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• Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

  - by Shane

  I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

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• User Control - dependency property to Change Image Issues

  - by mflair2000

  i'm having issues setting the Image from a dependency property. It seems like the trigger doesnt fire. I just want hide/show and image, or set the source if possible. public static readonly DependencyProperty HasSingleValueProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("HasSingleValue", typeof(bool), typeof(LevelControl), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(false,FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.BindsTwoWayByDefault)); public bool HasSingleValue { get { return (bool)GetValue(HasSingleValueProperty); } set { SetValue(HasSingleValueProperty, value); } } public LevelControl() { this.InitializeComponent(); //this.DataContext = this; LayoutRoot.DataContext = this; } //Control Markup <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Image x:Name="xGreenBarClientTX" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Height="13" Margin="7,8.5,7,0" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="47" Canvas.Left="181.67" d:LayoutOverrides="Height" > <Image.Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Image}"> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding HasSingleValue}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Opacity" Value="100"/> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding HasSingleValue}" Value="False"> <Setter Property="Opacity" Value="0"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </Image.Style> </Image>

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• How do you export or release a Mac OS X program made in Xcode? Program does not load on other comput

  - by SolidSnake4444

  I made a program in Xcode, being a simple calculator that takes a first number, and a second number, and then either adds,subtracts,multiplies, or divides depending on the radio button. I build and run and the program comes up and works fine. When I went to show my friends on their macs, when you double click on the program the program pops in the tray for like .05 seconds and then disappears and we never can actually run the program. It still works perfect however on my computer. What am I doing wrong? How can I take the program I made, and run it on different macs? I have the release set to 10.5 but the active SDK to 10.6. It runs in both 10.5 and 10.6 simulators. One friend has 10.6.3 like me and the other has 10.5.x(cant remember the last part). To get the app, I changed from debug to release and set active SDK to 10.5. Then in the release folder I found the app and sent that over iChat. I feel this will be a problem in the future if I ever make a legit application to distribute. Thank you!

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• How to get child nodes after store load

  - by Azincourt

  Version: ExtJs 4.1 To change the child items I use this function: TreeStore (Ext.data.TreeStore) storeId : 'treeStore', ... constructor: function( oConfig ) { ... this.on( 'expand', function( oObj ) { oObj.eachChild(function(oNode) { switch(oNode.data.type) { case "report": oNode.set('icon', strIconReport); break; case "view": oNode.set('icon', strIconView); break; } }); }); Reload After removing or adding items in the tree, I reload the tree somewhere else with: var oStore = Ext.getStore('treeStore'); oStore.load({ node : oNode, params : { newpath : oNode.data.path, overwrite : true } }); Although it is the same store treeStore, after loading and expanding to the correct path, the icons are not changed since the .on( 'expand') function is not called. Why? Question How can I change the icons of this newly loaded store before it expands to the node path? What I tried Before calling .load() I tried to edit the children with oNode.eachChild(function(oChild) {} but no success.

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• ASP.NET MVC Form repopulation

  - by ListenToRick

  I have a controller with two actions: [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult Add() { PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(); } [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult Add([GigBinderAttribute]Gig gig, FormCollection formCollection) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid) { GigManager.Save(gig); return RedirectToAction("Index", gig.ID); } PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(gig); } As you can see, when the form posts its data, the Add action uses a GigBinder (An implemenation of IModelBinder) In this binder I have: if (int.TryParse(bindingContext.HttpContext.Request.Form["StartDate.Hour"], out hour)) { gig.StartDate.Hour = hour; } else { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Doors", "You need to tell us when the doors open"); } The form contains a text box with id "StartDate.Hour". As you can see above, the GigBinder tests to see that the user has typed in an integer into the textbox with id "StartDate.Hour". If not, a model error is added to the modelstate using AddModelError. Since the gigs property gigs.StartDate.Hour is strongly typed, I cannot set its value to, for example, "TEST" if the user has typed this into the forms textbox. Hence, I cant set the value of gigs.StartDate.Hour since the user has entered a string rather than an integer. Since the Add Action returns the view and passes the model (return View(gig);) if the modelstate is invalid, when the form is re-displayed with validation mssages, the value "TEST" is not displayed in the textbox. Instead, it will be the default value of gig.StartDate.Hour. How do I get round this problem? I really stuck!

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• Which function pair in QString to use for converting to/from std::string?

  - by Noah Roberts

  I'm working on a project that we want to use Unicode and could end up in countries like Japan, etc... We want to use std::string for the underlying type that holds string data in the data layer (see Qt, MSVC, and /Zc:wchar_t- == I want to blow up the world as to why). The problem is that I'm not completely sure which function pair (to/from) to use for this and be sure we're 100% compatible with anything the user might enter in the Qt layer. A look at to/fromStdString indicates that I'd have to use setCodecForCStrings. The documentation for that function though indicates that I wouldn't want to do this for things like Japanese. This is the set that I'd LIKE to use though. Does someone know enough to explain how I'd set this up if it's possible? The other option that looks like I could be pretty sure of it working is the to/fromUTF8 functions. Those would require a two step approach though so I'd prefer the other if possible. Is there anything I've missed?

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• PowerShell function arguments: Can the first one be optional first?

  - by Johannes Rössel

  I have an advanced function in PowerShell, which roughly looks like this: function Foo { [CmdletBinding] param ( [int] $a = 42, [int] $b ) } The idea is that it can be run with either two, one or no arguments. However, the first argument to become optional is the first one. So the following scenarios are possible to run the function: Foo a b # the normal case, both a and b are defined Foo b # a is omitted Foo # both a and b are omitted However, normally PowerShell tries to fit the single argument into a. So I thought about specifying the argument positions explicitly, where a would have position 0 and b position 1. However, to allow for only b specified I tried putting a into a parameter set. But then b would need a different position depending on the currently-used parameter set. Any ideas how to solve this properly? I'd like to retain the parameter names (which aren't a and b actually), so using $args is probably a last resort. I probably could define two parameter sets, one with two mandatory parameters and one with a single optional one, but I guess the parameter names have to be different in that case, then, right?

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• Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

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• Validating a value for a DataColumn

  - by Richard Neil Ilagan

  Hello! I'm using a DataGrid with edit functionalities in my project. It's handy, compared to having to edit its source data manually, but sadly, that means that I'll have to deal with validating user input a bit more. And my problem is basically just that. When I set my DataGrid to EDIT mode, modify the values and then set it to UPDATE, what is the best way to check if a value that I've entered is, in fact, compatible with the corresponding column's data type? i.e. (simple example) // assuming DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt.Columns.Add("aa",typeof(System.Int32)); DataGrid dg = new DataGrid(); dg.DataSource = dt; dg.DataBind(); dg.UpdateCommand += dg_Update; // this is the update handler protected void dg_Update(object src, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { string newValue = (someValueIEnteredInTextBox); // HOW DO I CHECK IF [newValue] IS COMPATIBLE WITH COLUMN "aa" ABOVE? dt.LoadDataRow(newValue, true); } Thanks guys. Any leads would be so much help.

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• Getting the last User ID in Zend Framework

  - by Ryan Murphy

  Using MySQL query browser, I manually made a table called users and input some date in the fields. I set the primary key to id and set it to auto increment. There are 3 rows, the highest id is 3. I then made the following class in the method directory to call upon the data in the table etc. class Application_Model_DbTable_User extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'user'; public function getLatestUserId() { $id = $this->getAdapter()->lastInsertId(); return $id; } } In the controller I do the following which gets the value generated by the method and lets the view access it: $usersDbModel = new Application_Model_DbTable_User(); $lastUserId = $usersDbModel->getLatestUserId(); $this->view->lastUserId = $lastUserId; In the view I then echo it to display it to the user: echo $this->lastUserId; However, even though my last id in the users table is 3. It displays 0. I have also tried: public function getLatestUserId() { $sql = 'SELECT max(id) FROM user'; $query = $this->query($sql); $result = $query->fetchAll(); return $result; } But this just throws out a server error. What have I done wrong? Am I missing something? Is there another way of doing this?

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• Paging using Linq-To-Sql based on two parameters in asp.net mvc...

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  As two parameters i say currentPage and pagesize .....I thus far used sql server stored procedures and implemented paging like this, GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetMaterialsInView] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @CurrentPage INT, @PageSize INT AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM ( SELECT *,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY Id) AS Row FROM InTimePagingView ) AS InTimePages WHERE Row >= (@CurrentPage - 1) * @PageSize + 1 AND Row <= @CurrentPage*@PageSize SELECT COUNT(*) as TotalCount FROM InTimePagingView SELECT CEILING(COUNT(*) / CAST(@PageSize AS FLOAT)) NumberOfPages FROM InTimePagingView END Now i am using Linq-to-sql and i use this, public IQueryable<MaterialsObj> FindAllMaterials() { var materials = from m in db.Materials join Mt in db.MeasurementTypes on m.MeasurementTypeId equals Mt.Id where m.Is_Deleted == 0 select new MaterialsObj() { Id = Convert.ToInt64(m.Mat_id), Mat_Name = m.Mat_Name, Mes_Name = Mt.Name, }; return materials; } Now i want to return the records,TotalCount where i use Total count to generate pagenumbers..... Is this possible... Any suggestion... EDIT: Just found this... NorthWindDataContext db = new NorthWindDataContext(); var query = from c in db.Customers select c.CompanyName; //Assuming Page Number = 2, Page Size = 10 int iPageNum = 2; int iPageSize = 10; var PagedData = query.Skip((iPageNum - 1) * iPageSize).Take(iPageSize); ObjectDumper.Write(PagedData);

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• How do you populate a NSArrayController with CoreData rows programmatically?

  - by Andrew McCloud

  After several hours/days of searching and diving into example projects i've concluded that I need to just ask. If I bind the assetsView (IKImageBrowserView) directly to an IB instance of NSArrayController everything works just fine. - (void) awakeFromNib { library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; } Both NSLogs are empty. I know i'm missing something... I just don't know what. The goal is to eventually allow multiple instances of this view's "library" filtered programmatically with a predicate. For now i'm just trying to have it display all of the rows for the "Asset" entity. Addition: If I create the NSArrayController in IB and then try to log [library arrangedObjects] or manually set the data source for assetsView I get the same empty results. Like I said earlier, if I bind library.arrangedObjects to assetsView.content (IKImageBrowserView) in IB - with same managed object context and same entity name set by IB - everything works as expected. - (void) awakeFromNib { // library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; // [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; // [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; }

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• Insert or Update using Oracle and PL/SQL

  - by Shane

  I have a PL/SQL function that performs an update/insert on an Oracle database that maintains a target total and returns the difference between the existing value and the new value. Here is the code I have so far: FUNCTION calcTargetTotal(accountId varchar2, newTotal numeric ) RETURN number is oldTotal numeric(20,6); difference numeric(20,6); begin difference := 0; begin select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; exception when NO_DATA_FOUND then begin difference := newTotal; insert into target_total ( account_id, value ) values ( accountId, newTotal ); -- sometimes a race condition occurs and this stmt fails -- in those cases try to update again exception when DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX then begin difference := 0; select value into oldTotal from target_total WHERE account_id = accountId for update of value; if (oldTotal != newTotal) then update target_total set value = newTotal WHERE account_id = accountId difference := newTotal - oldTotal; end if; end; end; end; return difference end calcTargetTotal; This works as expected in unit tests with multiple threads never failing. However when loaded on a live system we have seen this fail with a stack trace looking like this: ORA-01403: no data found ORA-00001: unique constraint () violated ORA-01403: no data found The line numbers (which I have removed since they are meaningless out of context) verify that the first update fails due to no data, the insert fail due to uniqueness, and the 2nd update is failing with no data, which should be impossible. From what I have read on other thread a MERGE statement is also not atomic and could suffer similar problems. Does anyone have any ideas how to prevent this from occurring?

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• A good data model for finding a user's favorite stories

  - by wings

  Original Design Here's how I originally had my Models set up: class UserData(db.Model): user = db.UserProperty() favorites = db.ListProperty(db.Key) # list of story keys # ... class Story(db.Model): title = db.StringProperty() # ... On every page that displayed a story I would query UserData for the current user: user_data = UserData.all().filter('user =' users.get_current_user()).get() story_is_favorited = (story in user_data.favorites) New Design After watching this talk: Google I/O 2009 - Scalable, Complex Apps on App Engine, I wondered if I could set things up more efficiently. class FavoriteIndex(db.Model): favorited_by = db.StringListProperty() The Story Model is the same, but I got rid of the UserData Model. Each instance of the new FavoriteIndex Model has a Story instance as a parent. And each FavoriteIndex stores a list of user id's in it's favorited_by property. If I want to find all of the stories that have been favorited by a certain user: index_keys = FavoriteIndex.all(keys_only=True).filter('favorited_by =', users.get_current_user().user_id()) story_keys = [k.parent() for k in index_keys] stories = db.get(story_keys) This approach avoids the serialization/deserialization that's otherwise associated with the ListProperty. Efficiency vs Simplicity I'm not sure how efficient the new design is, especially after a user decides to favorite 300 stories, but here's why I like it: A favorited story is associated with a user, not with her user data On a page where I display a story, it's pretty easy to ask the story if it's been favorited (without calling up a separate entity filled with user data). fav_index = FavoriteIndex.all().ancestor(story).get() fav_of_current_user = users.get_current_user().user_id() in fav_index.favorited_by It's also easy to get a list of all the users who have favorited a story (using the method in #2) Is there an easier way? Please help. How is this kind of thing normally done?

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• You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity

  - by ProNeticas

  I have a function that shows a map page so I can get the user to choose their current location. But if you run this function twice it crashes the App with the Single MapView in a MapActivity error (i.e. opening that settings view again). public void showMapSetterPage(View v) { Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "Settings screen, set map center launched"); // Set which view object we fired off from set_pv(v); // Show Map Settings Screen setContentView(R.layout.set_map_center); // Initiate the center point map if (mapView == null) { mapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); } mapView.setLongClickable(true); mapView.setStreetView(true); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(false); mapView.setSatellite(false); mapController = mapView.getController(); mapController.setZoom(18); LocationManager lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); Location location = lm .getLastKnownLocation(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER); int lat = (int) (location.getLatitude() * 1E6); int lng = (int) (location.getLongitude() * 1E6); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, "The LAT and LONG is: " + lat + " == " + lng); point = new GeoPoint(lat, lng); // mapController.setCenter(point); mapController.animateTo(point); } So I have a button that shows this View and onClick="showMapSetterPage". But if you go back to the settings screen out of the map and click the button again I get this error: 03-06 20:55:54.091: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(28014): Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException: You are only allowed to have a single MapView in a MapActivity How can I delete the MapView and recreate it?

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• Get the id of the link and pass it to the jQueryUI dialog widget

  - by Mike Sanchez

  I'm using the dialog widget of jQueryUI. Now, the links are grabbed from an SQL database by using jQuery+AJAX which is the reason why I used "live" $(function() { var $dialog = $('#report') .dialog({ autoOpen: false, resizable: false, modal: true, height: 410, width: 350, draggable: true }) //store reference to placeholders $uid = $('#reportUniqueId'); $('.reportopen').live("click", function (e) { $dialog.dialog('open'); var $uid = $(this).attr('id'); e.preventDefault(); }); }); My question is, how do I pass the id of the link that triggered the dialog widget to the dialog box itself? The link is set up like this: <td align="left" width="12%"> <span id="notes"> [<a href="javascript:void(0)" class="reportopen" id="<?=$reportId;?>">Spam</a>] </span> </td> And the dialogbox is set up like this: <div id="report" title="Inquire now"> HAHAHAHAHA <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> </div> I'd like for the id to be passed and generated in the <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> part of the dialog box. Any idea?

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• Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

  - by kujawk

  Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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• Castle windsor security exception

  - by Sunil

  I developed a small WCF service that uses Castle Windsor IoC container and it works fine on my PC. When I deploy it onto a Win 2008 R2 server and host the WCF service in IIS 7 it fails with the following error. I checked the server level web.config and the trust level is set to "Full". What do I need to do to get this to work. As a test I deployed the same service as it is onto a Windows 2003 server with the trust level set to "Full" and it works fine. I am unable to figure out what setting/configuration I am missing on the 2008 server that is making the service fail. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers.] Castle.Windsor.WindsorContainer..ctor() +0 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCInstanceProvider..ctor(Type serviceType) in D:\WCF\WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices \WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC\IoCInstanceProvider.cs:19 WMS.ServiceContractImplementation.IoC.IoCServiceBehavior.ApplyDispatchBehav­ior(ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase) in D:\WCF \WCFProofOfConcept\WMSServices\WMS.ServiceContractImplementation\IoC \IoCServiceBehavior.cs:24 System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.InitializeServiceHost(Ser­viceDescription description, ServiceHostBase serviceHost) +377 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.InitializeRuntime() +37 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnBeginOpen() +27 System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) +49 System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) +261 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) +121 System.ServiceModel.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) +479

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• Algorithm for assigning a unique series of bits for each user?

  - by Mark

  The problem seems simple at first: just assign an id and represent that in binary. The issue arises because the user is capable of changing as many 0 bits to a 1 bit. To clarify, the hash could go from 0011 to 0111 or 1111 but never 1010. Each bit has an equal chance of being changed and is independent of other changes. What would you have to store in order to go from hash - user assuming a low percentage of bit tampering by the user? I also assume failure in some cases so the correct solution should have an acceptable error rate. I would an estimate the maximum number of bits tampered with would be about 30% of the total set. I guess the acceptable error rate would depend on the number of hashes needed and the number of bits being set per hash. I'm worried with enough manipulation the id can not be reconstructed from the hash. The question I am asking I guess is what safe guards or unique positioning systems can I use to ensure this happens.

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• Use JQuery to check a checkbox in a parent list-item?

  - by Daniel O'Connor

  Hey Everyone, I'm brand new to Javascript and JQuery, so I've been reading up on it and am trying to check (and set inactive) a checkbox in a parent list-item when one of the children are checked. If this doesn't make any sense, take a look at the list structure. <ul> <li><input type="checkbox" name="items[]" value="88712003" id="88712003" /> Parent 1</li> <li><input type="checkbox" name="items[]" value="88712003" id="88712003" /> Parent 2 <ul> <li><input type="checkbox" name="items[]" value="21312341" id="21312341" /> Child 1</li> <li><input type="checkbox" name="items[]" value="21312341" id="21312341" /> Child 2</li> </ul> </li> <li><input type="checkbox" name="items[]" value="88712003" id="88712003" /> Parent 3</li> <li><input type="checkbox" name="items[]" value="88712003" id="88712003" /> Parent 4</li> </ul> If Child 1 or Child 2 is checked, I want the input in Parent 2 to be checked and set inactive. I've started working on it, but got stuck here: $(function(){ $('.child').click(function() { $(this).parent().parent().parent().toggle(); }); }); As you can see, I didn't make it far. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• Java - How to find the redirected url of a url?

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I am accessing web pages through java as follows: URLConnection con = url.openConnection(); But in some cases, a url redirects to another url. So I want to know the url to which the previous url redirected. Below are the header fields that I got as a response: null-->[HTTP/1.1 200 OK] Cache-control-->[public,max-age=3600] last-modified-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Transfer-Encoding-->[chunked] Date-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 13:45:35 GMT] Vary-->[Accept-Encoding] Expires-->[Sat, 17 Apr 2010 14:45:35 GMT] Set-Cookie-->[cl_def_hp=copenhagen; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT, cl_def_lang=en; domain=.craigslist.org; path=/; expires=Sun, 17 Apr 2011 13:45:35 GMT] Connection-->[close] Content-Type-->[text/html; charset=iso-8859-1;] Server-->[Apache] So at present, I am constructing the redirected url from the value of the Set-Cookie header field. In the above case, the redirected url is copenhagen.craigslist.org Is there any standard way through which I can determine which url the particular url is going to redirect. I know that when a url redirects to other url, the server sends an intermediate response containing a header field that tells the url which it is going to redirect but I am not receiving that intermediate response through the url.openConnection(); method.

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• Modify onclick function with jQuery

  - by Chris Barr

  I've got a button that has an onclick event in it, which was set on the back end from .NET. Beside it is a checkbox <button class="img_button" onclick="if(buttonLoader(this)){WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('uxBtnRelease', '', true, '', 'somepage.aspx?oupid=5&fp=true', false, true))} return false;" type="button">Release</button> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" id="myCheckbox"> When the checkbox is clicked, needs to change the value of the query string in the URL inside the onclick function of the button. So far I have this, and the idea is right, but I keep getting errors when it's run: "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" var defaultReleaseOnClick=null; $("#myCheckbox").click(function(){ var $releaseBtn = $(".img_button"); if(defaultReleaseOnClick==null) defaultReleaseOnClick=$releaseBtn.attr("onclick"); var newOnClickString = defaultReleaseOnClick.toString().replace(/&fp=[a-z]+'/i,"&fp="+this.checked); $releaseBtn.removeAttr("onclick").click(eval(newOnClickString)); }); I know it seems kinda hacky to convert the function to a string, do a replacement, and then try to convert it back to a function, but I don't know any other way to do it. Any ideas? I've set up a demo here: http://jsbin.com/asiwu4/edit

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• Using the <h2> as the title after sent?

  - by Delan Azabani

  Currently, I have a semi-dynamic system for my website's pages. head.php has all the tags before the content body, foot.php the tags after. Any page using the main theme will include head.php, then write the content, then output foot.php. Currently, to be able to set the title, I quickly set a variable $title before inclusion: <?php $title = 'Untitled document'; include_once '../head.php'; ?> <h2>Untitled document</h2> Content here... <?php include_once '../foot.php'; ?> So that in head.php... <title><?php echo $title; ?> | Delan Azabani</title> However, this seems kludgy as the title is most of the time, the same as the content of the h2 tag. Is there a way I can get PHP to read the content of h2, track back and insert it, then send the whole thing at the end?

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• Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

  - by webtoad

  Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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• How to get OCI lib to work on red hat machine to work with R Oracle?

  - by Matt Bannert

  I need to get OCI lib working on my rhel 6.3 machine and I am experiencing some trouble with OCI headers files that can't be found. I have installed (using yum install) oracle-instantclient11.2-basic-11.2.0.3.0-1.x86_64.rpm because this official page it's all I need to run OCI. To test the whole thing in general I've installed sqplus64, which worked after I set export LD_LIBRARY_PATH=/usr/lib/oracle/11.2/client64/lib. Unfortunately the headers files couldn't be found after setting LD_LIBRARY_PATH. Actually I am not surprised because there is no include directory in any of these oracle paths. So the question is: Where do I get these missing header files from? Are they actually already there and I just can find them? Btw: I am doing this whole exercise because I want to use ROracle on my R Studio server and this R package depends on the OCI library. Once I am back in R territory the road gets much less bumpier for me. EDIT: this documentation helped me a little further. However, I guess I found some header files now in: "/usr/include/oracle/11.2/client64". But which variable do I have to set to this location?

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