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  • Setting UITabBarItem title from UINavigationController?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I have setup a UITabBarController with two tabs, one is a simple UIViewController and the other is a UINavigationController using second UIViewController as its rootController to set up a UITableView. My question is with regard to naming the tabs (i.e. UITabBarItem) For the first tab (simple UIViewController) I have added the following (see below) to the controllers -init method. - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [self tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"ONE"]; } return self; } For the other tab I have added (see below) to the second controllers init (rootController). - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [[self navigationController] tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"TWO"]; } return self; } Am I setting the second tabBarItem title in the right place as currently it is not showing? EDIT: I can correctly set the UITabBarItem from within the AppDelegate when I first create the controllers, ready for adding to the UITabBarController. But I really wanted to do this in the individual controller -init methods for neatness. // UITabBarController UITabBarController *tempRoot = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [self setRootController:tempRoot]; [tempRoot release]; NSMutableArray *tabBarControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // UIViewController ONE MapController *mapController = [[MapController alloc] init]; [tabBarControllers addObject:mapController]; [mapController release]; // UITableView TWO TableController *rootTableController = [[TableController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tempNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootTableController]; [rootTableController release]; [tabBarControllers addObject:tempNavController]; [tempNavController release]; [rootController setViewControllers:tabBarControllers]; [tabBarControllers release]; [window addSubview:[rootController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

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  • Using struts 2 with no tags

    - by WannaAsk
    Hi everyone, I wonder if you could guide me on this struts issue - I feel hopeless on this... I am working on migrating our web application to a Struts 2 portlet (I'm using Struts 2.1.8). The thing is, I am forced to avoid struts tags because our application relies on Dijit widgets, which are omitted when using struts tags. So now I should implement the <s:form tag using scriptlets. My question is: how you would suggest I imitate the way struts handles the "action" attribute? Right now it appears I should: Create a regular html form in my jsp. Get/create the ActionConfig object during onsubmit and set on it values which match my desired destination: class+method+result jsp. Execute the action I set in 2. Would you recommend this? If so - is ActionConfig obtained from the session? Can I initiate an action execution from ActionConfig? (Aletrnatively... generating an action url using struts' form.vm file - what do you say?) I would appreciate any help on this - Thanks a lot in advance!!!

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  • std::stringstream GCC Abnormal Behavior

    - by FlorianZ
    I have a very interesting problem with compiling a short little program on a Mac (GCC 4.2). The function below would only stream chars or strings into the stringstream, but not anything else (int, double, float, etc.) In fact, the fail flag is set if I attempt to convert for example an int into a string. However, removing the preprocessor flag: _GLIBCXX_DEBUG=1, which is set by default in XCode for the debug mode, will yield the desired results / correct behavior. Here is the simple function I am talking about. value is template variable of type T. Tested for int, double, float (not working), char and strings (working). template < typename T > const std::string Attribute<T>::getValueAsString() const { std::ostringstream stringValue; stringValue << value; return stringValue.str(); } Any ideas what I am doing wrong, why this doesn't work, or what the preprocessor flag does to make this not work anymore? Thanks!

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  • Bind an Incode DataTemplate in WPF

    - by Mike Bynum
    I have a WPF Application which is using MVVM. I know that there ways of doing this in XAML but I am working on a plugin architecture and came up with a solution where a plugin exposes it's viewmodel to my plugin host's viewmodel and it's datatemplate. I want to leave the lifetime management of the plugin view up to WPF. I have tried having the plugins expose a UserControl but ran into issues when WPF decided to dispose of my UserControl so I would not reattach it without weird hacky work arounds. I am having issues getting some sort of binding working to where i can bind a control to the data and it's template to my data template. I have a ViewModel which looks something like: public class MyViewModel { public DataTemplate SelectedTemplate{ get; set;} public object SelectedViewModel {get; set;} } The selected template and viewmodel are determined somewhere else in the code but are irrelevant to my question. My question is how i can bind to a DataTemplate so that I know how to display the data shown in the SelectedViewModel. The DataTemplate is a DataTemplate created incode which respresents: <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:MyViewModel}"> <v:MyUserControl /> </DataTemplate> I have tried: <UserControl Template="{Binding Path=SelectedTemplate}" Content="{Binding Path=SelectedViewModel"} /> But UserControl expects a control template and not a data template.

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  • Best way to track the stages of a form across different controllers - $_GET or routing

    - by chrisj
    Hi, I am in a bit of a dilemma about how best to handle the following situation. I have a long registration process on a site, where there are around 10 form sections to fill in. Some of these forms relate specifically to the user and their own personal data, while most of them relate to the user's pets - my current set up handles user specific forms in a User_Controller (e.g via methods like user/profile, user/household etc), and similarly the pet related forms are handled in a Pet_Controller (e.g pet/health). Whether or not all of these methods should be combined into a single Registration_Controller, I'm not sure - I'm open to any advice on that. Anyway, my main issue is that I want to generate a progress bar which shows how far along in the registration process each user is. As the urls in each form section can potentially be mapping to different controllers, I'm trying to find a clean way to extract which stage a person is at in the overall process. I could just use the query string to pass a stage parameter with each request, e.g user/profile?stage=1. Another way to do it potentially is to use routing - e.g the urls for each section of the form could be set up to be registration/stage/1, registration/stage/2 - then i could just map these urls to the appropriate controller/method behind the scenes. If this makes any sense at all, does anyone have any advice for me?

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  • Is there a better way to keep track of session variable creation/access throughout different pages?

    - by Brandon
    Here's what I am working on. At my website I have multiple processes with each one containing multiple steps. Now in one of the processes, there is an error checking routine executed before proceeding to the next step of that process. A session var is set indicating the error status and it will either redirect back to the referrer or display the next page's contents. Now this kind of functionality, I believe, is common throughout web development. The issue that is occurring is that session vars are left around and are not being cleaned up properly. At times this introduces undesired behavior. My website is growing and I find that I am requiring more and more session vars to keep track of different system and error states. So I was thinking about creating a kind of "session variable keeper" to keep track of session var usage. The idea is fairly simple. It will have the notion of a context (e.g. registration process) and allow access to a predefined set of session vars within that context. In addition, the var and context will be paired with an action to proceed to some form of event handling. So if you haven't noticed I'm new to web development. Any thoughts or comments on the idea that I am proposing would be greatly appreciated. The back-end is written in PHP/MySQL.

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  • Why we can't we overload "=" using friend function?

    - by ashish-sangwan
    Why it is not allowed to overload "=" using friend function? I have written a small program but it is giving error. class comp { int real; int imaginary; public: comp(){real=0; imaginary=0;} void show(){cout << "Real="<<real<<" Imaginary="<<imaginary<<endl;} void set(int i,int j){real=i;imaginary=j;} friend comp operator=(comp &op1,const comp &op2); }; comp operator=(comp &op1,const comp &op2) { op1.imaginary=op2.imaginary; op1.real=op2.real; return op1; } int main() { comp a,b; a.set(10,20); b=a; b.show(); return 0; } The compilation gives the following error :- [root@dogmatix stackoverflow]# g++ prog4.cpp prog4.cpp:11: error: ‘comp operator=(comp&, const comp&)’ must be a nonstatic member function prog4.cpp:14: error: ‘comp operator=(comp&, const comp&)’ must be a nonstatic member function prog4.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: prog4.cpp:25: error: ambiguous overload for ‘operator=’ in ‘b = a’ prog4.cpp:4: note: candidates are: comp& comp::operator=(const comp&) prog4.cpp:14: note: comp operator=(comp&, const comp&)

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  • Stored procedure for generic MERGE

    - by GilliVilla
    I have a set of 10 tables in a database (DB1). And there are 10 tables in another database (DB2) with exact same schema on the same SQL Server 2008 R2 database server machine. The 10 tables in DB1 are frequently updated with data. I intend to write a stored procedure that would run once every day for synchronizing the 10 tables in DB1 with DB2. The stored procedure would make use of the MERGE statement. Now, my aim is to make this as generic and parametrized as possible. That is, accommodate for more tables down the line... and accommodate different source and target DB names. Definitely no hard coding is intended. This is my algorithm so far: Have the database names as parameters Have the first query within the stored procedure... result in giving the names of the 10 tables from a lookup table (this can be 10, 20 or whatever) Have a generic MERGE statement that does the sync for each of the above set of tables (based on primary key?) This is where I need more inputs on. What is the best way to achieve this stored procedure? SQL syntax would be helpful.

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  • Delete all previous records and insert new ones

    - by carlos
    When updating an employee with id = 1 for example, what is the best way to delete all previous records in the table certificate for this employee_id and insert the new ones?. create table EMPLOYEE ( id INT NOT NULL auto_increment, first_name VARCHAR(20) default NULL, last_name VARCHAR(20) default NULL, salary INT default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); create table CERTIFICATE ( id INT NOT NULL auto_increment, certificate_name VARCHAR(30) default NULL, employee_id INT default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); Hibernate mapping <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD//EN" "http://www.hibernate.org/dtd/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Employee" table="EMPLOYEE"> <id name="id" type="int" column="id"> <generator class="sequence"> <param name="sequence">employee_seq</param> </generator> </id> <set name="certificates" lazy="false" cascade="all"> <key column="employee_id" not-null="true"/> <one-to-many class="Certificate"/> </set> <property name="firstName" column="first_name"/> <property name="lastName" column="last_name"/> <property name="salary" column="salary"/> </class> <class name="Certificate" table="CERTIFICATE"> <id name="id" type="int" column="id"> <param name="sequence">certificate_seq</param> </id> <property name="employee_id" column="employee_id" insert="false" update="false"/> <property name="name" column="certificate_name"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • jQuery Grouping Similar Items w/ Object Literal

    - by NessDan
    So I have this structure setup: <ul> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> (Vid1) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bOF3o8B292U</li> (Vid2) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> (Vid3) <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bOF3o8B292U</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yAY4vNJd7A8</li> <li>http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=dw1Vh9Yzryo</li> </ul> Vid1 is repeated 3 times, Vid2 is repeated 3 times, and Vid3 is repeated 2 times. I want to put them into a structure where I can reference them like this: youtube[0][repeated] = 3; youtube[0][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=dw1Vh9Yzryo&fmt=36" youtube[1][repeated] = 3; youtube[1][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=bOF3o8B292U&fmt=36" youtube[2][repeated] = 3; youtube[2][download] = "http://www.youtube.com/get_video?video_id=yAY4vNJd7A8&fmt=36" "This video was repeated " + youtube[0][repeated] + " times and you can download it here: " + youtube[0][download]; How can I set this multidimensional array up? Been Googling for hours and I don't know how to set it up. Can anyone help me out?

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  • Java program will read from database, but not write to it

    - by ck1221
    I have a Java program that successfully connects to a mysql database that is hosted on godaddy's server. I can read from that db with out issue, however, when I try to write to it with INSERT or UPDATE for example, the query does not execute. I am using the 'admin' account that I set up through godaddy, I realize this is not the root account. I have checked and verified that the connection is not read only, and have logged out of phpmyadmin while the query ran. I'm not sure what else I can try or if anyone has experienced this issue. Maybe a setting to the connection I have failed to set? Or maybe its not possible since the db is hosted on godaddy's servers? Any help is great! Thanks. Here is some relevant code: Connection to db: Connection con; public DBconnection(String url, String user, String pass) { try { Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); con = DriverManager.getConnection (url,user,pass); if(!con.isClosed()) System.out.println("connecton open"); } catch (InstantiationException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (IllegalAccessException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (ClassNotFoundException e) {e.printStackTrace();} catch (SQLException e) {e.printStackTrace();} } Send Query: public ResultSet executeQuery(String query) { ResultSet rs = null; try { Statement stmt = (Statement) con.createStatement(); rs = stmt.executeQuery(query); //while(rs.next()) //System.out.println(rs.getString("ticket_num")); } catch (SQLException e) {} return rs; } Insert Query (works in phpmyadmin): conn.executeQuery("INSERT INTO tickets VALUES(55555,'12/01/2012','me','reports','test','','','0','Nope')");

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  • Return REF CURSOR to procedure generated data

    - by ThaDon
    I need to write a sproc which performs some INSERTs on a table, and compile a list of "statuses" for each row based on how well the INSERT went. Each row will be inserted within a loop, the loop iterates over a cursor that supplies some values for the INSERT statement. What I need to return is a resultset which looks like this: FIELDS_FROM_ROW_BEING_INSERTED.., STATUS VARCHAR2 The STATUS is determined by how the INSERT went. For instance, if the INSERT caused a DUP_VAL_ON_INDEX exception indicating there was a duplicate row, I'd set the STATUS to "Dupe". If all went well, I'd set it to "SUCCESS" and proceed to the next row. By the end of it all, I'd have a resultset of N rows, where N is the number of insert statements performed and each row contains some identifying info for the row being inserted, along with the "STATUS" of the insertion Since there is no table in my DB to store the values I'd like to pass back to the user, I'm wondering how I can return the info back? Temporary table? Seems in Oracle temporary tables are "global", not sure I would want a global table, are there any temporary tables that get dropped after a session is done?

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  • Android Bluetooth syncing

    - by Darryl
    I am connecting to a bluetooth enabled camera, and I am able to connect using the methods found in the BluetoothChat example. I need to send commands to the camera. The issue is that I also need to get a response BACK from the camera after I send the command in the first place. So basically I need to write a command and receive a response. However, the thing is that the commands sometimes don't generate a response. Even the documentation on the camera says that you "have to send the sync command as many as 25 times on power up before you will get a response." So I cannot just write a command and wait for a response, as the "read" function blocks the thread. If I have the read function in another thread, like the bluetooth chat example, there seems to be sync issues, i.e., if I issue a write command, how can I know that it is reading if that is happening in another thread? I did set a global variable to check for, but this seems "iffy" at best. So basically I need to write to the bluetooth and then attempt to read from it. However, I need to let that read timeout and if I haven't received a response, I need to write again until I get a response (or until it's tried a set number of times). I don't need the read function to be going all the time in the background. Any ideas? Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • How to obtain value of auto_increment field in Access linked to MySQL?

    - by Cruachan
    I'm trying to modify and existing Access application to use MySQL as a database via ODBC with the minimal amount of recoding. The current code will often insert a new record using DAO then obtain the ID by using LastModified. This doesn't work with MySQL. Instead I'm trying to use the approach using SELECT * FROM tbl_name WHERE auto_col IS NULL Suggested for Access in the MySQL documentation. However if I set up a sample table consisting of just an id and text data field and execute this CurrentDb.Execute ("INSERT INTO tbl_scratch (DATA) VALUES ('X')") Set rst = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("SELECT id FROM tbl_scratch WHERE id IS NULL") myid = rst!id Id is returned as null. However if I execute INSERT INTO tbl_scratch (DATA) VALUES ('X'); SELECT id FROM tbl_scratch WHERE id IS NULL; using a direct MySQL editor then id is returned correctly, so my database and approach is fine but my implementation inside Access must be incorrect. Frustratingly the MySQL documentation gives the SQL statement to retrieve the id as an example that works in Access (as it states LAST_INSERT_ID() doesn't) but gives no further details. How might I fix this?

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  • What happens when ToArray() is called on IEnumerable ?

    - by Sir Psycho
    I'm having trouble understanding what happens when a ToArray() is called on an IEnumerable. I've always assumed that only the references are copied. I would expect the output here to be: true true But instead I get true false What is going on here? class One { public bool Foo { get; set; } } class Two { public bool Foo { get; set; } } void Main() { var collection1 = new[] { new One(), new One() }; IEnumerable<Two> stuff = Convert(collection1); var firstOne = stuff.First(); firstOne.Foo = true; Console.WriteLine (firstOne.Foo); var array = stuff.ToArray(); Console.WriteLine (array[0].Foo); } IEnumerable<Two> Convert(IEnumerable<One> col1) { return from c in col1 select new Two() { Foo = c.Foo }; }

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  • Use variables to decide which object in an array gets an attribute?

    - by DavidR
    I have a web app which has two text areas. When one text area receives a mousedown event, a variable "side" is set, either "left" or "right." When a user selects some text in a text area, three strings are made. One for the text before the beginning of the selection, the selection itself, and the text after the selection to the end. A function is set to return these like this: return { head: head_text, tail: tail_text, sel: sel_text, side: text_side } Now, I have created an array, and I want it to appear in such a way that we get, text.left({"head":"four score", "selection":"and seven", "tail":"years ago."}) I am assuming I would do this by text.side = getSelection(), but how do I get it to evaluate the variable "side" instead of thinking of it as an object within "text"? EDIT: Ok, just to clarify, I might be completely wrong in my ideas in how this works, but here it goes. I want to make it so that a function can look at "text" see within text two objects, "left" and "right," and then evaluate the head, sel, and tail of each object. Would it be easier for me to use two objects?

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  • Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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  • C -- Basic Struct questions

    - by Ryan Yu
    So I'm trying to learn C right now, and I have some basic struct questions I'd like to clear up: Basically, everything centers around this snippet of code: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #define MAX_NAME_LEN 127 typedef struct { char name[MAX_NAME_LEN + 1]; unsigned long sid; } Student; /* return the name of student s */ const char* getName (const Student* s) { // the parameter 's' is a pointer to a Student struct return s->name; // returns the 'name' member of a Student struct } /* set the name of student s If name is too long, cut off characters after the maximum number of characters allowed. */ void setName(Student* s, const char* name) { // 's' is a pointer to a Student struct | 'name' is a pointer to the first element of a char array (repres. a string) s->name = name; } /* return the SID of student s */ unsigned long getStudentID(const Student* s) { // 's' is a pointer to a Student struct return s->sid; } /* set the SID of student s */ void setStudentID(Student* s, unsigned long sid) { // 's' is a pointer to a Student struct | 'sid' is a 'long' representing the desired SID s->sid = sid; } I've commented up the code in an attempt to solidify my understanding of pointers; I hope they're all accurate. So anyway, I have a feeling that setName and setStudentID aren't correct, but I'm not exactly sure why. Can someone explain? Thanks!

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  • firefox does not load large size images

    - by Pradeep
    I am stuck with a kind of bug in FF, wherein it’s unable to load images of big size (I have 8 MB size of image) from the server. The loading of image is all fine on IE. I am still looking out for ways to get rid of this problem. I changed server(IIS) settings to allow bigger file sizes. Also, I used “load” event on image using JQuery and tried all sort of options listed here http://api.jquery.com/load-event/, but nothing worked so far. If anyone of you has come across any such similar problem, and a way to resolve it, it would be nice to hear from you Please note: high resolution images are part of the requirement. Code : <style> img { background-color: #FFFFFF; background-image: url(http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/loader.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: center center; } </style> <script src="../plugin/jquery-ui-1.8.7.custom/js/jquery-1.4.4.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function($){ ///var _url = "http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/floorPlan.jpg"; // set up the node / element _im =$("#main"); //_im.bind("load",function(){ $(this).fadeIn(); }); // set the src attribute now, after insertion to the DOM //_im.attr('src',_url); $("#main").one("load",function(){ alert('loaded'); }) .each(function(){ if(this.complete){ $(this).trigger("load"); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="target"><img id='main' src="http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/floorPlan.jpg"> </img></div> </body> </html>

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  • segmentation fault while using format string to scan input

    - by Aman Deep Gautam
    consider the code and its result: while ((row = mysql_fetch_row (table_info)) != NULL) { answer='\0'; printf ( "%s: ", row[0] ); scanf ( "%c", &answer ); getchar(); if ( answer == 'y') { printf ( "*****\n" ); table_name[index] = malloc ( strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); printf ( "*****\n" ); memcpy ( &table_name[index], &row[0], strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); } printf ( "finally inserted: %s \n", table_name[index]); } The result on execution: 1_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 1_time_access 2_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 2_time_access 39_time_access: y ***** ***** finally inserted: 39_time_access Explanation of result: row[0] has value 1_time_access, 2_time_access, 39_time_access. Now Consider a better way of doing it which is using a format string to escape the \n. I run the following code but it gives segentation fault, I cannot understand why. Code: while ((row = mysql_fetch_row (table_info)) != NULL) { answer='\0'; printf ( "%s: ", row[0] ); scanf ( "%[^\n]%*c", &answer ); if ( answer == 'y') { printf ( "*****\n" ); fflush(stdout); table_name[index] = malloc ( strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); printf ( "*****\n" ); fflush(stdout); memcpy ( &table_name[index], &row[0], strlen(row[0]) + 1 ); } printf ( "finally inserted: %s \n", table_name[index]); fflush(stdout); } Result: 1_time_access: y ***** ./set-env.sh: line 17: 15263 Segmentation fault (core dumped) ./exec dataset_one (do not worry about set-env.sh, it is the script running th program.) I canot understand why this is happening.

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  • JPA - Can an @JoinColumn be an @Id as well? SerializationException occurs.

    - by Shivago
    Hi everyone, I am trying to use an @JoinColumn as an @Id using JPA and I am getting SerializationExceptions, "Could not serialize." UserRole.java: @Entity @Table(name = "authorities") public class UserRole implements Serializable { @Column(name = "authority") private String role; @Id @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "username") private User owner; ... } User.java: @Entity @Table(name = "users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; @Column(name = "username") protected String email; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) protected Set<UserRole> roles = new HashSet<UserRole>(); .... } "username" is set up as a unique index in my Users table but not as the primary key. Is there any way to make "username" act as the ID for UserRole? I don't want to introduce a numeric key in UserRole. Have I totally lost the plot here? I am using MySQL and Hibernate under the hood.

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  • In need of a Smarter Environmental Package Configuration

    - by Jeremy Liberman
    I am trying to set up a package template in SSIS, following the Wrox Programmer to Programmer book, SQL Server 2008 Integration Services: Problem - Design - Solution. I'm really liking this book even though it is 2008 and we're using SQL Server 2005. I've got a working package template that uses an Indirect XML package configuration to identify what environment (local developer, dev, QA, production, etc) the package is being run in. That locates the SQL Server package configuration for the environment. That set-up is great and all except for the environment variable at the very front of it all. My team would prefer it if the package could use the same environment resource locator as all our other applications and tools use, so we don't two environment markers with essentially the same information in them. Normally we look up a registry key in HKey_Local_Machine but the Registry Package Configuration type only lets you look up the HKey_Current_User registries. My first thought was to write a new Package Configuration Type class that extends the Registry type; after all we'd had such luck writing our own custom log provider. SSIS is super extendable, right? So there doesn't seem to be a way to write your own Package Configuration Types. Is there still some way I can configure my SSIS SQL Server package configuration from a HKLM registry key connection string? If this is not possible, what other workarounds are available? My idea is to write a PowerShell script that will create/modify the Environment Variable that the package will use by fetching the connection string from the registry. This way there's still two markers, but at least then it's automatically maintained and automated. Is this kind of workaround necessary? Thank you for your time.

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  • Xcode Unit Testing - Accessing Resources from the application's bundle?

    - by Ben Scheirman
    I'm running into an issue and I wanted to confirm that I'm doing things the correct way. I can test simple things with my SenTestingKit tests, and that works okay. I've set up a Unit Test Bundle and set it as a dependency on the main application target. It successfully runs all tests whenever I press cmd+B. Here's where I'm running into issues. I have some XML files that I need to load from the resources folder as part of the application. Being a good unit tester, I want to write unit tests around this to make sure that they are loading properly. So I have some code that looks like this: NSString *filePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"foo" ofType:@"xml"]; This works when the application runs, but during a unit test, mainBundle points to the wrong bundle, so this line of code returns nil. So I changed it up to utilize a known class like this: NSString *filePath = [[NSBundle bundleForClass:[Config class]] pathForResource:@"foo" ofType:@"xml"]; This doesn't work either, because in order for the test to even compile code like this, it Config needs to be part of the Unit Test Target. If I add that, then the bundle for that class becomes the Unit Test bundle. (Ugh!) Am I approaching this the wrong way?

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  • breaking datetime into constituent parts ASP.NET MVC form

    - by nick
    hi guys, i have searched the web relentlessly for this and have not found anything - which is surprising because i would think it is such a common scenario! Basically, on my model i have a DateTime field which i wish the user to populate through a form. I am using the Html helper to render all other parts of the form (along with validation) So this question is in two parts... Html Helper Firstly, is there any way to use the Html helper to split the DateTime field to be rendered as the three constituent parts of a date: day, month, year (since i do not care about the time part). This could be rendered as text boxes, drop down lists or a combination of both. Model Binding And then when the form is posted, what is the best approach for binding back up to the model? I have seen Scott Hanselmann's solution to this, but it seems a little bloated for what i need - i was hoping for a slightly more elegant solution. Is it recommended to extend DefaultModelBinder and set that as default binder (since all dates would be handled in this way) or write a class that implements IModelBionder and set it as the default binder for the DateTime type? Thanks for all the help in advance :-) i'm loving MVC but it's infuriating me that something so trivial is causing so much headaches!

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  • PHP Mailer Class - Securing Email Credentials

    - by Alan A
    I am using the php mailer class to send email via my scripts. The structure is as follows: $mail = new PHPMailer; $mail->IsSMTP(); // Set mailer to use SMTP $mail->Host = 'myserver.com'; // Specify main and backup server $mail->SMTPAuth = true; // Enable SMTP authentication $mail->Username = '[email protected]'; // SMTP username $mail->Password = 'user123'; // SMTP password $mail->SMTPSecure = 'pass123'; It seems to me to be a bit of a security hole having the mailbox credentials in plain view. So I thought I might put these in an external file outside of the web root. My question is how would I then assign the $mail object these values. I of course no how to use include and/or requires... would it simple be a case of.... $mail->IsSMTP(); // Set mailer to use SMTP $mail->Host = 'myserver.com'; // Specify main and backup server $mail->SMTPAuth = true; // Enable SMTP authentication includes '../locationOutsideWebroot/emailCredntials.php'; $mail->SMTPSecure = 'pass123'; Then emailCredentails.php: <?php $mail->Username = '[email protected]'; $mail->Password = 'user123'; ?> Would this be sufficient and secure enough? Thanks, Alan.

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