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  • Stored procedure woes ... inserting binary ...

    - by Wardy
    Ok so I have this storedproc in my SQL 2008 database (works in 2005 too / used to) ... CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[SetBinaryContent] @Ref nvarchar(50), @Content varbinary(MAX), @ObjectID uniqueidentifier AS BEGIN DELETE ObjectContent WHERE ObjectId = @ObjectID AND Ref = @Ref IF DATALENGTH(@Content) > 5 BEGIN INSERT INTO ObjectContent (Ref,BinaryContent,ObjectId) VALUES (@Ref,@Content,@ObjectId) END UPDATE Objects SET [Status] = 1 WHERE ID = @ObjectID END Relatively simple, I take a byte array in C# and chuck it in @Content i then give it a guid and string for the other params and off we go. ... Great, it used to work ... but it don't anymore ... so erm ... What's wrong with this stored proc? I've stepped through my C# code thinking I screwed up somehow in that but it definately adds the params and gives them the correct values so what would cause the server to just stop executing this storedproc correctly? When called this proc executes but nothing changes in the db ... no new records are added to the ObjectContent table. Weird huh ...

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  • Are there solutions for streamlining the update of legacy code in multiple places?

    - by ccomet
    I'm working in some old code which was originally designed for handling two different kinds of files. I was recently tasked with adding a new kind of file to this code. Most of my problems were solved by filling out an extensive XML file with a new entry that handled everything from what lists were named to how the file is written in plural lower case. But this ended up being insufficient, as there were maybe 50 different places in 24 different code files where I had to update hardcoded switch-statements that only branched for the original two file types. Unfortunately there is no consistency in this; there are methods which operate half from the XML file, and half off of hardcode. Some of the files which look like they would operate off of the XML file don't, and some that I would expect that I'd need to update the hardcode don't need it. So the only way to find the majority of these is to run through testing the whole system when only part of it is operational, finding that one step to fix (when I'm lucky that error logging actually tells me what is going on), and then running the whole thing again. This wastes time testing the parts of the code which are already confirmed to work, time better spent testing the new parts I have to add on top of it all. It's a hassle and a half, and to my luck I can expect that I will have to add yet another new kind of file in the near future. Are there any solutions out there which can aid in this kind of endeavour? Something which I can input some parameters of current features, document what points in a whole code project actually need to be updated, and run something nice the next time I need to add a new feature to the code. It needn't even be fully automated, something that'll help me navigate straight to the specific points in everything and maybe even record what kind of parameters need to be loaded. Doubt it matters specifically, but the code is comprised of ASP.NET pages, some ASP.NET controls, hundreds of C# code files, and a handful of additional XML files. It's all currently in a couple big Visual Studio 2008 projects.

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  • How would you mask data returned in a Dynamic Data for Entities website?

    - by David Stratton
    I'm doing this in Visual Studio 2008, not 2010, in case there is a relevant difference between the two versions of the Dynamic Data websites. How would I mask data in the automatically generated tables in a Dynamic Data for Entities website? The scenario is we have one table where we want to allow users to ENTER sensitive data, but not VIEW sensitive data, so... (In the list below, I'm using "template" to mean "The web page generated automatically based on the schema and action. I'm sure that's the wrong terminology, but the meaning should be clear.) The "Insert" template should have the field's textbox available for the user to type a value in. The "Edit" template should have the field's textbox blanked out (empty string) regardless of what was in the field in the database in the first place, but the user should be able to type in new data and have it save The "View" template should either have the data for this field masked, or non-visible. The auto-generated table showing the list of records should also have this field masked or non-visible. I can do this easily with standard Web Forms, but I'm having a hard time figuring this out in the Dynamic Data site I'm working on. Masking data is such a common task, I have to believe Microsoft thought of this and provided a way to do it...

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  • Query column and everything subordinate (hard to describe, non native speaker, PLS let me explain)

    - by MAD9
    A few weeks ago, I asked a question about how to generate hierarchical XML from a table, that has a parentID column. It all works fine. The point is, according to the hierarchy, I also want to query a table. I'll give you an example: Thats the table with the codes: ID CODE NAME PARENTID 1 ROOT IndustryCode NULL 2 IND Industry 1 3 CON Consulting 1 4 FIN Finance 1 5 PHARM Pharmaceuticals 2 6 AUTO Automotive 2 7 STRAT Strategy 3 8 IMPL Implementation 3 9 CFIN Corporate Finance 4 10 CMRKT Capital Markets 9 From which I generate (for displaying in a TreeViewControl) this XML: <record key="1" parentkey="" Code="ROOT" Name="IndustryCode"> <record key="2" parentkey="1" Code="IND" Name="Industry"> <record key="5" parentkey="2" Code="PHARM" Name="Pharmaceuticals" /> <record key="6" parentkey="2" Code="AUTO" Name="Automotive" /> </record> <record key="3" parentkey="1" Code="CON" Name="Consulting"> <record key="7" parentkey="3" Code="STRAT" Name="Strategy" /> <record key="8" parentkey="3" Code="IMPL" Name="Implementation" /> </record> <record key="4" parentkey="1" Code="FIN" Name="Finance"> <record key="9" parentkey="4" Code="CFIN" Name="Corporate Finance"> <record key="10" parentkey="9" Code="CMRKT" Name="Capital Markets" /> </record> </record> </record> As you can see, some codes are subordinate to others, for example AUTO << IND << ROOT What I want (and have absolutely no idea how to realise or even, where to start) is to be able to query another table (where one column is this certain code of course) for a code and get all records with the specific code and all subordinate codes For example: I query the other table for "IndustryCode = IND[ustry]" and get (of course) the records containing "IND", but also AUTO[motive] and PHARM[aceutical] (= all subordinates) Its an SQL Express Server 2008 with Advanced Services.

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  • How to define a "complicated" ComputedColumn in SQL Server?

    - by Slauma
    SQL Server Beginner question: I'm trying to introduce a computed column in SQL Server (2008). In the table designer of SQL Server Management Studio I can do this, but the designer only offers me one single edit cell to define the expression for this column. Since my computed column will be rather complicated (depending on several database fields and with some case differentiations) I'd like to have a more comfortable and maintainable way to enter the column definition (including line breaks for formatting and so on). I've seen there is an option to define functions in SQL Server (scalar value or table value functions). Is it perhaps better to define such a function and use this function as the column specification? And what kind of function (scalar value, table value)? To make a simplified example: I have two database columns: DateTime1 (smalldatetime, NULL) DateTime2 (smalldatetime, NULL) Now I want to define a computed column "Status" which can have four possible values. In Dummy language: if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 0 else if (DateTime1 IS NULL and DateTime2 IS NOT NULL) set Status = 1 else if (DateTime1 IS NOT NULL and DateTime2 IS NULL) set Status = 2 else set Status = 3 Ideally I would like to have a function GetStatus() which can access the different column values of the table row which I want to compute the value of "Status" for, and then only define the computed column specification as GetStatus() without parameters. Is that possible at all? Or what is the best way to work with "complicated" computed column definitions? Thank you for tips in advance!

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  • What is the performance penalty of XML data type in SQL Server when compared to NVARCHAR(MAX)?

    - by Piotr Owsiak
    I have a DB that is going to keep log entries. One of the columns in the log table contains serialized (to XML) objects and a guy on my team proposed to go with XML data type rather than NVARCHAR(MAX). This table will have logs kept "forever" (archiving some very old entries may be considered in the future). I'm a little worried about the CPU overhead, but I'm even more worried that DB can grow faster (FoxyBOA from the referenced question got 70% bigger DB when using XML). I have read this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/514827/microsoft-sql-server-2005-2008-xml-vs-text-varchar-data-type and it gave me some ideas but I am particulairly interrested in clarification on whether the DB size increases or decreases. Can you please share your insight/experiences in that matter. BTW. I don't currently have any need to depend on XML features within SQL Server (there's nearly zero advantage to me in the specific case). Ocasionally log entries will be extracted, but I prefer to handle the XML using .NET (either by writing a small client or using a function defined in a .NET assembly).

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  • What happened to the .NET version definition with v4.0?

    - by Tom Tresansky
    I'm building a C# class library, and using the beta 2 of Visual Web Developer/Visual C# 2010. I'm trying to save information about what version of .NET the library was built under. In the past, I was able to use this: // What version of .net was it built under? #if NET_1_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 1.0"; #elif NET_1_1 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 1.1"; #elif NET_2_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 2.0"; #elif NET_3_5 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 3.5"; #else public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET version unknown"; #endif So I figured I could just add: #elif NET_4_0 public const string NETFrameworkVersion = ".NET 4.0"; Now, in Project-Properties, my target Framework is ".NET Framework 4". If I check: Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().ImageRuntimeVersion I can see my runtime version is v4.0.21006 (so I know I have .NET 4.0 installed on my CPU). I naturally expect to see that my NETFrameworkVersion variable holds ".NET 4.0". It does not. It holds ".NET version unknown". So my question is, why is NET_4_0 not defined? Did the naming convention change? Is there some simple other way to determine .NET framework build version in versions 3.5?

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  • Float compile-time calculation not happening?

    - by Klaim
    A little test program: #include <iostream> const float TEST_FLOAT = 1/60; const float TEST_A = 1; const float TEST_B = 60; const float TEST_C = TEST_A / TEST_B; int main() { std::cout << TEST_FLOAT << std::endl; std::cout << TEST_C << std::endl; std::cin.ignore(); return 0; } Result : 0 0.0166667 Tested on Visual Studio 2008 & 2010. I worked on other compilers that, if I remember well, made the first result like the second result. Now my memory could be wrong, but shouldn't TEST_FLOAT have the same value than TEST_C? If not, why? Is TEST_C value resolved at compile time or at runtime? I always assumed the former but now that I see those results I have some doubts...

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  • How do I manage dependencies for automated builds on my build server?

    - by Tom Pickles
    I'm trying to implement continuous integration into our day to day workings. In our team, we're moving from just building our code in Visual Studio on our workstations and deploying, to using MSBuild.exe and automating on our build server (which is Jenkins) without the use of Visual Studio. We have external dependencies to references such as Automap in our projects. Because the automap (for example) dll isn't on the build server, the msbuild execution fails, for obvious reasons. There are other dll's which I need to be part of the build, I'm just using automap as an example. So what's the best way to get any dependencies onto the build server as part of the automated build? I've seen references to using a 'lib' folder, but I don't really understand where I should be putting it (in my project, filesystem, SVN ...?), and how the build server will get to it. I've also read that NuGet can do something with dependencies, but my build server isn't connected to the internet, and I don't understand how I can get my build to pull a NuGet package I may have created, and how it works together. Edit: I'm using subversion and we cannot use TeamCity as we would have to buy it and there's zero chance of funding.

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  • Null Pointer Exception in Primavera P6 8.1

    - by gwrichard
    I am getting a null pointer exception in a Primavera P6 8.1 installation. The exception only occurs in one section of the web-client: Application settings.P6 web and the P6 API are deployed on the same WebLogic (10.3.5) node running on a Windows Server 2008 R2 installation. I have done this installation using this same software stack a dozen times and don't have this issue on any of the other installs. Exact error below: Match: beginTraversal Match: digest selected JREDesc: JREDesc[version 1.6.0_20+, heap=-1--1, args=null, href=http://java.sun.com/products/autodl/j2se, sel=false, null, null], JREInfo: JREInfo for index 0: platform is: 1.7 product is: 1.7.0_17 location is: http://java.sun.com/products/autodl/j2se path is: C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre7\bin\javaw.exe args is: null native platform is: Windows, x86 [ x86, 32bit ] JavaFX runtime is: JavaFX 2.2.7 found at C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre7\ enabled is: true registered is: true system is: true Match: ignoring maxHeap: -1 Match: ignoring InitHeap: -1 Match: digesting vmargs: null Match: digested vmargs: [JVMParameters: isSecure: true, args: ] Match: JVM args after accumulation: [JVMParameters: isSecure: true, args: ] Match: digest LaunchDesc: http://localhost:7001/p6/action/jnlp/appletsjnlp.jnlp?mainClass=com.primavera.pvapplets.adminpreferences.AdminPreferencesApplet&classPath=adminpreferences.jar,prm-applets-common.jar,forms-1.0.7.jar,prm-guisupport.jar,prm-to.jar,jide.jar,tablesupport.jar,formsupport.jar,applets-bo.jar,commons-lang.jar,prm-common.jar,resource_strings.jar,prm-img.jar,commons-logging.jar&name=AdminPreferences&version=8.1.2.0.0602 Match: digest properties: [] Match: JVM args: [JVMParameters: isSecure: true, args: ] Match: endTraversal .. Match: JVM args final: Match: Running JREInfo Version match: 1.7.0.17 == 1.7.0.17 Match: Running JVM args match: have:<> satisfy want:<> Java Plug-in 10.17.2.02 Using JRE version 1.7.0_17-b02 Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM User home directory = C:\Users\gwrichard ---------------------------------------------------- c: clear console window f: finalize objects on finalization queue g: garbage collect h: display this help message l: dump classloader list m: print memory usage o: trigger logging q: hide console r: reload policy configuration s: dump system and deployment properties t: dump thread list v: dump thread stack x: clear classloader cache 0-5: set trace level to <n> ----------------------------------------------------

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  • What version of .NET containing RuntimeMethodHandle.EmptyHandle?

    - by user299990
    No one answers my question in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1295344/difference-between-activator-createinstance-and-typeoft-invokemember-with-b/2500960#2500960. I guess that the issue is closed and I am asking here again. Ben M have a nice function which I need for a project. The function is - public static T CreateInstance() { bool bNeedSecurityCheck = true; bool canBeCached = false; RuntimeMethodHandle emptyHandle = RuntimeMethodHandle.EmptyHandle; return (T) RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(typeof(T) as RuntimeType, true, true, ref canBeCached, ref emptyHandle, ref bNeedSecurityCheck); } I am using .NET 3.5 and Visual studio 2008. It gives the error "EmptyHandle type name does not exist in the type System.RuntimeMethodHandle". Then I used "RuntimeMethodHandle emptyHandle = new RuntimeMethodHandle();". Another error presents. RuntimeTypeHandle does not have a CreateInstance method either. Activator has. But it does not take any ref parameter. Thanks for clarification in advance!

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  • Testing ASP.NET webservice using NUnit and transferring session state

    - by herbertyeung
    I have a NUnit test class that starts an ASP.NET web service (using Microsoft.VisualStudio.WebHost.Server) which runs on http://localhost:1070 The problem I am having is that I want to create a session state within the NUnit test that is accessible by the ASP.NET web service on localhost:1070. I have done the following, and the session state can be created successfully inside the NUnit Test, but is lost when the web service is invoked: //Create a new HttpContext for NUnit Testing based on: //http://blogs.imeta.co.uk/jallderidge/archive/2008/10/19/456.aspx HttpContext.Current = new HttpContext( new HttpRequest("", "http://localhost:1070/", ""), new HttpResponse( new System.IO.StringWriter())); //Create a new HttpContext.Current for NUnit Testing System.Web.SessionState.SessionStateUtility.AddHttpSessionStateToContext( HttpContext.Current, new HttpSessionStateContainer("", new SessionStateItemCollection(), new HttpStaticObjectsCollection(), 20000, true, HttpCookieMode.UseCookies, SessionStateMode.Off, false)); HttpContext.Current.Session["UserName"] = "testUserName"; testwebService.testMethod(); I want to be able to get the session state created in the NUnit test for Session["UserName"] in the ASP.NET web service: [WebMethod(EnableSession=true)] public int testMethod() { string user; if(Session["UserName"] != null) { user = (string)Session["UserName"]; //Do some processing of the user return 1; } else return 0; } The web.config file has the following configuration for the session state configuration and would like to remain using InProc than rather StateServer Or SQLServer: <sessionState mode="InProc" stateConnectionString="tcpip=127.0.0.1:42424" cookieless="false" timeout="20"/>

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  • Why do bind1st and bind2nd require constant function objects?

    - by rlbond
    So, I was writing a C++ program which would allow me to take control of the entire world. I was all done writing the final translation unit, but I got an error: error C3848: expression having type 'const `anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<T,BinaryFunction>' would lose some const-volatile qualifiers in order to call 'void `anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<T,BinaryFunction>::operator ()(const point::Point &,const int &)' with [ T=SideCounter, BinaryFunction=std::plus<int> ] c:\program files (x86)\microsoft visual studio 9.0\vc\include\functional(324) : while compiling class template member function 'void std::binder2nd<_Fn2>::operator ()(point::Point &) const' with [ _Fn2=`anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<SideCounter,std::plus<int>> ] c:\users\****\documents\visual studio 2008\projects\TAKE_OVER_THE_WORLD\grid_divider.cpp(361) : see reference to class template instantiation 'std::binder2nd<_Fn2>' being compiled with [ _Fn2=`anonymous-namespace'::ElementAccumulator<SideCounter,std::plus<int>> ] I looked in the specifications of binder2nd and there it was: it took a const AdaptibleBinaryFunction. So, not a big deal, I thought. I just used boost::bind instead, right? Wrong! Now my take-over-the-world program takes too long to compile (bind is used inside a template which is instantiated quite a lot)! At this rate, my nemesis is going to take over the world first! I can't let that happen -- he uses Java! So can someone tell me why this design decision was made? It seems like an odd decision. I guess I'll have to make some of the elements of my class mutable for now...

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  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

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  • How to publish internal data to the internet - as simple as possible

    - by mlarsen
    We have a .net 2-tier application where a desktop program is talking to a database. We support MS SQL Server 2000, 2005, 2008 and Oracle 9, 10 and 11. The application is sold, not as shrink-wrap, but pretty close. It is quite important for us that the installation and configuration is as easy as possible as installation instructions are usually supplied in written form to the customers internal IT-department. Our application is usually not seen as mission critical for the IT-department, so we need to keep their work down to a minimum. Now we are starting to get wishes for a web application build on top of the same data. The web application will be hosted by us and delivered as a SaaS application. Now the challenge is how to move data back and forth between the web application and the customers internal database. as I see it we have some requirements: We must be ready to handle the situation where the customers database is not accessible from the DMZ. I guess the easiest solution is that all communication is initiated from inside the customers lan. As little firewall configuration as possible. The best is if we can run without any special configuration as long as outgoing traffic from the customers lan are not blocked. If we need something changed in the firewall, we must be able to document that the change is secure. It doesn't have to be real time. Moving data in batches every ten minutes or so is OK. Data moves both ways, but not the same tables, so we don't have to support merges. It would be nice if we don't have to roll our own framework completely. Looking forward to hear your suggestions.

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  • Deep copy objects from different namespaces

    - by Wasim
    Hi all, I have the following situation: I have class User with the follwing properies : public class User { string user name ; List <Contact> contacts ; List <BookMark> book marks; . . . } I have the same class in a different namespace , with some different properties . BWT , it's the same situation of it's classes (Contact) and (BookMark). I need to make a deep copy of the same properties from the two classes . Actually , I arrive to this situation by having an Entity Framework edmx file . I created the first database (SQL server 2008) from this model . And copied he same edmx file to another project and created the database with SQL CE db. Now I get the first data model objects by WCF service and need to persist them in the local database in my application . The objects are the same but there are some changs because of the modeling issue with a different databse. Do you have any workarround about this assue. Thanks in advance ...

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  • Is this a good job description? What title would you give this position?

    - by Zack Peterson
    Department: Information Technology Reports To: Chief Information Officer Purpose: Company's ________________ is specifically engaged in the development of World Wide Web applications and distributed network applications. This person is concerned with all facets of the software development process and specializes in software product management. He or she contributes to projects in an application architect role and also performs individual programming tasks. Essential Duties & Responsibilities: This person is involved in all aspects of the software development process such as: Participation in software product definitions, including requirements analysis and specification Development and refinement of simulations or prototypes to confirm requirements Feasibility and cost-benefit analysis, including the choice of architecture and framework Application and database design Implementation (e.g. installation, configuration, customization, integration, data migration) Authoring of documentation needed by users and partners Testing, including defining/supporting acceptance testing and gathering feedback from pre-release testers Participation in software release and post-release activities, including support for product launch evangelism (e.g. developing demonstrations and/or samples) and subsequent product build/release cycles Maintenance Qualifications: Bachelor's degree in computer science or software engineering Several years of professional programming experience Proficiency in the general technology of the World Wide Web: Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) JavaScript Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) Proficiency in the following principles, practices, and techniques: Accessibility Interoperability Usability Security (especially prevention of SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks) Object-oriented programming (e.g. encapsulation, inheritance, modularity, polymorphism, etc.) Relational database design (e.g. normalization, orthogonality) Search engine optimization (SEO) Asynchronous JavaScript and XML (AJAX) Proficiency in the following specific technologies utilized by Company: C# or Visual Basic .NET ADO.NET (including ADO.NET Entity Framework) ASP.NET (including ASP.NET MVC Framework) Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) Language Integrated Query (LINQ) Extensible Application Markup Language (XAML) jQuery Transact-SQL (T-SQL) Microsoft Visual Studio Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) Microsoft SQL Server Adobe Photoshop

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  • Duplicate C# web service proxy classes generated for Java types

    - by Sergey
    My question is about integration between a Java web service and a C# .NET client. Service: CXF 2.2.3 with Aegis databinding Client: C#, .NET 3.5 SP1 For some reason Visual Studio generates two C# proxy enums for each Java enum. The generated C# classes do not compile. For example, this Java enum: public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE; } Produces this WSDL: <xsd:simpleType name="SqlDialect"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="GENERIC" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SYBASE" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SQL_SERVER" /> <xsd:enumeration value="ORACLE" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> For this WSDL Visual Studio generates two partial C# classes (generated comments removed): [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="SqlDialect", Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect : int { [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] GENERIC = 0, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SYBASE = 1, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SQL_SERVER = 2, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] ORACLE = 3, } [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE, } The resulting C# code does not compile: The namespace 'somenamespace' already contains a definition for 'SqlDialect' I will appreciate any ideas...

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  • Ultra-Portable Laptop or Tablet PC for Development and Sketching

    - by Nelson LaQuet
    I am a software developer that primarily writes in PHP, [X]HTML, CSS, Javascript, C# and C++. I use Eclipse for web development, Visual Studio 2008 for C++ and C# work, TortoiseSVN, Subversion server for local repositories, SQL Server Express, Apache and MYSQL. I also use Office 2007 for word processing and spreadsheets and use Vista Ultimate 64 as my primary operating system. The only other things I do on my laptop are watch movies, surf the internet and listen to music. I currently have a Acer Aspire 5100 (1.4 GHz AMD Turion X2, 2 GB of RAM and a 15.4" screen). This thing does not cut it in performance or portability, and in addition, my DVD drive failed. And before anybody posts about vista: I have had XP Professional 32 on it for the last two years, and recently upgraded to Vista 64. It is actually faster (with areo disabled) then XP; so it is not the OS that is causing the laptop to be slow. I usually sketch a lot, for explaining things, developing user interfaces and software architecture. Because of my requirements, I was thinking about a Lenovo X61 Tablet PC. It outperforms my current laptop, is significantly more portable, and... is a tablet. My question is: do any other software developers use this (or other tablets) for programming? Does it help to be able to sketch on the computer itself? And is it capable of being a good development machine? Will it handle the above software listed? If not, what is the best ultra-portable laptop that is good for programming? Or are ultra-portable laptops even good for programming? I could manage with my 15.4" screen, but am spoiled by my two 19" at my home desktop and my job's workstation.

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  • Using Parameter Values In SQL Statement

    - by Dangerous
    I am trying to write a database script (SQL SERVER 2008) which will copy information from database tables on one server to corresponding tables in another database on a different server. I have read that the correct way to do this is to use a sql statement in a format similar to the following: INSERT INTO <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> SELECT * FROM <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> As there will be several tables being copied, I would like to declare variables at the top of the script to allow the user to specify the names of each server and database that are to be used. These could then be used throughout the script. However, I am not sure how to use the variable values in the actual SQL statements. What I want to achieve is something like the following: DECLARE @SERVER_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerFrom' DECLARE @DATABASE_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' DECLARE @SERVER_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerTo' DECLARE @DATABASE_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' INSERT INTO @SERVER_TO.@DATABASE_TO.dbo.TableName SELECT * FROM @SERVER_FROM.@DATABASE_FROM.dbo.TableName ... How should I use the @ variables in this code in order for it to work correctly? Additionally, do you think my method above is correct for what I am trying to achieve and should I be using NVARCHAR(50) as my variable type or something else? Thanks

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  • How to shrink the ASPX page

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C#/ASP.NET web application in VS 2008. Currently this page is too tall. The buttons appear on top and then there is a large gap between these buttons and the resultLabel text. The following code is from my ASPX file. I have tried switching to the Design tab of this file and manually moving this label, but there is still a large gap. I'm sure this is simple. How do I correct this? Text="Now select from the dropdownlists which table columns from my database you want to map these fields to"     <table align="center"><tr> <td style="text-align: center;width: 300px;"> <asp:Label ID="resultLabel" runat="server" style="position:absolute; text-align:center; top:148px; left: 155px;" Visible="False"></asp:Label> </td></tr></table> <p>

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  • Please take a stab at this VB.Net Oracle-related sample and help me with String.Format.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    If the database is not Oracle, it is MS SQl 2008. My task: if Oracle, add two more parameters when calling a stored proc. Oracle and MSFT stored procs are generated; Oracle ones have 3 extra parameters: Vret_val out number, Vparam2 in out number, Vparam3 in out number, ... the rest (The are not actually named Vparam2 and Vparam3, but this should not matter). So, the code for a helper VB.Net class that calls a stored proc: Imports System.Data.Odbc Imports System.Configuration Dim objCon As OdbcConnection = Nothing Dim objAdapter As OdbcDataAdapter Dim cmdCommand As New OdbcCommand Dim objDataTable As DataTable Dim sconnection As String Try sconnection = mConnectionString objAdapter = New OdbcDataAdapter objCon = New OdbcConnection(sconnection) objCon.Open() objAdapter.SelectCommand = cmdCommand objAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = objCon objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandTimeout = Globals.mReportTimeOut If Not mIsOracle Then objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}}}", spName) Else Dim returnValue As New OdbcParameter returnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output returnValue.ParameterName = "@Vret_val" returnValue.OdbcType = OdbcType.Numeric objAdapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(returnValue) objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) End If Try objDataTable = New DataTable(spName) objAdapter.Fill(objDataTable) Catch ex As Exception ... Question: I am puzzled as to what String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) does, in particular the (?) part. My understanding of the String.Format is that it will simply replace {0} with spName. The {{, }}, and (?) do throw me off because { reminds me of formatting, (?) hints at some advanced regex use. Unfortunately I am getting little help from a key person who is on vacation without a leash [smart]phone. I am guessing that I simply add 5 more lines for each additional parameter, and change String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) to String.Format("{{call {0}(?,?,?)}}", spName). I forgot to mention that I am coding this "blindly" - I have a compiler to help me, but no environment set up to test this. This will be over in a few days, but I need to do my best to try finishing it on time :) Thanks.

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  • Why does GCC need extra declarations in templates when VS does not?

    - by Kyle
    template<typename T> class Base { protected: Base() {} T& get() { return t; } T t; }; template<typename T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Base<T>::get; // Line A Base<T>::t; // Line B void foo() { t = 4; get(); } }; int main() { return 0; } If I comment out lines A and B, this code compiles fine under Visual Studio 2008. Yet when I compile under GCC 4.1 with lines A and B commented, I get these errors: In member function ‘void TemplateDerived::foo()’: error: ‘t’ was not declared in this scope error: there are no arguments to ‘get’ that depend on a template parameter, so a declaration of ‘get’ must be available Why would one compiler require lines A and B while the other doesn't? Is there a way to simplify this? In other words, if derived classes use 20 things from the base class, I have to put 20 lines of declarations for every class deriving from Base! Is there a way around this that doesn't require so many declarations?

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  • AnyCPU/x86/x64 for C# application and it's C++/CLI dependency

    - by Soonts
    I'm Windows developer, I'm using Microsoft visual studio 2008 SP1. My developer machine is 64 bit. The software I'm currently working on is managed .exe written in C#. Unfortunately, I was unable to solve the whole problem solely in C#. That's why I also developed a small managed DLL in C++/CLI. Both projects are in the same solution. My C# .exe build target is "Any CPU". When my C++ DLL build target is "x86", the DLL is not loaded. As far as I understood when I googled, the reason is C++/CLI language, unlike other .NET languages, compiles to the native code, not managed code. I switched the C++ DLL build target to x64, and everything works now. However, AFAIK everything will stop working as soon as my client will install my product on a 32-bit OS. I have to support Windows Vista and 7, both 32 and 64 bit versions of each of them. I don't want to fall back to 32 bits. That 250 lines of C++ code in my DLL is only 2% of my codebase. And that DLL is only used in several places, so in the typical usage scenario it's not even loaded. My DLL implements two COM objects with ATL, so I can't use "/clr:safe" project setting. Is there way to configure the solution and the projects so that C# project builds "Any CPU" version, the C++ project builds both 32 bit and 64 bit versions, then in the runtime when the managed .EXE is starting up, it uses either 32-bit DLL or 64-bit DLL depending on the OS? Or maybe there's some better solution I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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  • Mysql return value as 0 in the fetch result.

    - by Karthik
    I have this two tables, -- -- Table structure for table `t1` -- CREATE TABLE `t1` ( `pid` varchar(20) collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL, `pname` varchar(20) collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 COLLATE=latin1_general_ci; -- -- Dumping data for table `t1` -- INSERT INTO `t1` VALUES ('p1', 'pro1'); INSERT INTO `t1` VALUES ('p2', 'pro2'); -- -------------------------------------------------------- -- -- Table structure for table `t2` -- CREATE TABLE `t2` ( `pid` varchar(20) collate latin1_general_ci NOT NULL, `year` int(6) NOT NULL, `price` int(3) NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 COLLATE=latin1_general_ci; -- -- Dumping data for table `t2` -- INSERT INTO `t2` VALUES ('p1', 2009, 50); INSERT INTO `t2` VALUES ('p1', 2010, 60); INSERT INTO `t2` VALUES ('p3', 2007, 200); INSERT INTO `t2` VALUES ('p4', 2008, 501); my query is, SELECT * FROM `t1` LEFT JOIN `t2` ON t1.pid = t2.pid Getting the result, pid pname pid year price p1 pro1 p1 2009 50 p1 pro1 p1 2010 60 p2 pro2 NULL NULL NULL My question is, i want to get the price value is 0 instead of NULL. How can i write the query to getting the price value is 0. Thanks in advance for help.

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