contract which consists 2 methods. LoadData. GetData. GetData works OK!. My client received pachage ~2Mb size without problems. All work correctly. But when I try load data by bool LoadData(Stream data); - signature of method I'll get (413) Request Entity Too Large. Stack Trace: Server stack trace: ? ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ValidateRequestReplyResponse(HttpWebRequest request, HttpWebResponse response, HttpChannelFactory factory, WebException responseException, ChannelBinding channelBinding) System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) System.ServiceModel.Channels.RequestChannel.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.RequestChannelBinder.Request(Message message, TimeSpan timeout) I try this http://blogs.msdn.com/jiruss/archive/2007/04/13/http-413-request-entity-too-large-can-t-upload-large-files-using-iis6.aspx. But it doesn't work! My server is 2003 with IIS6.0. Please help.

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  • WCF service with PHP client - complex type as parameter not working

    - by Matt F
    Hi, I have a WCF service with three methods. Two of the methods return custom types (these work as expected), and the third method takes a custom type as a parameter and returns a boolean. When calling the third method via a PHP soap client it returns an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' exception. Example Custom Type: _ Public Class MyClass Private _propertyA As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyA() As Double Get Return _propertyA End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyA = value End Set End Property Private _propertyB As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyB() As Double Get Return _propertyB End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyB = value End Set End Property Private _propertyC As Date <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyC() As Date Get Return _propertyC End Get Set(ByVal value As Date) _propertyC = value End Set End Property End Class Method: Public Function Add(ByVal param As MyClass) As Boolean Implements IService1.Add ' ... End Function PHP client call: $client-Add(array('param'=array( 'PropertyA' = 1, 'PropertyB' = 2, 'PropertyC' = "2009-01-01" ))); The WCF service works fine with a .Net client but I'm new to PHP and can't get this to work. Is it possible to create an instance of 'MyClass' in PHP. Any help would be appreciated. Note: I'm using PHP 5 (XAMPP 1.7.0 for Windows). Thanks Matt

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  • Shadowbox.js and dailymotion videos

    - by Greenie
    Hi there. I have a site set up with some thumbs and links to videos hosted on vimeo. I show them in a overlay using shadowbox.js. This works perfect. Now I want to add a video hosted on dailymotion, but it doesn't work. The working link to vimeo video: <a rel="shadowbox;height=636;width=956" href="http://vimeo.com/moogaloop.swf?clip_id=11377863&server=vimeo.com&show_title=1&show_byline=1&show_portrait=1&color=00ADEF&fullscreen=1" class="player_text">thumbnail here</a> The non working link to dailymotion video: <a rel="shadowbox;height=636;width=956" href="http://www.dailymotion.com/swf/xd6g8y?related=0&autoplay=1" class="player_text">thumbnail here</a> When the href is pasted in a browser, both links work fine. Both are played in a swf as far as I can see. So I can't see why shadowbox won't show it. Unless its a permission problem on the dailymotion video. Anyone know what I'm doing wrong?

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  • Facebook Like Box not working

    - by Gabriel Bianconi
    Hello. I'm trying to integrate a Like box in my website. It wasn't working, so I created a sample page (which also doesn't work). <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" lang="en" xml:lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>FB TEST</title> </head> <body> <iframe src="http://www.facebook.com/plugins/likebox.php?profile_id=185550966885&amp;width=292&amp;connections=5&amp;stream=false&amp;header=true" scrolling="no" frameborder="0" allowTransparency="true" style="border:none; overflow:hidden; width:292px; height:px"></iframe> </body> </html> I'm also using the sample iframe code (mine didn't work, so I tried this), taken from: http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/plugins/like-box How can I fix this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Hotkeys in webapps

    - by Johoo
    When creating webapps, is there any guidelines on which keys you can use for your own hotkeys without overriding too many of the browsers default hotkeys. For example i might want to have a custom copy command for copying entire sets of data that only makes sense for my program instead of just text. The logical combination for this would be ctrl+c but that would destroy the default copy hotkey for normal text. One solution i was thinking about is to only catch the hotkey when it "makes sense" but when you use some advanced custom selection it might be hard to differentiate if your data is focused, if text is selected or both. Right now i am only using single keys as the hotkey, so just 'c' for the example above and this seems to be what most other sites are doing too. The problem is that if you have text input this doesn't work so good. Is this the best solution? To clarify I'm talking about advanced webapps that behave more like normal programs and not just some website presenting information(even though i think these guidlines would be valid for both cases). So for the copy example it might not be a big deal if you can't copy the text in the menu but when ctrl+tab, alt+d or ctrl+e doesn't work i would be really pissed, cough flash cough.

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  • InlineUIControl

    - by zync
    Hi. I have a project in wich I must create a form editor (just like infopath) using wpf. For this I thought to use a RichTextBox and in there I would place InlineUIElements with the different controls (TextBox, ComboBox, etc.). The problem is that I can't change some properties associated with those controls. Here's some XAML: <RichTextBox> <FlowDocument> <Paragraph> <InlineUIContainer> <TextBox Background="Red">Some Text</TextBox> </InlineUIContainer> </Paragraph> </FlowDocument> </RichTextBox> This displays a TextBox in a RichTextBox just like I wanted but it's not red. Some other properties work like width and height. Why is this and how can I make it work? Other question is: Am I approaching the problem (creating the form editor) right? Thanks

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  • Creating dynamic jQuery tooltips for dynamic content

    - by Mel
    I'm using the qTip jQuery plugin to create tooltips for a set of links. Two problems: How do I create a set of tooltips for three dynamically generated links where the content of the tooltip will also be dynamic: a href="books.cfm?bookID=11"Book One a href="books.cfm?bookID=22"Book Two a href="books.cfm?bookID=33"Book Three I would like to create a tooltip for each link. Each tooltip will then load details about each book. Thus I must pass the bookID to the tooltip: $('#catalog a[href]').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { URL: 'cfcs/viewbooks.cfc?method=bookDetails', data: { bookID: <cfoutput>#indexView.bookID#</cfoutput> }, method: 'get' } }); }); Unfortunately the above code is not working correctly. I've gotten it to work when I've used a static 'bookID' instead of a dynamically generated number. Even when it does work (by using a static number for 'bookID', I can't format the data correctly. It comes back as a query result, or a bunch of text strings. Should I send back the results as HTML? Unsure. PS: I am an absolute NOVICE to Javascript and jQuery, so please try not to be as technical. Many thanks!

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  • Need some ignition for learning Embedded Systems

    - by Rahul
    I'm very much interested in building applications for Embedded Devices. I'm in my 3rd year Electrical Engineering and I'm passionate about coding, algorithms, Linux OS, etc. And also by Googling I found out that Linux OS is one of the best OSes for Embedded devices(may be/may not be). I want to work for companies which work on mobile applications. I'm a newbie/naive to this domain & my skills include C/C++ & MySQL. I need help to get started in the domain of Embedded Systems; like how/where to start off, Hardware prerequisites, necessary programming skills, also what kind of Embedded Applications etc. I've heard of ARM, firmware, PIC Micorcontrollers; but I don't know anything & just need proper introduction about them. Thanx. P.S: I'm currently reading Bjarne Struotsup's lecture in C++ at Texas A&M University, and one chapter in it describes about Embedded Systems Programming.

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  • How to change default locale in BIRT

    - by zlajo
    Hi everybody, I am working with the BIRT reporting engine and my current task is to implement internationalization for reports. We are using the webviewer to generate and download pdf reports. There is a parameter (__locale) which allows me to specify the locale that should be used to generate a report. So far everything works fine. There is an additional requirement I have not been able to implement, though. Additionally to the locale which is set by the http parameter there should also be the possibility to specify some kind of fallback locale. Take the following example: There are two property-files common_en_US.properties and common_en_GB.properties. The first locale to be used should be en_GB (__locale=en_GB). Everything works fine if the common_en_GB.properties file exist. But I would also like to tell BIRT to use common_en_US.properties if the en_GB-file cannot be found, which does not work as expected. I tried to solve this by manually setting the Java default locale before executing BIRT because I thought that BIRT would use the Java mechanism to resolve localized strings. Unfortunately this attempt does not work. Is there a different way to do what I would like to do? Is it possible to do something like that at all? Thanks a lot! Johannes

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