Search Results

Search found 55281 results on 2212 pages for 'j set'.

Page 770/2212 | < Previous Page | 766 767 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777  | Next Page >

  • How do I run a VBScript in 32-bit mode on a 64-bit machine?

    - by Peter
    I have a text file that ends with .vbs that I have written the following in: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Provider = "Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0" Conn.Properties("Data Source") = "C:\dummy.accdb" Conn.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Database Password") = "pass" Conn.Open Conn.Close Set Conn = Nothing When I execute this on a Windows 32-bit machine it runs and ends without any notion (expected). When I execute this on a Windows 64-bit machine it gets the error "Provider cannot be found. It may not be properly installed.". But it is installed. I think the root of the problem is that the provider is a 32-bit provider, as far as I know it doesn't exist as 64-bit. If I run the VBScript through IIS on my 64-bit machine (as a ASP file) I can select that it should run in 32-bit mode. It can then find the provider. How can I make it find the provider on Windows 64-bit? Can I tell CScript (which executes the .vbs text file) to run in 32-bit mode somehow?

    Read the article

  • Query to MySQL from c# returns System.Byte[]

    - by karthik
    I am using the below SP to return the value of Generated Insert statement and it works fine when executed in Query browser. When i try to get the value from C#, it give's me "System.Byte[]" as return value. When i try to get the value from MySql query browser, it give's me return value as : 'insert into admindb.accounts values("54321","2","karthik2","karthik2","1");' I guess the problem is with the single quotes of the returned value. Is it so ? DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS `admindb`.`InsGen` $$ CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `InsGen`( in_db varchar(20), in_table varchar(20), in_ColumnName varchar(20), in_ColumnValue varchar(20) ) BEGIN declare Whrs varchar(500); declare Sels varchar(500); declare Inserts varchar(2000); declare tablename varchar(20); declare ColName varchar(20); set tablename=in_table; # Comma separated column names - used for Select select group_concat(concat('concat(\'"\',','ifnull(',column_name,','''')',',\'"\')')) INTO @Sels from information_schema.columns where table_schema=in_db and table_name=tablename; # Comma separated column names - used for Group By select group_concat('`',column_name,'`') INTO @Whrs from information_schema.columns where table_schema=in_db and table_name=tablename; #Main Select Statement for fetching comma separated table values set @Inserts=concat("select concat('insert into ", in_db,".",tablename," values(',concat_ws(',',",@Sels,"),');') as MyColumn from ", in_db,".",tablename, " where ", in_ColumnName, " = " , in_ColumnValue, " group by ",@Whrs, ";"); PREPARE Inserts FROM @Inserts; EXECUTE Inserts; END $$ DELIMITER ;

    Read the article

  • How long do you keep session cookies around for?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm implementing a web app, which uses sessions. I'm using GWT and app engine as my client/server, but I don't think they're doing anything really different than I would do with PHP and apache etc. When a user logs into my web app, I am using HttpSession to start a session for them. I get the session id like this: // From my login servlet: getThreadLocalRequest().getSession(false).getId(); I return the sessionId back to the client, and they store it in a cookie. The tutorial I'm using sets this cookie to 'expire' in two weeks: Cookie.write("sid", theSessionId, 1000 * 60 * 60 * 24 * 14); // two weeks Here's where I'm confused: if the cookie expires in two weeks, then my user will go along using the webapp happily, only to one day browse to my site and be shown a login screen. What are my options? Can I just set no expiration time for this cookie? That way the user would have to explicitly log out, otherwise they could just use the app forever without having to log back in? Or is there a better way to do this? I can't remember sites like Twitter having ever asked me to log back in again. I seem to be permanently logged in. Do they just set no expiration? The webapp isn't protecting any sort of highly sensitive data, so I don't mind leaving a cookie that doesn't expire, but it seems like there must be a better way? This is the tutorial I'm referencing: http://code.google.com/p/google-web-toolkit-incubator/wiki/LoginSecurityFAQ Thanks

    Read the article

  • Linq to sql Repository pattern , Some doubts

    - by MindlessProgrammer
    I am using repository pattern with linq to sql, I am using a repository class per table. I want to know , am i doing at good/standard way, ContactRepository Contact GetByID() Contact GetAll() COntactTagRepository List<ContactTag> Get(long contactID) List<ContactTag> GetAll() List<ContactTagDetail> GetAllDetails() class ContactTagDetail { public Contact Contact {get;set;} public ContactTag COntactTag {get;set;} } When i need a contact i call method in contactrepository, same for contacttag but when i need contact and tags together i call GetDetais() in ContactTag repository its not returning the COntactTag entity generated by the orm insted its returning ContactTagDetail entity conatining both COntact and COntactTag generated by the orm, i know i can simple call GetAll in COntactTag repository and can access Contact.ContactTag but as its linq to sql it will there is no option to Deferred Load in query level, so whenever i need a entity with a related entity i create a projection class Another doubt is where i really need to right the method i can do it in both contact & ContactTag repostitory like In contact repository GetALlWithTags() or something but i am doing it in in COntactTag repository Whats your suggestions ?

    Read the article

  • activemessaging with stomp and activemq.prefetchSize=1

    - by Clint Miller
    I have a situation where I have a single activemq broker with 2 queues, Q1 and Q2. I have two ruby-based consumers using activemessaging. Let's call them C1 and C2. Both consumers subscribe to each queue. I'm setting activemq.prefetchSize=1 when subscribing to each queue. I'm also setting ack=client. Consider the following sequence of events: 1) A message that triggers a long-running job is published to queue Q1. Call this M1. 2) M1 is dispatched to consumer C1, kicking off a long operation. 3) Two messages that trigger short jobs are published to queue Q2. Call these M2 and M3. 4) M2 is dispatched to C2 which quickly runs the short job. 5) M3 is dispatched to C1, even though C1 is still running M1. It's able to dispatch to C1 because prefetchSize=1 is set on the queue subscription, not on the connection. So the fact that a Q1 message has already been dispatched doesn't stop one Q2 message from being dispatched. Since activemessaging consumers are single-threaded, the net result is that M3 sits and waits on C1 for a long time until C1 finishes processing M1. So, M3 is not processed for a long time, despite the fact that consumer C2 is sitting idle (since it quickly finishes with message M2). Essentially, whenever a long Q1 job is run and then a whole bunch of short Q2 jobs are created, exactly one of the short Q2 jobs gets stuck on a consumer waiting for the long Q1 job to finish. Is there a way to set prefetchSize at the connection level rather than at the subscription level? I really don't want any messages dispatched to C1 while it is processing M1. The other alternative is that I could create a consumer dedicated to processing Q1 and then have other consumers dedicated to processing Q2. But, I'd rather not do that since Q1 messages are infrequent--Q1's dedicated consumers would sit idle most of the day tying up memory.

    Read the article

  • C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

    Read the article

  • Terminate function on System.in .. possible?

    - by Ronald
    I am currently working on a project where I have to make an agent to interact with a server. Each 50ms, the server will receive the last thing I outputted to System.out and send me a new set of lines as a 'state' through the System.in printstream to analyze and send my next message to System.out. Also, if the server receives multiple outputs from me, it only regards the most recent one. .. As for my question: My program originally constructed a tree and then analyzed each leaf node to see which would be optimal, and then waited around for the next input, but I can recursively do a deeper tree search that would make my output 'better' (and again and again to keep returning a better result). Using this and the fact that if the server receives multiple outputs, it only takes the most recent one, I could do each level, print my result and start the next level. But here comes my problem... I can't be stuck in some complex algorithm while I am supposed to receiving the next input as I will then miss it. So I was wondering if there is a way to cancel anything else I am doing when I receive something via System.in and then go back to the beginning of the function and start the search again with the new set of input (and rinse and repeat..) I hope this all makes sense, Thank ye all

    Read the article

  • Getting error when compiling debug mode: C++/CLI - error LNK2022

    - by Yochai Timmer
    I've got a CLI code wrapping a C++ DLL. When i try to compile it in debug mode, i get the following error: Error 22 error LNK2022: metadata operation failed (8013118D) : Inconsistent layout information induplicated types .... MSVCMRTD.lib (locale0_implib.obj) The weird thing is that on Release mode it compiles OK and works OK. The only difference i can see that causes the problem is when i change: Configuration Properties - C/C++ - Code Generation - Runtime Library When it's set to: Multi-threaded Debug DLL (/MDd) it throws the error. When it's set to: Multi-threaded DLL (/MD) it compiles fine. The same settings work for all the other DLLs in the project (CLI and C++) and they inherit the same properties. I'm using VS2010. So, how can i solve this ? And can I get some explanation to WHY this is happening ? Update: I've basically tried changing every option in the project's properties with no luck. I've read somewhere that this might be caused from duplicate declarations of a type of the same name. But in the CLI file i'm calling std::string etc. explicitly from std. Any other ideas ?

    Read the article

  • How do you pass a BitmapImage from a background thread to the UI thread in WPF?

    - by DanM
    I have a background thread that generates a series of BitmapImage objects. Each time the background thread finishes generating a bitmap, I would like to show this bitmap to the user. The problem is figuring out how to pass the BitmapImage from the background thread to the UI thread. This is an MVVM project, so my view has an Image element: <Image Source="{Binding GeneratedImage}" /> My view-model has a property GeneratedImage: private BitmapImage _generatedImage; public BitmapImage GeneratedImage { get { return _generatedImage; } set { if (value == _generatedImage) return; _generatedImage= value; RaisePropertyChanged("GeneratedImage"); } } My view-model also has the code that creates the background thread: public void InitiateGenerateImages(List<Coordinate> coordinates) { ThreadStart generatorThreadStarter = delegate { GenerateImages(coordinates); }; var generatorThread = new Thread(generatorThreadStarter); generatorThread.ApartmentState = ApartmentState.STA; generatorThread.IsBackground = true; generatorThread.Start(); } private void GenerateImages(List<Coordinate> coordinates) { foreach (var coordinate in coordinates) { var backgroundThreadImage = GenerateImage(coordinate); // I'm stuck here...how do I pass this to the UI thread? } } I'd like to somehow pass backgroundThreadImage to the UI thread, where it will become uiThreadImage, then set GeneratedImage = uiThreadImage so the view can update. I've looked at some examples dealing with the WPF Dispatcher, but I can't seem to come up with an example that addresses this issue. Please advise.

    Read the article

  • Retain, reuse, release?

    - by Typeoneerror
    I've got a series of buttons that each use a different image. Can I reuse a retained variable like this below: // set images UIImage *image = [[dice1 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted] retain]; [dice1 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice2 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice2 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice3 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice3 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice4 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice4 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice5 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice5 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; image = [dice6 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice6 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; [image release]; or do I need to create a new UIImage for each image passed to each button's setBackgroundImage: like so: // set images UIImage *image1 = [dice1 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice1 setBackgroundImage:image1 forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; UIImage *image2 = [dice2 backgroundImageForState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [dice2 setBackgroundImage:image forState:(UIControlStateHighlighted|UIControlStateSelected)]; and rely on autorelease rather than a retained UIImage. I'm not sure if assigning the image to a different UIImage would effect the retain count.

    Read the article

  • Android Google cloud messaging - not certain what parameters I should put when creating the push notification

    - by Genadinik
    I am working on a php script to send the notification to the CGM server and I am working from this example: public function send_notification($registatoin_ids, $message) { // include config include_once './config.php'; // Set POST variables $url = 'https://android.googleapis.com/gcm/send'; $fields = array( 'registration_ids' => $registatoin_ids, 'data' => $message, ); $headers = array( 'Authorization: key=' . GOOGLE_API_KEY, 'Content-Type: application/json' ); // Open connection $ch = curl_init(); // Set the url, number of POST vars, POST data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); // Disabling SSL Certificate support temporarly curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, json_encode($fields)); // Execute post $result = curl_exec($ch); if ($result === FALSE) { die('Curl failed: ' . curl_error($ch)); } // Close connection curl_close($ch); echo $result; } But I am not certain what the values should be for the variables: CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS , CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER , CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER , CURLOPT_HOST , CURLOPT_URL Would anyone happen to know what the values for these should be? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • MSSQL in ASP.NET application getting unstable after a certain period

    - by Barslett
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET 2.0 application that I made to keep track of disruption reports about our public transport system. The architecture is pretty straight-forward; an MSSQL Express 2008 database, ADO.NET and a DataSet/DAL with a few methods to access the database. There is a set of .aspx pages for the UI in use by our dispatchers and on our public website, as well as a set of SOAP and REST webservices and an RSS feed. Everything worked just fine for more than a year, until two weeks ago. Now and then, it seems as the database enters an unstable mode, and the application starts responding something right, something wrong. The typical error is that apparently, an empty DataTable is returned to the public disruption overview or to the RSS generator. Thus, the user gets e.g. an empty GridView, but no exception is thrown AFAIK, and nothing is written to the Windows Application log. After a restart of the MSSQL Express service, the situation is back to normal. It has to be said that the situation first time appeared a few days after I made a new minor upgrade of the application. The RSS generator was slightly rewritten, and I added a WCF REST service. But the DAL and the database schema were untouched... Any hints of how we could keep the database stable? It is a bit annoying not to have a clue ;-)

    Read the article

  • How do I get jQuery's Uploadify plugin to work with ASP.NET MVC?

    - by KingNestor
    I'm in the process of trying to get the jQuery plugin, Uploadify, to work with ASP.NET MVC. I've got the plugin showing up fine: With the following javascript snippet: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileUpload').fileUpload({ 'uploader': '/Content/Flash/uploader.swf', 'script': '/Placement/Upload', 'folder': '/uploads', 'multi': 'true', 'buttonText': 'Browse', 'displayData': 'speed', 'simUploadLimit': 2, 'cancelImg': '/Content/Images/cancel.png' }); }); </script> Which seems like all is well in good. If you notice, the "script" attribute is set to my /Placement/Upload, which is my Placement Controller and my Upload Action. The main problem is, I'm having difficulty getting this action to fire to receive the file. I've set a breakpoint on that action and when I select a file to upload, it isn't getting executed. I've tried changing the method signature based off this article: public string Upload(HttpPostedFileBase FileData) { /* * * Do something with the FileData * */ return "Upload OK!"; } But this still doesn't fire. Can anyone help me write and get the Upload controller action's signature correctly so it will actually fire? I can then handle dealing with the file data myself. I just need some help getting the method action to fire.

    Read the article

  • getting a "default" concrete class that implements an interface

    - by Roger Joys
    I am implementing a custom (and generic) Json.net serializer and hit a bump in the road that I could use some help on. When the deserializer is mapping to a property that is an interface, how can I best determine what sort of object to construct to deserialize to to place into the interface property. I have the following: [JsonConverter(typeof(MyCustomSerializer<foo>))] class foo { int Int1 { get; set; } IList<string> StringList {get; set; } } My serializer properly serializes this object, and but when it comes back in, and I try to map the json parts to to object, I have a JArray and an interface. I am currently instantiating anything enumerable like List as theList = Activator.CreateInstance(property.PropertyType); This works create to work with in the deserialization process, but when the property is IList, I get runtime complaints (obviously) about not being able to instantiate an interface. So how would I know what type of concrete class to create in a case like this? Thank you

    Read the article

  • Delphi Pascal / Windows API - Small problem with SetFilePointerEx and parameter FILE_END

    - by SuicideClutchX2
    I know I am about to be slapped by at least one person who was helping me with this API. Alright I have been able to use SetFilePointerEx just fine, when setting the position only. SetFilePointerEx(PD,512,@PositionVar,FILE_BEGIN); SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,@PositionVar,FILE_CURRENT); Both work, I can set positions and even check my current one. But when I set FILE_END as per the documentation no matter what the second parameter is and whether or not i provide a pointer for the third parameter it fails even on a valid handle that many other operations are able to use without fail. For Example: SetFailed := SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,@PositionVar,FILE_END); SetFailed := SetFilePointerEx(PD,0,nil,FILE_END); Whatever I put it fails. I am working with a handle to a physical disk and it most definitely has an end. SetFilePointer works just fine its just a little more trouble than I would like. Its not the end of the world, but whats happening.

    Read the article

  • OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo() ORA-12705 Error

    - by michele
    Hi guys! I'm stuck in a problem, i cannot workaround! I have a Oracle client 11, with registry key set to AMERICAN_AMERICA.WE8ISO8859P1. I cannot edit this key, but my application must get data from Oracle in Italian culture format. So I want to edit culture info form my application only. I'm trying to using OracleGlobalization class in ODP.NET library before my Application.Run(), to set culture for my thread: OracleGlobalization og = OracleGlobalization.GetThreadInfo(); //OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo(OracleGlobalization.GetThreadInfo()); og.Calendar = "GREGORIAN"; og.Comparison = "BINARY"; og.Currency = "€"; og.DateFormat = "DD-MON-RR"; og.DateLanguage = "ITALIAN"; og.DualCurrency = "€"; og.ISOCurrency = "ITALY"; og.Language = "ITALIAN"; og.LengthSemantics = "BYTE"; og.NCharConversionException = false; og.NumericCharacters = ",."; og.Sort = "WEST_EUROPEAN"; og.Territory = "ITALY"; OracleGlobalization.SetThreadInfo(og); I get always the same error: ORA-12705: Cannot access NLS data files or invalid environment specified. I really don't know ho to solve this problem! Any hint? I'm working on a Win7 pc with VisualStudio 2008. Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I control the background color during the iPhone flip view animation transition?

    - by Rob S.
    I have some pretty standing flipping action going on: [UIView beginAnimations:@"swapScreens" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:self.view cache:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.view exchangeSubviewAtIndex:0 withSubviewAtIndex:1]; [UIView commitAnimations]; To Apple's credit, this style of animation is amazingly easy to work with. Very cool, and I've been able to animate transitions, flips, fades etc. throughout the app very easily. Question: During the flip transition, the background visible 'behind' the two views during the flip is white and I'd like it to be black. I've: Set the background of the containing view (self.view above) - no dice. I really thought that would work. Set the background of each view to black - no dice. I didn't think this would work although you give different things a shot to understand better :) Google'd like crazy; keep landing on Safari-related listings. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008 spatial index and CPU utilization with MapGuide Open Source 2.1

    - by Antonio de la Peña
    I have a SQL Server table with hundreds of thousands of geometry type parcels. I have made indexes on them trying different combinations of density and objects per cell settings. So far I'm settiling for LOW, LOW, MEDIUM, MEDIUM and 16 objects per cell and I made a SP that sets the bounding box according to the extents of the entities in the table. There is an incredible performance boost from queries taking almost minutes without index to less than seconds, it gets faster when the zoom is closer thus less objects are displayed. Yet the CPU utilization gets to 100% when querying for features, even when the queries themselves are fast. I'm worrying this will not fly in a production environment. I am using MapGuide Open Source 2.1 for this project, but I am positive the CPU load is caused by SQL Server. I wonder if my indexes are set properly. I haven't found any clear documentation on how to properly set them up. Every article I've read basically says "it depends..." but nothing specific. Do you have any recommendations for me, including books, articles? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

    - by swmi
    Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

    Read the article

  • How to accept confirmation Automatically in PowerShell for Outlook

    - by user2919845
    How to accept confirmation Automatically in PowerShell for Outlook I have script for Export attachments from email from Outlook - see next It works correctly on one PC, but on another PC is there a problem: Outlook gives message and wants answer: Permit Denny Help If I manually click on Permit or Denny it works correctly. I want to automate it. Can you give me some suggestion how to do it in PowerShell? I have tried to set Outlook to not give this message but I didn’t success. My script: # <-- Script ---------> # script works with outlook Inbox folder # check if email have attachments with ".txt" and save those attachments to $filepath # path for exported files - attachments $filepath = "d:\Exported_files\" # create object outlook $o = New-Object -comobject outlook.application $n = $o.GetNamespace("MAPI") # $f - folder „dorucena posta“ 6 - Inbox $f = $n.GetDefaultFolder(6) # 6 - Inbox # select newest 10 emails, from it olny this one with attachments $f.Items| select -last 10| Where {$_.Attachments}| foreach { # process only unreaded mail if($_.unread -eq $True) { # processed mail set as read, not to process this mail again next day $_.unread = $False $SenderName = $_.SenderName Write-Host "Email from: ", $SenderName # process all attachments $_.attachments|foreach { $a = $_.filename If ($a.Contains(".txt")) { Write-Host $SenderName," ", $a # copy *.txt attachments to folder $filepath $_.saveasfile((Join-Path $filepath "$a")) } } } } Write-Host "Finish" # <------ End Script ---------------------------------->

    Read the article

  • Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

    - by Nyxynyx
    I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

    Read the article

  • keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

    - by Old McStopher
    UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

    Read the article

  • how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

    - by Jean-Denis Muys
    My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

    Read the article

  • Arrow keys and changing control's focus hang the application

    - by sthay
    I have a usercontrol that contains a FlowLayoutPanel (topdown flow) with a bunch of radiobuttons. The control exposes a CheckedChanged event that fires whenever one of the radiobuttons's check changed. My form contains the usercontrol and a textbox. I subscribe the usercontrol's CheckedChanged event and depending on which radiobutton gets checked, I either disable the textbox or put a focus inside the textbox. All this works fine with mouseclick when changing the radiobutton's check state. However, this will hang indefinitely when using the arrow keys. I don't understand why the difference. The following are steps to reproduce the behavior I'm seeing: Create a usercontrol and drop a FlowLayoutPanel control and set its FlowDirection = TopDown. Then add two radiobuttons to the FlowLayoutPanel. Provide an event handler in the usercontrol public event EventHandler CheckedChanged { add { radioButton2.CheckedChanged += value; } remove { radioButton2.CheckedChanged -= value; } } Create a windows form and drop the above user control. Add a textbox and set Enabled to False. Subscribe to the usercontrol's CheckedChanged event as follows private void userControl11_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { textBox1.Select(); } Run. Notice that if you use the mouse to click between the radiobuttons, thing works fine; but it will crash if you use the up/down arrow keys.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

    - by gbn
    Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 766 767 768 769 770 771 772 773 774 775 776 777  | Next Page >