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  • Processing a log to fix a malformed IP address ?.?.?.x

    - by skymook
    I would like to replace the first character 'x' with the number '7' on every line of a log file using a shell script. Example of the log file: 216.129.119.x [01/Mar/2010:00:25:20 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 74.131.77.x [01/Mar/2010:00:25:37 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 222.168.17.x [01/Mar/2010:00:27:10 +0100] "GET /etc/.... My humble beginnings... #!/bin/bash echo Starting script... cd /Users/me/logs/ gzip -d /Users/me/logs/access.log.gz echo Files unzipped... echo I'm totally lost here to process the log file and save it back to hd... exit 0 Why is the log file IP malformed like this? My web provider (1and1) has decide not to store IP address, so they have replaced the last number with the character 'x'. They told me it was a new requirement by 'law'. I personally think that is bs, but that would take us off topic. I want to process these log files with AWstats, so I need an IP address that is not malformed. I want to replace the x with a 7, like so: 216.129.119.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:25:20 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 74.131.77.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:25:37 +0100] "GET /etc/.... 222.168.17.7 [01/Mar/2010:00:27:10 +0100] "GET /etc/.... Not perfect I know, but least I can process the files, and I can still gain a lot of useful information like country, number of visitors, etc. The log files are 200MB each, so I thought that a shell script is the way to go because I can do that rapidly on my Macbook Pro locally. Unfortunately, I know very little about shell scripting, and my javascript skills are not going to cut it this time. I appreciate your help.

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  • DWM and painting unresponsive apps

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In Vista and later, if an app becomes unresponsive, the Desktop Window Manager is able to handle redrawing it when necessary (move a window over it, drag it around, etc.) because it has kept a pixel buffer for it. Windows also tries to detect when an app has become unresponsive after some timeout, and tries to make the best of the situation -- I believe it dims out the window, adds "Not Responding" to its title bar, and perhaps some other effects. Now, we have a skinned app that uses window regions and layered windows, and it doesn't play well with these effects. We've been developing on XP, but have noticed a strange effect when testing on Vista. At some points the app may spend a few moments on some calculation or callback, and if it passes the unresponsive threshold (I've read that it's a five second timeout, but I cannot find a link), a strange graphical problem occurs: any pixels that would be 100% transparent due to the window regions turn black, which effectively makes the window rectangular again, with a black background. There seem to be other anomalies, with the original window's pixels being shifted a bit in some child dialogs. I am working on reducing such delays (ideally Windows will never need to step in like this), and trying to maintain responsiveness while it's busy, but I'd still like to figure out what is causing it to render like that, as I can't guarantee I can eliminate all delays. Basically, I just would like to know what Windows is doing when this happens, and how I can make my app behave properly with it. Skinned apps have to still work on Vista and later, so I need to figure out what I'm doing that's non-standard. I don't even know exactly how to look for information into how Windows now handles unresponsive apps, as my searches only return people having issues with apps that are unresponsive, or very rudimentary explanations of what the DWM does with such apps. Heck I'm not even 100% sure it's the DWM responsible, but it seems likely. Any potential leads? Photo of problem; screen shots won't capture the effect (note that the white dialog's buffer is shifted -- it is shifted exactly by the distance it has been offset from the main (blue) window):

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  • Django deployment - can't import app.urls

    - by hora
    I just moved a django project to a deployment server from my dev server, and I'm having some issues deploying it. My apache config is as follows: <Location "/"> Order allow,deny Allow from all SetHandler python-program PythonHandler django.core.handlers.modpython SetEnv DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE project.settings PythonDebug On PythonPath "['/home/django/'] + sys.path" </Location> Django does work, since it renders the Django debug views, but I get the following error: ImportError at / No module named app.urls And here is all the information Django gives me: Request Method: GET Request URL: http://myserver.com/ Django Version: 1.1.1 Python Version: 2.6.5 Installed Applications: ['django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.sites', 'django.contrib.admin', 'django.contrib.admindocs', 'project.app'] Installed Middleware: ('django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware') Traceback: File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py" in get_response 83. request.path_info) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in resolve 218. sub_match = pattern.resolve(new_path) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in resolve 216. for pattern in self.url_patterns: File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in _get_url_patterns 245. patterns = getattr(self.urlconf_module, "urlpatterns", self.urlconf_module) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in _get_urlconf_module 240. self._urlconf_module = import_module(self.urlconf_name) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/utils/importlib.py" in import_module 35. __import__(name) Exception Type: ImportError at / Exception Value: No module named app.urls Any ideas as to why I get an import error?

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  • Persisting Joda DateTime instead of Java Date in hibernate

    - by Tauren
    My entities currently contain java Date properties. I'm starting to use Joda Time for date manipulation and calculations quite frequently. This means that I'm constantly having to convert my Dates into Joda DateTime objects and back again. So I was wondering, is there any reason I shouldn't just change my entities to store Joda DateTime objects instead of Java Date objects? Please note that these entities are persisted via Hibernate. I found the jodatime-hibernate project, but I also was reading on the Joda mailing list that it wasn't compatible with newer versions of hibernate. And it seems like it isn't very well maintained. So I'm wondering if it would be best to just continue converting between Date and DateTime, or if it would be wise to start persisting DateTime objects. My concern is being reliant on a poorly maintained library. Edit: Note that one of my objectives is to be better able to store timezone information. Storing just a Date appears to save the date in the local timezone. As my application can be used globally, I need to know the timezone as well. Joda Time Hibernate seems to address this as well in the user guide.

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  • Accessing deleted rows from a DataTable

    - by Ken
    Hello: I have a parent WinForm that has a MyDataTable _dt as a member. The MyDataTable type was created in the "typed dataset" designer tool in Visual Studio 2005 (MyDataTable inherits from DataTable) _dt gets populated from a db via ADO.NET. Based on changes from user interaction in the form, I delete a row from the table like so: _dt.FindBySomeKey(_someKey).Delete(); Later on, _dt is passed by value to a dialog form. From there, I need to scan through all the rows to build a string: foreach (myDataTableRow row in _dt) { sbFilter.Append("'" + row.info + "',"); } The problem is that upon doing this after a delete, the following exception is thrown: DeletedRowInaccessibleException: Deleted row information cannot be accessed through the row. The work around that I am currently using (which feels like a hack) is the following: foreach (myDataTableRow row in _dt) { if (row.RowState != DataRowState.Deleted && row.RowState != DataRowState.Detached) { sbFilter.Append("'" + row.info + "',"); } } My question: Is this the proper way to do this? Why would the foreach loop access rows that have been tagged via the Delete() method??

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  • How do I get uri of HTTP packet with winpcap?

    - by Gtker
    Based on this article I can get all incoming packets. /* Callback function invoked by libpcap for every incoming packet */ void packet_handler(u_char *param, const struct pcap_pkthdr *header, const u_char *pkt_data) { struct tm *ltime; char timestr[16]; ip_header *ih; udp_header *uh; u_int ip_len; u_short sport,dport; time_t local_tv_sec; /* convert the timestamp to readable format */ local_tv_sec = header->ts.tv_sec; ltime=localtime(&local_tv_sec); strftime( timestr, sizeof timestr, "%H:%M:%S", ltime); /* print timestamp and length of the packet */ printf("%s.%.6d len:%d ", timestr, header->ts.tv_usec, header->len); /* retireve the position of the ip header */ ih = (ip_header *) (pkt_data + 14); //length of ethernet header /* retireve the position of the udp header */ ip_len = (ih->ver_ihl & 0xf) * 4; uh = (udp_header *) ((u_char*)ih + ip_len); /* convert from network byte order to host byte order */ sport = ntohs( uh->sport ); dport = ntohs( uh->dport ); /* print ip addresses and udp ports */ printf("%d.%d.%d.%d.%d -> %d.%d.%d.%d.%d\n", ih->saddr.byte1, ih->saddr.byte2, ih->saddr.byte3, ih->saddr.byte4, sport, ih->daddr.byte1, ih->daddr.byte2, ih->daddr.byte3, ih->daddr.byte4, dport); } But how do I extract URI information in packet_handler?

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  • Good resources for building web-app in Tapestry

    - by Rich
    Hi, I'm currently researching into Tapestry for my company and trying to decide if I think we can port our pre-existing proprietary web applications to something better. Currently we are running Tomcat and using JSP for our front end backed by our own framework that eventually uses JDBC to connect to an Oracle database. I've gone through the Tapestry tutorial, which was really neat and got me interested, but now I'm faced with what seems to be a common issue of documentation. There are a lot of things I'd need to be sure that I could accomplish with Tapestry before I'd be ready to commit fully to it. Does anyone have any good resources, be it a book or web article or anything else, that go into more detail beyond what the Tapestry tutorial explains? I am also considering integrating with Hibernate, and have read a little bit about Spring too. I'm still having a hard time understanding how Spring would be more useful than cumbersome in tandem with Tapestry,as they seem to have a lot of overlapping features. An example I read seemed to use Spring to interface with Hibernate, and then Tapestry to Spring, but I was under the impression Tapestry integrates to the same degree with Hibernate. The resource I'm speaking of is http://wiki.apache.org/tapestry/Tapstry5First_project_with_Tapestry5,_Spring_and_Hibernate . I was interested because I hadn't found information anywhere else on how to maintain user levels and sessions through a Tapestry application before, but wasn't exactly impressed by the need to use Spring in the example.

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  • Spring - SessionAttribute problem

    - by Max
    Hello, I want to implement something like this: @Controller @SessionAttributes("promotion") class PromotionController { @RequestMapping("showPromo") void showPromotionInfo( @RequestParam("promId") String promotionId, @ModelAttribute Promotion promotion, Errors errors ) { promotion = Promotions.get(promotionId); if (promotion == null || promotion.validates() == false) { errors.reject("promotion.invalid"); } return "prom"; } } The code is invalid, wont work and has some bad errors, but I don't know how to write it better. When user comes to an URL "showPromo?promId=15", controller should validate if the promotion is valid (outdated/non-existent/etc.). If it is valid - it should show it's information and save the promotion to model and session. If it's not - it should show some error about promotion being invalid. Problem is, I need to save the promotion in the session (for several requests) and don't want to use direct session management. Is it currently possible with Spring? Or am I doing something wrong? Could you please provide the optimal solution to my problem using Spring 3? Thanks in advance.

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  • Catching MediaPlayer Exceptions from WPF MediaElement Control

    - by ScottCate
    I'm playing video in a MediaElement in WPF. It's working 1000's of times, over and over again. Once in a blue moon (like once a week), I get a windows exception (you know the dialog Dr. Watson Crash??) that happens. The MediaElment doesn't expose an error, it just crashes and sits there with an ugly Crash report on the screen. If you "view this report" you can see it is in fact MediaPlayer that has crashed. I know I can disable the crash reports from popping up - but I'm more interested in finding out what's going wrong. I'm not sure how to capture the results of the Dr. Watson capture, but I have the dialog open now if someone has advice on a better way to capture. Here is the opening line of data, that points to my application, then to wmvdecod.dll AppName: ScottApp.exe AppVer: 2.2009.2291.805 AppStamp:4a36c812 ModName: wmvdecod.dll ModVer: 11.0.5721.5145 ModStamp:453711a3 fDebug: 0 Offset: 000cbc88 And from the Win Event Log. (same information) Event Type: Error Event Source: .NET Runtime 2.0 Error Reporting Event Category: None Event ID: 1000 Date: 7/13/2009 Time: 10:20:27 AM User: N/A Computer:28022 Description: Faulting application ScottApp.exe, version 2.2009.2291.805, stamp 4a36c812, faulting module wmvdecod.dll, version 11.0.5721.5145, stamp 453711a3, debug? 0, fault address 0x000cbc88.

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  • Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • Automatically resize jQuery UI dialog to the width of the content loaded by ajax

    - by womp
    I'm having a lot of trouble finding specific information and examples on this. I've got a number of jQuery UI dialogs in my application attached to divs that are loaded with .ajax() calls. They all use the same setup call: $(".mydialog").dialog({ autoOpen: false, resizable: false, modal: true }); I just want to have the dialog resize to the width of the content that gets loaded. Right now, the width just stays at 300px (the default) and I get a horizontal scrollbar. As far as I can tell, "autoResize" is no longer an option for dialogs, and nothing happens when I specify it. I'm trying to not write a separate function for each dialog, so .dialog("option", "width", "500") is not really an option, as each dialog is going to have a different width. Specifying width: 'auto' for the dialog options just makes the dialogs take up 100% of the width of the browser window. What are my options? I'm using jQuery 1.4.1 with jQuery UI 1.8rc1. It seems like this should be something that is really easy. EDIT: I've implemented a kludgy workaround for this, but I'm still looking for a better solution.

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  • How to transfer objects through the header in WCF

    - by Michael
    I'm trying to transfer some user information in the header of the message through message inspectors. I have created a behavior which adds the inspector to the service (both client and server). But when I try to communicate with the service I get the following error: XmlException: Name cannot begin with the '<' character, hexadecimal value 0x3C. I have also get exception telling me that DataContracts where unexpected. Type 'System.DelegateSerializationHolder+DelegateEntry' with data contract name 'DelegateSerializationHolder.DelegateEntry:http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System' is not expected. Consider using a DataContractResolver or add any types not known statically to the list of known types - for example, by using the KnownTypeAttribute attribute or by adding them to the list of known types passed to DataContractSerializer. The thing is that my object contains other objects which are marked as DataContract and I'm not interested adding the KnownType attribute for those types. Another problem might be that my object to serialize is very restricted in form of internal class and internal properties etc. Can anyone guide me in the right direction. What I'm I doing wrong? Some code: public virtual object BeforeSendRequest(ref Message request, IClientChannel channel) { var header = MessageHeader.CreateHeader("<name>", "<namespace>", object); request.Headers.Add(header); return Guid.NewGuid(); }

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  • Figuring out the Nyquist performance limitation of an ADC on an example PIC microcontroller

    - by AKE
    I'm spec-ing the suitability of a dsPIC microcontroller for an analog-to-digital application. This would be preferable to using dedicated A/D chips and a separate dedicated DSP chip. To do that, I've had to run through some computations, pulling the relevant parameters from the datasheets. I'm not sure I've got it right -- would appreciate a check! (EDITED NOTE: The PIC10F220 in the example below was selected ONLY to walk through a simple example to check that I'm interpreting Tacq, Fosc, TAD, and divisor correctly in working through this sort of Nyquist analysis. The actual chips I'm considering for the design are the dsPIC33FJ128MC804 (with 16b A/D) or dsPIC30F3014 (with 12b A/D).) A simple example: PIC10F220 is the simplest possible PIC with an ADC Runs at clock speed of 8MHz. Has an instruction cycle of 0.5us (4 clock steps per instruction) So: Taking Tacq = 6.06 us (acquisition time for ADC, assume chip temp. = 50*C) [datasheet p34] Taking Fosc = 8MHz (? clock speed) Taking divisor = 4 (4 clock steps per CPU instruction) This gives TAD = 0.5us (TAD = 1/(Fosc/divisor) ) Conversion time is 13*TAD [datasheet p31] This gives conversion time 6.5us ADC duration is then 12.56 us [? Tacq + 13*TAD] Assuming at least 2 instructions for load/store: This is another 1 us [0.5 us per instruction] Which would give max sampling rate of 73.7 ksps (1/13.56) Supposing 8 more instructions for real-time processing: This is another 4 us Thus, total ADC/handling time = 17.56us (12.56us + 1us + 4us) So expected upper sampling rate is 56.9 ksps. Nyquist frequency for this sampling rate is therefore 28 kHz. If this is right, it suggests the (theoretical) performance suitability of this chip's A/D is for signals that are bandlimited to 28 kHz. Is this a correct interpretation of the information given in the data sheet in obtaining the Nyquist performance limit? Any opinions on the noise susceptibility of ADCs in PIC / dsPIC chips would be much appreciated! AKE

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  • MS-Access: What could cause one form with a join query to load right and another not?

    - by Daniel Straight
    Form1 Form1 is bound to Table1. Table1 has an ID field. Form2 Form2 is bound to Table2 joined to Table1 on Table2.Table1_ID=Table1.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table2.*, Table1.[FirstFieldINeed], Table1.[SecondFieldINeed], Table1.[ThirdFieldINeed] FROM Table1 INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.[Table1_ID]; Form2 is opened with this code in Form1: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form2", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form1", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table1_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form2 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table1 show up correctly. Form3 Form3 is bound to Table3 joined to Table2 on Table3.Table2_ID=Table2.ID Here is the SQL (generated by Access): SELECT Table3.*, Table2.[FirstFieldINeed], Table2.[SecondFieldINeed] FROM Table2 INNER JOIN Table3 ON Table2.ID = Table3.[Table2_ID]; Form3 is opened with this code in Form2: DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord DoCmd.OpenForm "Form3", , , , acFormAdd, , Me.[ID] DoCmd.Close acForm, "Form2", acSaveYes And when loaded runs: Me.[Table2_ID] = Me.OpenArgs When Form3 is loaded, fields bound to columns from Table2 do not show up correctly. WHY? UPDATES I tried making the join query into a separate query and using that as my record source, but it made no difference at all. If I go to the query for Form3 and view it in datasheet view, I can see that the information that should be pulled into the form is there. It just isn't showing up on the form.

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  • .NET load assembly error metabase config

    - by peter
    Hi, Yesterday I found out that the mailroot directory had moved to a different location on the C drive. I don't know how this happened as no configs were changed, using IIS7 with IIS6 SMTP service on Windows 2008 R2 web edition. I wanted to restore it to the default c:\inetpub\mailroot location. So I opened system32/inetsrv/MetaBase.xml, and in the node was the problem, BadMailDirectory, DropDirectory etc were all pointing to the wrong location... I changed them back to the default c:\inetpub\mailroot. Later I discovered an ASP.NET application was throwing this error: An error occurred in the Microsoft .NET Framework while trying to load assembly id 1. The server may be running out of resources, or the assembly may not be trusted with PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS or UNSAFE. Run the query again, or check documentation to see how to solve the assembly trust issues. For more information about this error: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'microsoft.sqlserver.types, Version=10.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89845dcd8080cc91' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I figured it had to do with my changes to the mailroot locations, so I gave ASP.NET access to the mailroot directory and it was working.... My question is, how is this possible? Why does APS.NET require access to the mailroot directory to load assemblies? Thanks

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  • How do I extract a postcode from one column in SSIS using regular expression

    - by Aphillippe
    I'm trying to use a custom regex clean transformation (information found here ) to extract a post code from a mixed address column (Address3) and move it to a new column (Post Code) Example of incoming data: Address3: "London W12 9LZ" Incoming data could be any combination of place names with a post code at the start, middle or end (or not at all). Desired outcome: Address3: "London" Post Code: "W12 9LZ" Essentially, in plain english, "move (not copy) any post code found from address3 into Post Code". My regex skills aren't brilliant but I've managed to get as far as extracting the post code and getting it into its own column using the following regex, matching from Address3 and replacing into Post Code: Match Expression: (?<stringOUT>([A-PR-UWYZa-pr-uwyz]([0-9]{1,2}|([A-HK-Ya-hk-y][0-9]|[A-HK-Ya-hk-y][0-9] ([0-9]|[ABEHMNPRV-Yabehmnprv-y]))|[0-9][A-HJKS-UWa-hjks-uw])\ {0,1}[0-9][ABD-HJLNP-UW-Zabd-hjlnp-uw-z]{2}|([Gg][Ii][Rr]\ 0[Aa][Aa])|([Ss][Aa][Nn]\ {0,1}[Tt][Aa]1)|([Bb][Ff][Pp][Oo]\ {0,1}([Cc]\/[Oo]\ )?[0-9]{1,4})|(([Aa][Ss][Cc][Nn]|[Bb][Bb][Nn][Dd]|[BFSbfs][Ii][Qq][Qq]|[Pp][Cc][Rr][Nn]|[Ss][Tt][Hh][Ll]|[Tt][Dd][Cc][Uu]|[Tt][Kk][Cc][Aa])\ {0,1}1[Zz][Zz]))) Replace Expression: ${stringOUT} So this leaves me with: Address3: "London W12 9LZ" Post Code: "W12 9LZ" My next thought is to keep the above match/replace, then add another to match anything that doesn't match the above regex. I think it might be a negative lookahead but I can't seem to make it work. I'm using SSIS 2008 R2 and I think the regex clean transformation uses .net regex implementation. Thanks.

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  • QueryString malformed after URLDecode

    - by pdavis
    I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

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  • Normalizing (webdav) unicode paths

    - by Evert
    Hi guys, I'm working on a WebDAV implementation for PHP. In order to make it easier for Windows and other operating systems to work together, I need jump through some character encoding hoops. Windows uses ISO-8859-1 in it's HTTP request, while most other clients encode anything beyond ascii as UTF-8. My first approach was to ignore this altogether, but I quickly ran into issues when returning urls. I then figured it's probably best to normalize all urls. Using u¨ as an example. This will get sent over the wire by OS/X as u%CC%88 (this is codepoint U+0308) Windows sents this as: %FC (latin1) But, doing a utf8_encode on %FC, I get : %C3%BC (this is codepoint U+00FC) Should I treat %C3%BC and u%CC%88 as the same thing? If so.. how? Not touching it seems to work OK for windows. It somehow understands that it's a unicode character, but updating the same file throws an error (for no particular reason). I'd be happy to provide more information.

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  • CSS Tables & min-width container?

    - by neezer
    <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header">...</div> <div id="main"> <div id="content">...</div> <div id="sidebar">...</div> </div> </div> #wrapper { min-width: 900px; } #main { display: table-row; } #content { display: table-cell; } #sidebar { display: table-cell; width: 250px; } The problem is that the sidebar isn't always at the right-most part of the page (depending on the width of #content). As #content's width is variable (depending on the width of the window), how to I make it so that the sidebar is always at the right-most part of its parent? Ex. Here's what I have now: <--- variable window width ----> --------------------------------- | (header) | --------------------------------- [content] | [sidebar] | | | | | | | | | | | | | And here's what I want: <--- variable window width ----> --------------------------------- | (header) | --------------------------------- [content] | [sidebar] | | | | | | | | | | | | | Please let me know if you need anymore information to help me with this issue. Thanks! PS - I know I can accomplish this easily with floats. I'm looking for a solution that uses CSS tables.

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  • Core Data + Core Animation/CALayer together??

    - by ivanTheTerrible
    I am making an Cocoa app with custom interfaces. So far I have implemented one version of the app using CALayer doing the rendering, which has been great given the hierarchical structure of CALayers, and its [hitTest:] function for handling mouse events. In this early version, the model of the app are my custom classes. However, as the program grows I feel the urge of using Core Data for the model, not just for the ease of binding/undo management, but also want to try out the new technology. My method so far: In Core Data: creating a Block entity, with attributes xPos, yPos, width, height...etc. Then, creating a BlockView : CALayer class for drawing, which uses methods such as self.position.x = [self valueForKey:@"xPos"] to fetch the values from the model. In this case, every BlockView object has to also keep a local copy of xPos, which is NOT good. Do any of you guys have better suggestions? Edit: This app is a information visualization tool. So the positions, dimensions of the blocks are important, and should be persisted for later analysis.

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  • How do I change an attribute in an HTML table's cell if I know the row and column index of the cell?

    - by Mark
    I know nothing about jQuery but am an experienced C++ programmer (not sure if that helps or hurts). I found jQuery code that gives me the row and column index of a cell in an HTML table when a user clicks on that cell. Using such row-column index numbers, I need to change an attribute's value in the previously selected cell and in the cell just clicked. The index numbers are produced and saved with this code: var $trCurrent = 0; // Index of cell selected when page opens var $tdCurrent = 0; // i.e., previously selected cell $(document).ready(function () { $("td").click(function () { // How toclear previously selected cell's attribute here? ('class', 'recent') var oTr = $(this).parents("tr"); $tdCurrent = oTr.children("td").index(this); }); $("tr").click(function () { $trCurrent = $(this)[0].rowIndex; // How to set new attributes here? ('class', 'current'); // and continue work using information from currently selected cell }); }); Any help or hints would be appreciated. I do not even know if this is the way I should get the index of the row and column. Thanks.

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  • Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

    - by pspahn
    Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

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  • Fork or copy a users browser session in IE

    - by jmoeller
    Is it possible to fork a users session (or do something similar) in a Internet Explorer plugin? I want to process the page the user is on when they click a button in the toolbar. To avoid interrupting the users browsing, I'd like to "copy" everything so I can parse and process the page in the background. The processing can involve things such as loading the content of the result links on a Google search, if that's where the button was clicked. So - what I basically want is to imitate "Ctrl+N" but hide the window from the user, so they won't be interrupted. As you can see, if you fill out and submit the form on http://www.snee.com/xml/crud/posttest.html and press "Ctrl+N", everything posted will still appear in the new window, but it won't post the data twice. I was thinking of somehow copying the IWebBrowser2, but: I'm not sure if that's possible (I haven't been able to find any information on MSDN) I don't know if it copies the sessions as well. Creating a new instance of the IWebBrowser2 and simply navigating to the current URL isn't a valid solution as POST-variables of course doesn't get carried over.

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  • Tracking iPhone on Yahoo Web Analytics using ASIHTTPRequest

    - by Mads Mobæk
    I'm trying to track an event in my app using Yahoo Web Analytics. The code I am using looks like ASIHTTPRequest *yahooTrack = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://s.analytics.yahoo.com/p.pl?a=xxxxxxxxxxxxx&js=no&b=yyyyyyyyyyyy&cf6=zzzzzzzzzzz"]]; yahooTrack.didFinishSelector = @selector(statisticsFinished:); yahooTrack.delegate = self; [yahooTrack startAsynchronous]; Then the statisticsFinished looks like: NSLog(@"Cookies: %@", request.requestCookies); NSLog(@"Redircount: %d", [request redirectCount]); NSLog(@"Responsecode %d %@\nMsg: %@", request.responseStatusCode, request.responseStatusMessage, [request responseString]); And all the information I get back looks correct. Cookies are set, redirectcount is 1 the first time (as it redirects to s.analytics.yahoo.com/itr.pl?.... a normal browser does). Then the redirectcount is 0 for subsequent request until the app is restarted and session cleared. The responseString returns GIF89a. Even if the data looks correct, Yahoo still won't track. As soon as I call the tracking url directly in my browser it works as expected. I realize Flurry is a better option, but I'm forced to use Yahoo in this case. Also, using a UIWebView probably would work, but I'm against putting in a webview just for tracking purposes. Is there any difference in how ASIHTTPRequest and Safari would handle a call to a simple URL as this? Or do you see anything else that could explain why the tracking isn't working?

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  • Flex 3 - Scroll bar issue

    - by Emma
    Im currently learning Flex, and Im having the hardest time getting scroll bars to work. In short Im pretty much just making a giant form for users to fill out, contained within a viewstack component, the user will type up information in one view, and it will be displayed in the other. But right now in the first canvas i have components that run of the screen and flex doesnt seem to automate a scroll bar, so i added in 'verticalScrollPolicy="on"' to my canvas, now while it gives me a scroll bar, it gives me an empty scroll bar, I still cannot move it up or down, meaning components are still trapped off the bottom of my screen. Im I missing something amazingly simple? Edit - Sorry, Im using Adobe Flex Builder 3, and the components it lets you drag in. http://img12.imageshack.us/img12/218/problem1f.jpg This is a picture of the problem, and i guess relavent code would be. <mx:Application xmlns:mx="adobe.com/2006/mxml"; layout="absolute" width="830" height="835"> <mx:ViewStack x="10" y="72" id="viewstack1" width="790" height="751" > <mx:Canvas label="Design Mode" width="100%" height="100%" verticalScrollPolicy="on" horizontalScrollPolicy="on" > (Components inside) </mx:Canvas> Sorry if Im using this site wrong, still very new

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