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  • How do I debug into an ILMerged assembly?

    - by Rory Becker
    Summary I want to alter the build process of a 2-assembly solution, such that a call to ILMerge is invoked, and the build results in a single assembly. Further I would like to be able to debug into the resultant assembly. Preparation - A simple example New Solution - ClassLibrary1 Create a static function 'GetMessage' in Class1 which returns the string "Hello world" Create new console app which references the ClassLibrary. Output GetMessage from main() via the console. You now have a 2 assembly app which outputs "Hello World" to the console. So what next..? I would like to alter the Console app build process, to include a post build step which uses ILMerge, to merge the ClassLibrary assembly into the Console assembly After this step I should be able to: Run the Console app directly with no ClassLibrary1.dll present Run the Console app via F5 (or F11) in VS and be able to debug into each of the 2 projects. Limited Success I read this blogpost and managed to achieve the merge I was after with a post-build command of... "$(ProjectDir)ILMerge.bat" "$(TargetDir)" $(ProjectName) ...and an ILMerge.bat file which read... CD %1 Copy %2.exe temp.exe ILMerge.exe /out:%2.exe temp.exe ClassLibrary1.dll Del temp.exe Del ClassLibrary1.* This works fairly well, and does in fact produce an exe which runs outside the VS environment as required. However it does not appear to produce symbols (.pdb file) which VS is able to use in order to debug into the code. I think this is the last piece of the puzzle. Does anyone know how I can make this work? FWIW I am running VS2010 on an x64 Win7 x64 machine.

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  • cant calculate width of elements

    - by Kein
    I try to get width of dom objects: function resizeArea(){ var width = 0; area.children().each(function(i){ alert(this.offsetWidth); width += this.offsetWidth; }); area.css('width', width); } In get results: Chrome: 800 Opera: 708 FF: 783 IE: 714 But if see it in firebug, dragonfly and other debuggers i see correct 908px. I don't know where porblem. I run this fun after domloaded. Here is HTML and css of block: <div class="scroll_area" id="scroll"> <div class="area" id="area"> <div class="category"> [..] </div> </div> </div> <style> #scroll { position:realtive; width: 800px, heght: 400px; } #area { position:absolute; left: 0; top: 0; } #area .category, #area .category .text, #area .category .image{ width: 200px } </style> And that interesting. This function later work correctly, only at first run, for first calculating.

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  • mysql query using global variables

    - by Carlos
    I am trying run a query to active the users account. I am not sure if I am having problem with the query itself or if there's something else that I dont know about. here is the code: if($_SESSION['lastid']&&$_SESSION['random']) { $check= mysql_query('SELECT * FROM members WHERE id= "$_SESSION[lastid]" AND random = " $_SESSION[random]"'); $checknum = mysql_num_rows($check); //$checknum = mysql_query($check) or die("Error: ". mysql_error(). " with query ". $check); if($checknum != 0) // run query to activate the account { $acti= mysql_query('UPDATE members SET activation = "1" WHERE id= "$_SESSION[lastid]"'); die('Your account has been activated. You may now log in!'); }else{ echo('Invalid id or activation code.') . ' lastid: ' .$_SESSION['lastid'] . ' random: ' .$_SESSION['random'] ; // die ('Invalid id or activation code.'); } }else{ die('Could not either find id or random number!'); } this is the warning I am getting from mysql: Warning: mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /hermes/bosweb26b/b2501/servername/folder/file.php on line 30 but when I echo the variables out, I get the same values that are stored in the database.... Invalid id or activation code. lastid: 2 and random: 36308075 could someone please give me a hint? thank you.

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  • Java Servlet: getInitParameter not work in Service()

    - by Gabriele
    I've added some parameters in my web.xml config file, as follow: <context-param> <param-name>service1</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>service2</param-name> <param-value>http://www.example.com/example2.html</param-value> </context-param> ... I try to get the parameter in my servlet, in particular in my service method: protected void service(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { System.out.println(this.getServletContext().getInitParameter("service1")); ... but at runtime I have a NullPointerException... How can I get the parameter value included in web.xml? This is the stacktrace: GRAVE: Servlet.service() for servlet DispatcherServlet threw exception java.lang.NullPointerException at javax.servlet.GenericServlet.getServletContext(GenericServlet.java:160) at it.servlethope.DispatcherServlet.service(DispatcherServlet.java:66) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:290) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.handleRewrite(RuleChain.java:176) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.RuleChain.doRules(RuleChain.java:145) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriter.processRequest(UrlRewriter.java:92) at org.tuckey.web.filters.urlrewrite.UrlRewriteFilter.doFilter(UrlRewriteFilter.java:381) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:127) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:298) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:852) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:588) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:489) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) DispatcherServlet.java:66 is the line where I try the getInitParameter()

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  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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  • jquery change event not working with IE6

    - by manivineet
    It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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  • How should a process running outside Internet Explorer talk to JavaScript running inside it?

    - by Paul Crowley
    This may well be impossible; either way I'm sure people here will know. I'm trying to reduce three "OK" prompts to two. As part of my application, users will download and run an executable I supply; call it privileged.exe. privileged.exe will have a coda that asks for the highest privileges available. That's two OK prompts, one to run privileged.exe and one for UAC. I'd like privileged.exe to then install an ActiveX control, browser plugin or some such. The purpose of this ActiveX control is to allow the JavaScript running inside the browser to talk to the running privileged.exe process, to allow the user to perform certain operations that require high privileges by making choices in the browser. And I'd ideally like this to happen without the user having to restart their browser or explicitly OK the installation of the ActiveX control. Is that possible? Can you install an ActiveX control from outside the browser in such a way that it becomes immediately available to pages running inside the browser? Or should I give up, and allow the user to be explicitly prompted to install the ActiveX control?

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  • JQuery - Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected

    - by ydobonmai
    Below is the content of my .aspx page and the "jquery-ui-1.7.1.custom.min.js" is in the same location as the .aspx file. When I run the website with debugging, I get the below error. I know I am terribly missing something here. Any clue? Error :- Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected When I run without debugging, I get the following javascript error:- Line: 10 Error: 'jQuery' is undefined ASPX page content:- <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default3.aspx.cs" Inherits="Default3" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script src="jquery-ui-1.7.1.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <script>$(function () { alert('hello') });</script> </div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Why is this JLabel continuously repainting?

    - by Morinar
    I've got an item that appears to continuously repaint when it exists, causing the CPU to spike whenever it is in any of my windows. It directly inherits from a JLabel, and unlike the other JLabels on the screen, it has a red background and a border. I have NO idea why it would be different enough to continuously repaint. The callstack looks like this: Thread [AWT-EventQueue-1] (Suspended (breakpoint at line 260 in sItem)) sItem.paint(Graphics) line: 260 sItem(JComponent).paintToOffscreen(Graphics, int, int, int, int, int, int) line: 5124 RepaintManager$PaintManager.paintDoubleBuffered(JComponent, Image, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1475 RepaintManager$PaintManager.paint(JComponent, JComponent, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1406 RepaintManager.paint(JComponent, JComponent, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1220 sItem(JComponent)._paintImmediately(int, int, int, int) line: 5072 sItem(JComponent).paintImmediately(int, int, int, int) line: 4882 RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions(Map<Component,Rectangle>) line: 803 RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions() line: 714 RepaintManager.seqPaintDirtyRegions() line: 694 [local variables unavailable] SystemEventQueueUtilities$ComponentWorkRequest.run() line: 128 InvocationEvent.dispatch() line: 209 summitEventQueue(EventQueue).dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 597 summitEventQueue(SummitHackableEventQueue).dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 26 summitEventQueue.dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 62 EventDispatchThread.pumpOneEventForFilters(int) line: 269 EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForFilter(int, Conditional, EventFilter) line: 184 EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForHierarchy(int, Conditional, Component) line: 174 EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(int, Conditional) line: 169 EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(Conditional) line: 161 EventDispatchThread.run() line: 122 [local variables unavailable] It basically just continually hits that over and over again as fast as I can press continue. The code that is "unique" to this particular label looks approximately like this: bgColor = OurColors.clrWindowTextAlert; textColor = Color.white; setBackground(bgColor); setOpaque(true); setSize(150, getHeight()); Border border_warning = BorderFactory.createCompoundBorder( BorderFactory.createMatteBorder(1, 1, 1, 1, OurColors.clrXBoxBorder), Global.border_left_margin); setBorder(border_warning); It obviously does more, but that particular block only exists for these labels that are causing the spike/continuous repaint. Any ideas why it would keep repainting this particular label?

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  • Qt4Dotnet on Mac OS X

    - by Tony
    Hello everyone. I'm using Qt4Dotnet project in order to port application originally written in C# on Linux and Mac. Port to Linux hasn't taken much efforts and works fine. But Mac (10.4 Tiger) is a bit more stubborn. The problem is: when I try to start my application it throws an exception. Exception states that com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer is unable to find all necessary ibraries. QtJambi library initializer uses java.library.path VM environment variable. This variable includes current working directory. I put all necessary libraries in a working directory. When I try to run the application from MonoDevelop IDE, initializer is able to load one library, but the other libraries are 'missing': An exception was thrown by the type initializer for com.trolltech.qt.QtJambi_LibraryInitializer --- java.lang.RuntimeException: Loading library failed, progress so far: No 'qtjambi-deployment.xml' found in classpath, loading libraries via 'java.library.path' Loading library: 'libQtCore.4.dylib'... - using 'java.library.path' - ok, path was: /Users/chin/test/bin/Debug/libQtCore.4.dylib Loading library: 'libqtjambi.jnilib'... - using 'java.library.path' Both libQtCore.4.dylib and libqtjambi.jnilib are in the same directory. When I try to run it from the command prompt, the initializer is unable to load even libQtCore.4.dylib. I'm using Qt4Dotnet v4.5.0 (currently the latest) with QtJambi v4.5.2 libraries. This might be the source of the problem, but I'm neither able to compile Qt4Dotnet v4.5.2 by myself nor to find QtJambi v4.5.0 libraries. Project's page states that some sort of patch should be applied to QtJambi's source code in order to be compatible with Mono framework, but this patch hasn't been released yet. Without this patch application crashes in a strange manner (other than library seek fault). I must note that original QtJambi loads all necessary libraries perfectly, so it might be issues of IKVM compiler used to translate QtJambi into .Net library. Any suggestions how can I overcome this problem?

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  • Execute a function to affect different template class instances

    - by Samer Afach
    I have a complicated problem, and I need help. I have a base case, class ParamBase { string paramValue; //... } and a bunch of class templates with different template parameters. template <typename T> class Param : public ParamBase { T value; //... } Now, each instance of Param has different template parameter, double, int, string... etc. To make it easier, I have a vector to their base class pointers that contains all the instances that have been created: vector<ParamBase*> allParamsObjects; The question is: How can I run a single function (global or member or anything, your choice), that converts all of those different instances' strings paramValue with different templates arguments and save the conversion result to the appropriate type in Param::value. This has to be run over all objects that are saved in the vector allParamsObjects. So if the template argument of the first Param is double, paramValue has to be converted to double and saved in value; and if the second Param's argument is int, then the paramValue of the second has to be converted to int and saved in value... etc. I feel it's almost impossible... Any help would be highly appreciated :-)

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  • Exception error in Erlang

    - by Jim
    So I've been using Erlang for the last eight hours, and I've spent two of those banging my head against the keyboard trying to figure out the exception error my console keeps returning. I'm writing a dice program to learn erlang. I want it to be able to call from the console through the erlang interpreter. The program accepts a number of dice, and is supposed to generate a list of values. Each value is supposed to be between one and six. I won't bore you with the dozens of individual micro-changes I made to try and fix the problem (random engineering) but I'll post my code and the error. The Source: -module(dice2). -export([d6/1]). d6(1) - random:uniform(6); d6(Numdice) - Result = [], d6(Numdice, [Result]). d6(0, [Finalresult]) - {ok, [Finalresult]}; d6(Numdice, [Result]) - d6(Numdice - 1, [random:uniform(6) | Result]). When I run the program from my console like so... dice2:d6(1). ...I get a random number between one and six like expected. However when I run the same function with any number higher than one as an argument I get the following exception... **exception error: no function clause matching dice2:d6(1, [4|3]) ... I know I I don't have a function with matching arguments but I don't know how to write a function with variable arguments, and a variable number of arguments. I tried modifying the function in question like so.... d6(Numdice, [Result]) - Newresult = [random:uniform(6) | Result], d6(Numdice - 1, Newresult). ... but I got essentially the same error. Anyone know what is going on here?

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  • How do you slow down the output from a DOS / windows command prompt

    - by JW
    I have lots of experience of writing php scripts that are run in the context of a webserver and almost no epxerience of writing php scripts for CLI or GUI output. I have used the command line for linux but do not have much expereince with DOS. Lets say I have php script that is: <?php echo('Hello world'); for ($idx = 0 ; $idx < 100 ; $idx++ ) { echo 'I am line '. $idx . PHP_EOL; } Then, I run it in my DOS Command prompt: # php helloworld.php Now this will spurt out the output quckly and i have to scroll the DOS command window up to see the output. I want to see the output one 'screen full' at a time. How do you do that from the perspective of a DOS user? Furthermore, although this is not my main main question, I would be also interested in knowing how to make the php script 'wait for input' from the command prompt.

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  • Multiple Inheritence with same Base Classes in Python

    - by Jordan Reiter
    I'm trying to wrap my head around multiple inheritance in python. Suppose I have the following base class: class Structure(object): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a structure!" self.components = args And let's say I have two classes that inherit from it: class House(Structure): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a house!" super(House, self).build(*args) class School(Structure): def build(self, type="Elementary", *args): print "I am building a school!" super(School, self).build(*args) Finally, a create a class that uses multiple inheritance: class SchoolHouse(School, House): def build(self, *args): print "I am building a schoolhouse!" super(School, self).build(*args) Then, I create a SchoolHouse object and run build on it: >>> sh = SchoolHouse() >>> sh.build("roof", "walls") I am building a schoolhouse! I am building a house! I am building a structure! So I'm wondering -- what happened to the School class? Is there any way to get Python to run both somehow? I'm wondering specifically because there are a fair number of Django packages out there that provide custom Managers for models. But there doesn't appear to be a way to combine them without writing one or the other of the Managers as inheriting from the other one. It'd be nice to just import both and use both somehow, but looks like it can't be done? Also I guess it'd just help to be pointed to a good primer on multiple inheritance in Python. I have done some work with Mixins before and really enjoy using them. I guess I just wonder if there is any elegant way to combine functionality from two different classes when they inherit from the same base class.

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  • Serializing and deserializing a map with key as string

    - by Grace K
    Hi! I am intending to serialize and deserialize a hashmap whose key is a string. From Josh Bloch's Effective Java, I understand the following. P.222 "For example, consider the case of a harsh table. The physical representation is a sequence of hash buckets containing key-value entries. Which bucket an entry is placed in is a function of the hash code of the key, which is not, in general guaranteed to be the same from JVM implementation to JVM implementation. In fact, it isn't even guranteed to be the same from run to run on the same JVM implementation. Therefore accepting the default serialized form for a hash table would constitute a serious bug. Serializing and deserializing the hash table could yield an object whose invariants were seriously corrupt." My questions are: 1) In general, would overriding the equals and hashcode of the key class of the map resolve this issue and the map can be correctly restored? 2) If my key is a String and the String class is already overriding the hashCode() method, would I still have problem described above. (I am seeing a bug which makes me think this is probably still a problem even though the key is String with overriding hashCode.) 3)Previously, I get around this issue by serializing an array of entries (key, value) and when deserializing I would reconstruct the map. I am wondering if there is a better approach. 4) If the answers to question 1 and 2 are that I still can't be guaranteed. Could someone explain why? If the hashCodes are the same would they go to the same buckets across JVMs? Thanks, Grace

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  • Will Learning C++ Help for Building Fast/No-Additional-Requirements Desktop Applications?

    - by vito
    Will learning C++ help me build native applications with good speed? Will it help me as a programmer, and what are the other benefits? The reason why I want to learn C++ is because I'm disappointed with the UI performances of applications built on top of JVM and .NET. They feel slow, and start slow too. Of course, a really bad programmer can create a slower and sluggish application using C++ too, but I'm not considering that case. One of my favorite Windows utility application is Launchy. And in the Readme.pdf file, the author of the program wrote this: 0.6 This is the first C++ release. As I became frustrated with C#’s large .NET framework requirements and users lack of desire to install it, I decided to switch back to the faster language. I totally agree with the author of Launchy about the .NET framework requirement or even a JRE requirement for desktop applications. Let alone the specific version of them. And some of the best and my favorite desktop applications don't need .NET or Java to run. They just run after installing. Are they mostly built using C++? Is C++ the only option for good and fast GUI based applications? And, I'm also very interested in hearing the other benefits of learning C++.

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  • Web User Control og Event

    - by Mcoroklo
    I have a web user control, CreateQuestion.ascx, in ASP.NET. I want an event "QuestionAdded" to fire when a specific button is clicked. I don't want to send any data, I just want to know WHEN the button is fired. My implementation: CreateQuestion.ascx: public event EventHandler QuestionAdded; protected virtual void OnQuestionAdded(EventArgs e) { if (QuestionAdded != null) QuestionAdded(this, e); } /// This is the button I want to know when is fired protected void SubmitButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //question.Save(); this.OnQuestionAdded(new EventArgs()); } On the page AnswerQuestion.aspx, I use this: private void SetupControls(int myId) { CreateQuestionControl.QuestionAdded += new EventHandler(QuestionAdded); } private void QuestionAdded(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Write("HEJ KARL?"); } My problem No matter what, the event is never fired. I know that both SetupControls() is being run, and the code behind the button which should fire the event is run. When I debug, I can see the event QuestionAdded always are null. How do I make this work? Thanks a lot

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  • Adobe flex dateField

    - by JonoB
    I have some code as follows: private function onComboChange(evt:Event):void { var temp:Date = df_date.selectedDate; temp.date += 5; df_dateDue.selectedDate = new Date(temp); } In essence, I am trying to add 5 days onto the selected date in df_date, and put that date into df_dateDue. This fires off via an EventListener on a combobox. Both df_date and df_dateDue are dateFields. OK, so the first time that I run this, it works fine; df_date stays the same and df_dateDue is set to 5 days past df_date. However, the next time that I run it, df_dateDue increments by 10 days from df_date, the next time by 15, and so on. So, stepping through the code shows that somehow df_date has become linked to the temp var, and that the temp var is not resetting itself each time the function is called. Example: df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 01 Jan. Fire off the event, df_date = 01 Jan, df_dateDue = 06 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point, var temp = 06 Jan (even though df_date still shows 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 11 Jan Fire off the event again. At this point var temp = 11 Jan (even though df_date = 01 Jan), and df_dateDue is then set to 16 Jan What am I missing here?

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  • Can not access response.body inside after filter block in Sinatra 1.0

    - by Petr Vostrel
    I'm struggling with a strange issue. According to http://github.com/sinatra/sinatra (secion Filters) a response object is available in after filter blocks in Sinatra 1.0. However the response.status is correctly accessible, I can not see non-empty response.body from my routes inside after filter. I have this rackup file: config.ru require 'app' run TestApp Then Sinatra 1.0.b gem installed using: gem install --pre sinatra And this is my tiny app with a single route: app.rb require 'rubygems' require 'sinatra/base' class TestApp < Sinatra::Base set :root, File.dirname(__FILE__) get '/test' do 'Some response' end after do halt 500 if response.empty? # used 500 just for illustation end end And now, I would like to access the response inside the after filter. When I run this app and access /test URL, I got a 500 response as if the response is empty, but the response clearly is 'Some response'. Along with my request to /test, a separate request to /favicon.ico is issued by the browser and that returns 404 as there is no route nor a static file. But I would expect the 500 status to be returned as the response should be empty. In console, I can see that within the after filter, the response to /favicon.ico is something like 'Not found' and response to /test really is empty even though there is response returned by the route. What do I miss?

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • jQuery: bind generated elements

    - by superUntitled
    Hello, thank you for taking time to look at this. I am trying to code my very first jQuery plugin and have run into my first problem. The plugin is called like this <div id="kneel"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#kneel").zod(1, { }); </script> It takes the first option (integer), and returns html content that is dynamically generated by php. The content that is generated needs to be bound by a variety of functions (such as disabling form buttons and click events that return ajax data. The plugin looks like this (I have included the whole plugin in case that matters)... (function( $ ){ $.fn.zod = function(id, options ) { var settings = { 'next_button_text': 'Next', 'submit_button_text': 'Submit' }; return this.each(function() { if ( options ) { $.extend( settings, options ); } // variables var obj = $(this); /* these functions contain html elements that are generated by the get() function below */ // disable some buttons $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', true); // once an option is selected, enable the button $('input[type="radio"]').live('click', function(e) { $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', false); }) // when a button is clicked, return some data $('.button').bind('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $.getJSON('/returnSomeData.php, function(data) { $('.text').html('<p>Hello: ' + data + '</p>'); }); // generate content, this is the content that needs binding... $.get('http://example.com/script.php?id='+id, function(data) { $(obj).html(data); }); }); }; })( jQuery ); The problem I am having is that the functions created to run on generated content are not binding to the generated content. How do I bind the content created by the get() function?

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  • Strange problem with simple multithreading program in Java

    - by Elizabeth
    Hello, I am just starting play with multithreading programming. I would like to my program show alternately character '-' and '+' but it doesn't. My task is to use synchronized keyword. As far I have: class FunnyStringGenerator{ private char c; public FunnyStringGenerator(){ c = '-'; } public synchronized char next(){ if(c == '-'){ c = '+'; } else{ c = '-'; } return c; } } class ThreadToGenerateStr implements Runnable{ FunnyStringGenerator gen; public ThreadToGenerateStr(FunnyStringGenerator fsg){ gen = fsg; } @Override public void run() { for(int i = 0; i < 10; i++){ System.out.print(gen.next()); } } } public class Main{ public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { FunnyStringGenerator FSG = new FunnyStringGenerator(); ExecutorService exec = Executors.newCachedThreadPool(); for(int i = 0; i < 20; i++){ exec.execute(new ThreadToGenerateStr(FSG)); } } } EDIT: I also testing Thread.sleep in run method instead for loop.

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  • JQuery date picker does not firing in ajax page using Rails

    - by prabu
    Hi Here I have using datepicker from JQueryUI in my public/javascript folder as effects,prototype,control,dragdrop js files. in my public folder contains jqueryui development buddle. (css,js,development-bundle) in layout/application.rhtml <%= stylesheet_link_tag 'application' %> <%=javascript_include_tag :defaults%> <%= stylesheet_link_tag '/jquery-ui/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css' %> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"%> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"%> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var $j=jQuery.noConflict(); $j( '#date' ).datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy' }); }); </script> in home/index.rhtml <%title "Home"%> <%=link_to "Add Details" ,:action=>"add"%> <%=link_to_remote "Ajax Add Details", :update=>"add" , :url=>{ :action=>"add" }%> <div id='add' /> in home/add.rhtml <%title "Add details"%> <%form_tag :action=>"create" do%> Name : <%=text_field_tag "name" ,"",:size=>15%> DOB : <%=text_field_tag "dob","",:id=>"date"%> <%=submit_tag "Save"%> <%end%> the datepicker works when I run home/add.rhtml directly but the datepicker not work when i run ajax page home/index.rhtml Any solutions for that,????

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  • I'm trying to grasp the concept of creating a program that uses a SQL Server database, but I'm used

    - by Sergio Tapia
    How can I make a program use a SQL Server database, and have that program work on whatever computer it's installed on. If you've been following my string of questions today, you'd know that I'm making an open source and free Help Desk suite for small and medium businesses. The client application. The client application is a Windows Forms app. On installation and first launch on every client machine, it'll ask for the address of the main Help Desk server. The server. Here I plan to handle all incoming help requests, show them to the IT guys, and provide WCF services for the Client application to consume. My dilemma lies in that, I know how to make the program run on my local machine; but I'm really stumped on how to make this work for everyone who wants to download and install the server bit on their Windows Server. Would I have to make an SQL Script and have it run on the MS SQL server when a user wants to install the 'server' application? Many thanks to all for your valuable time and effort to teach me. It's really really appreciated. :) Edit: To clarify, each business will have their server completely separate from me. I will have no access whatsoever to them nor will they be in any way connected to me. (I don't know why I should clarify this :P ) So, assuming the have ABSOLUTELY NO DATABASE SERVER installed; what can I do?

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  • Best approach for Java/Maven/JPA/Hibernate build with multiple database vendor support?

    - by HDave
    I have an enterprise application that uses a single database, but the application needs to support mysql, oracle, and sql*server as installation options. To try to remain portable we are using JPA annotations with Hibernate as the implementation. We also have a test-bed instance of each database running for development. The app is building nicely in Maven, and I've played around with the hibernate3-maven-plugin and can auto-generate DDL for a given database dialect. What is the best way to approach this so that individual developers can easily test against all three databases and our Hudson based CI server can build things propertly. More specifically: 1) I thought the hbm2ddl goal in the hibernate3-maven-plugin would just generate a schema file, but apparently it connects to a live database and attempts to create the schema. Is there a way to have this just create the schema file for each database dialect without connecting to a database? 2) If the hibernate3-maven-plug insists on actually creating the database schema, is there a way to have it drop the database and recreate it before creating the schema? 3) I am thinking that each developer (and the hudson build machine) should have their own separate database on each database server. Is this typical? 4) Will developers have to run Maven three times...once for each database vendor? If so, how do I merge the results on the build machine? 5) There is a hbm2doc goal within hibernate3-maven-plugin. It seems overkill to run this three times...I gotta believe it'd be nearly identical for each database.

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