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  • How to pass javascript/jQuery settings from page to page in rails?

    - by aronchick
    When doing javascript manipulation of what's visible, how does one pass that from page to page (ideally in Rails)? For example, let's say I have the following simple jQuery code: <% link_to "Next Page", report_path %> <div class="clickable-div" style="background-color:#FFFFFF;"></div> <script> $('.clickable-div').click(function () { var color = $(this).css("background-color", "#000000"); }); </script> If it's not clear, the code is just supposed to change the color of the div based on whether or not it has been clicked. Regardless, there's also a link on the page that allows someone to go to the reporting page. What's a way to pass the state of the div to the action call? EDIT It seems unnecessary to do it in a session - am I wrong? This is just something from one page to the next, I couldn't care less anywhere else on the site. EDIT 2 To confirm, Rails needs to have access to the action that occurred in Javascript on the previous page.

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  • Can you dynamically combine multiple conditional functions into one in Python?

    - by erich
    I'm curious if it's possible to take several conditional functions and create one function that checks them all (e.g. the way a generator takes a procedure for iterating through a series and creates an iterator). The basic usage case would be when you have a large number of conditional parameters (e.g. "max_a", "min_a", "max_b", "min_b", etc.), many of which could be blank. They would all be passed to this "function creating" function, which would then return one function that checked them all. Below is an example of a naive way of doing what I'm asking: def combining_function(max_a, min_a, max_b, min_b, ...): f_array = [] if max_a is not None: f_array.append( lambda x: x.a < max_a ) if min_a is not None: f_array.append( lambda x: x.a > min_a ) ... return lambda x: all( [ f(x) for f in f_array ] ) What I'm wondering is what is the most efficient to achieve what's being done above? It seems like executing a function call for every function in f_array would create a decent amount of overhead, but perhaps I'm engaging in premature/unnecessary optimization. Regardless, I'd be interested to see if anyone else has come across usage cases like this and how they proceeded. Also, if this isn't possible in Python, is it possible in other (perhaps more functional) languages?

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  • python interactive mode module import issue

    - by Jeff
    I believe I have what would be called a scope issue, perhaps name space. Not too sure I'm new to python. I'm trying to make a module that will search through a list using regular expressions. I'm sure there is a better way of doing it but this error that I'm getting is bugging me and I want to understand why. here's my code: class relist(list): def __init__(self, l): list.__init__(self, l) def __getitem__(self, rexp): r = re.compile(rexp) res = filter(r.match, self) return res if __name__ == '__main__': import re listl = [x+y for x in 'test string' for y in 'another string for testing'] print(listl) test = relist(listl) print('----------------------------------') print(test['[s.]']) When I run this code through the command line it works the way I expect it to; however when I run it through python interactive mode I get the error >>> test['[s.]'] Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "relist.py", line 8, in __getitem__ r = re.compile(rexp) NameError: global name 're' is not defined While in the interactive mode I do import re and I am able to use the re functions, but for some reason when I'm trying to execute the module it doesn't work. Do I need to import re into the scope of the class? I wouldn't think so because doesn't python search through other scopes if it's not found in the current one? I appreciate your help, and if there is a better way of doing this search I would be interested in knowing. Thanks

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  • Where should my "filtering" logic reside with Linq-2-SQL and ASP.NET-MVC in View or Controller?

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a main Table, with several "child" tables. TableA and TableAChild1 and TableAChild2. I have a view which shows the information in TableA, and then has two columns of all items in TableAChild1 and TableAChild2 respectivly, they are rendered with Partial views. Both child tables have a bit field for VisibleToAll, and depending on user role, I'd like to either display all related rows, or related rows where VisibleToAll = true. This code, feels like it should be in the controller, but I'm not sure how it would look, because as it stands, the controller (limmited version) looks like this: return View("TableADetailView", repos.GetTableA(id)); Would something like this be even work, and would it be bad what if my DataContext gets submitted, would that delete all the rows that have VisibleToAll == false? var tblA = repos.GetTableA(id); tblA.TableAChild1 = tblA.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); tblA.TableAChild2 = tblA.TableAChild2.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); return View("TableADetailView", tblA); It would also be simple to add that logic to the RendarPartial call from the main view: <% Html.RenderPartial("TableAChild1", Model.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); %>

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  • C++ read registry string value in char*

    - by Sunny
    I'm reading a registry value like this: char mydata[2048]; DWORD dataLength = sizeof(mydata); DWORD dwType = REG_SZ; ..... open key, etc ReqQueryValueEx(hKey, keyName, 0, &dwType, (BYTE*)mydata, &dataLength); My problem is, that after this, mydata content looks like: [63, 00, 3A, 00, 5C, 00...], i.e. this looks like a unicode?!?!. I need to convert this somehow to be a normal char array, without these [00], as they fail a simple logging function I have. I.e. if I call like this: WriteMessage(mydata), it outputs only "c", which is the first char in the registry. I have calls to this logging function all over the place, so I'd better of not modify it, but somehow "fix" the registry value. Here is the log function: void Logger::WriteMessage(const char *msg) { time_t now = time(0); struct tm* tm = localtime(&now); std::ofstream logFile; logFile.open(filename, std::ios::out | std::ios::app); if ( logFile.is_open() ) { logFile << tm->tm_mon << '/' << tm->tm_mday << '/' << tm->tm_year << ' '; logFile << tm->tm_hour << ':' << tm->tm_min << ':' << tm->tm_sec << "> "; logFile << msg << "\n"; logFile.close(); } }

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  • CodeIgniter - Image Validation & Thumbnailing

    - by Sebhael
    I'm currently trying to create a function that validates and creates thumbnails for images on upload - but I'm quite lost on what I'm doing. I'm assuming I'm off on my terminology so I'm not really getting any search results to help point me in the right direction. My playground is a form with 6 upload fields that are required. One of these fields is for a simple 32x32 icon image, another a portrait orientation (most likely) photo, and then 4 standard desktop screenshots -- and I'm using CodeIgniter as my framework. I would like to create a function that validates/thumbnails images, and only have to call it on the validation if at all possible. I know I can achieve this per-image, since the documentation for CI is quite through on this - but to reduce redundancy I'm looking for the better option. Outside of that, I don't even actually understand in full how to manipulate images unless it's just $this-input-post('field') - then calling all functions onto this? I don't know, I'm confused and posting on the actual CI forums has yielded me nothing - so all I'm really looking for is a point in the right direction to understanding what I'm trying to achieve here. This also all might not make any sense, I know it doesn't to me - but I can explain more if needed. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to control the "flow" of an ASP.NET MVC (3.0) web app that relies on Facebook membership, with Facebook C# SDK?

    - by Chad
    I want to totally remove the standard ASP.NET membership system and use Facebook only for my web app's membership. Note, this is not a Facebook canvas app question. Typically, in an ASP.NET app you have some key properties & methods to control the "flow" of an app. Notably: Request.IsAuthenticated, [Authorize] (in MVC apps), Membership.GetUser() and Roles.IsUserInRole(), among others. It looks like [FacebookAuthorize] is equivalent to [Authorize]. Also, there's some standard work I do across all controllers in my site. So I built a BaseController that overrides OnActionExecuting(FilterContext). Typically, I populate ViewData with the user's profile within this action. Would performance suffer if I made a call to fbApp.Get("me") in this action? I use the Facebook Javascript SDK to do registration, which is nice and easy. But that's all client-side, and I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around when to use client-side facebook calls versus server-side. There will be a point when I need to grab the user's facebook uid and store it in a "profile" table along with a few other bits of data. That would probably be best handled on the return url from the registration plugin... correct? On a side note, what data is returned from fbApp.Get("me")?

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  • Using AJAX in Rails: How do I change a button as soon as it's clicked?

    - by sdc
    Hey! I'm teaching myself Ruby, and have been stuck on this for a couple days: I'm currently using MooTools-1.3-compat and Rails 3. I'd like to replace one button (called "Follow") with another (called "Unfollow") as soon as someone clicks on it. I'm using :remote = true and have a file ending in .js.erb that's being called...I just need help figuring out what goes in this .js file The "Follow" button is in a div with id="follow_form", but there are many buttons on the page, and they all have an id = "follow_form"...i.e. $("follow_form").set(...) replaces the first element and that's not correct. I need help replacing the button that made the call. I looked at this tutorial, but the line below doesn't work for me. Could it be because I'm using MooTools instead of Prototype? $("follow_form").update("<%= escape_javascript(render('users/unfollow')) %") ps. This is what I have so far, and this works: in app/views/shared: <%= form_for current_user.subscriptions.build(:event => @event), :remote => true do |f| %> <div><%= f.hidden_field :event %></div> <div class="actions"><%= f.submit "Follow" %></div> <% end %> in app/views/events/create.js.erb alert("follow!"); //Temporary...this is what I'm trying to replace *in app/controllers/subscriptions_controller.rb* def create @subscription = current_user.subscriptions.build(params[:subscription]) @subscription.save respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(..) } format.js {render :layout} end Any help would be greatly, greatly appreciated!

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  • Strange compiler complaint when using similar code

    - by Jason
    For a project, I have to ask the user for a file name, and I'm reading it in character by character using getchar. From the main, I call the function char *coursename= introPrint(); //start off to print the usage directions and get the first bit of input. That function is defined as char *introPrint(){ int size= 20; int c; int length=0; char buffer[size]; //instructions printout, cut for brevity //get coursename from user and return it while ( (c=getchar()) != EOF && (c != '\n') ){ buffer[length++]= c; if (length==size-1) break; } buffer[length]=0; return buffer; } This is basically identical code I wrote to ask the user for input, replace the character echo with asterisks, then print out the results. Here, though, I'm getting a function returns address of local variable warning for the return statement. So why am I getting no warnings from the other program, but trigger one for this code?

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  • Objective-C Objects Having Each Other as Properties

    - by mwt
    Let's say we have two objects. Furthermore, let's assume that they really have no reason to exist without each other. So we aren't too worried about re-usability. Is there anything wrong with them "knowing about" each other? Meaning, can each one have the other as a property? Is it OK to do something like this in a mythical third class: Foo *f = [[Foo alloc] init]; self.foo = f; [f release]; Bar *b = [[Bar alloc] init]; self.bar = b; [b release]; foo.bar = bar; bar.foo = foo; ...so that they can then call methods on each other? Instead of doing this, I'm usually using messaging, etc., but sometimes this seems like it might be a tidier solution. I hardly ever see it in example code (maybe never), so I've shied away from doing it. Can somebody set me straight on this? Thanks.

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  • Implementation help... Subclass NSManagedObject?

    - by Canada Dev
    I'm working on an app where I have some products that I download in a list. The downloaded products are displayed in a table and each will is showing a detail view with more information. These same products can be saved as a favorite, and for this I am using Core Data. I'd like to be able to re-use a bunch of views for displaying the products, which means the stores object and the downloaded object would have to be the same kind. Now, how would I go about best implementing the objects? Can I make a class such as this: FavoriteProduct : NSManageObject // implementation and then subclass Product : FavoriteProduct // implementation ? The CD class just doesn't give me everything. What would be the best way to merge these two object classes so I have as little work ahead of me in terms of implementing the different views for each object? Basically, I just want to be able to call the same methods, etc. on the Product objects as I would on the ones that are FavoriteProduct objects, and re-use views for both kinds. There's only a bit of difference between the two (one is of course stored as a favorite and has some extra values such as notes, tags, while the Product one doesn't). Thanks in advance

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  • Callers block until getFoo() has a value ready?

    - by Sean Owen
    I have a Java Thread which exposes a property which other threads want to access: class MyThread extends Thread { private Foo foo; ... Foo getFoo() { return foo; } ... public void run() { ... foo = makeTheFoo(); ... } } The problem is that it takes some short time from the time this runs until foo is available. Callers may call getFoo() before this and get a null. I'd rather they simply block, wait, and get the value once initialization has occurred. (foo is never changed afterwards.) It will be a matter of milliseconds until it's ready, so I'm comfortable with this approach. Now, I can make this happen with wait() and notifyAll() and there's a 95% chance I'll do it right. But I'm wondering how you all would do it; is there a primitive in java.util.concurrent that would do this, that I've missed? Or, how would you structure it? Yes, make foo volatile. Yes, synchronize on an internal lock Object and put the check in a while loop until it's not null. Am I missing anything?

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  • Error handling approach on PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi everybody, We have a web server that we're about to launch a number of applications onto. They will all share database and memcached servers, but each application has it's own mySQL database and all memcached keys per application, is prefixed. Possible scenario: If a memcached server in our cluster goes boom, we want someone (operative system admin) to be automatically contacted by email/iphone push notification or in any other appropriate way. If we we're about to install 150 identical applications for our customers on our servers, and a memcached server dies - all 150 applications will individually find this out and contact our system admin, which most certainly is going to think about getting a new job where he or she isn't about to be woken up by getting 150 messages sent 4:15 in the morning. Possible solution: One idea is to set up an external server for error handling that gets a $_POST or cURL request sent, and handles storage of the error message depending on the seriousness of the actual error message. It would of course check upon receiving the error call, that if the same memcached server have already been reported as offline, there would be no need to spam the system admin with additional reminders... The questions: What's a good approach on how to handle errors? How does the big guys in the industry handle this? Thanks!

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  • Creating rapid function overloads in C++

    - by DeadMG
    template<typename Functor, typename Return, typename Arg1, typename Arg2, typename Arg3, typename Arg4, typename Arg5, typename Arg6, typename Arg7, typename Arg8, typename Arg9, typename Arg10> class LambdaCall : public Instruction { public: LambdaCall(Functor func ,unsigned char constructorarg1 ,unsigned char constructorarg2 ,unsigned char constructorarg3 ,unsigned char constructorarg4 ,unsigned char constructorarg5 ,unsigned char constructorarg6 ,unsigned char constructorarg7 ,unsigned char constructorarg8 ,unsigned char constructorarg9 ,unsigned char constructorarg10) : arg1(constructorarg1) , arg2(constructorarg2) , arg3(constructorarg3) , arg4(constructorarg4) , arg5(constructorarg5) , arg6(constructorarg6) , arg7(constructorarg7) , arg8(constructorarg8) , arg9(constructorarg9) , arg10(constructorarg10) , function(func) {} void Call(State& state) { state.Push<Return>(func(*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg1>(arg1) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg1>(arg1) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg2>(arg2) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg3>(arg3) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg4>(arg4) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg5>(arg5) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg6>(arg6) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg7>(arg7) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg8>(arg8) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg9>(arg9) ,*state.GetRegisterValue<Arg10>(arg10) )); } Functor function; unsigned char arg1; unsigned char arg2; unsigned char arg3; unsigned char arg4; unsigned char arg5; unsigned char arg6; unsigned char arg7; unsigned char arg8; unsigned char arg9; unsigned char arg10; }; Then again for every possible number of arguments I want to support, and again for void returns. Any way to do this faster?

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  • Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

    - by Ted
    Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

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  • C++ polymorphism and slicing

    - by Draco Ater
    The following code, prints out Derived Base Base But I need every Derived object put into User::items, call its own print function, but not the base class one. Can I achieve that without using pointers? If it is not possible, how should I write the function that deletes User::items one by one and frees memory, so that there should not be any memory leaks? #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; class Base{ public: virtual void print(){ cout << "Base" << endl;} }; class Derived: public Base{ public: void print(){ cout << "Derived" << endl;} }; class User{ public: vector<Base> items; void add_item( Base& item ){ item.print(); items.push_back( item ); items.back().print(); } }; void fill_items( User& u ){ Derived d; u.add_item( d ); } int main(){ User u; fill_items( u ); u.items[0].print(); }

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  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

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  • Strange problem on some client's browsers

    - by Gustavo Cardoso
    We are fighting a strange problem on the company that I work. We created a site of a promotion to a client where its consumers can register products barcodes to win prizes. The site was created using PHP and MySQL. The site uses SSL on every form. However, some consumers report to the client's call-center they was no able make a registration at the site. We try everything, but we cannot, by no ways, reproduce the problem. The consumers reported the problem on several browsers ranging from IE8 to Firefox, the problem is same on everyone them. One co-woker this weekend was able to catch this same bug on his wife's notebook and brought her computer to the company so we could test. However, here on the company the problem didn't happened and we can make the registration normally. We suppose this problem could be a matter of encoding and special characteres like ã and ç. But we are sure that all source files are UTF8- with BOM. We also suspect of MSXml version, but we are note sure anymore. Because of legal impediments the client cannot ask the consumers to install anything on they computers to test or fix the problem. Sorry but by complience rules we also cannot share the url of the site, what is a pity. I know it is too much on vacuun, but perhaps you could had crossed something similar. Thank you

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  • Singleton issue causing a buffer overrun

    - by Rudiger
    Hi everyone, Ive created a singleton to store 2 arrays: @interface Globals : NSObject { NSMutableArray *items; NSMutableArray *extras; } + (Globals *)sharedInstance; @property (nonatomic, assign) NSMutableArray *items; @property (nonatomic, assign) NSMutableArray *extras; @end @implementation Globals @synthesize items, extras; + (Globals *)sharedInstance { static Globals *myInstance = nil; @synchronized(self) { if(!myInstance) { myInstance = [[Globals alloc] init]; } } return myInstance; } -(void)dealloc { [items release]; [extras release]; [super dealloc]; } @end When I set the Arrays in the singleton from the App delegate and then output them to NSLog it displays what is expected. But when I call it from a view controller further into the App it displays the first entry fine, some of the second entry and then garbage which is i assume a buffer overrun, sometimes it also crashes. I set the singleton array in the appDelegate like so: Globals *sharedInstance = [Globals sharedInstance]; [sharedInstance setItems:items]; and retrieve it: [[[sharedInstance items] objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; cell.description.text = [[[sharedInstance items] objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"description"]; Name works fine in both cells if there is 2, description works in the first case, never in the second case. Is it because the arrays in my singleton aren't static? If so why is it outputting the first entry fine? Cheers for any help.

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  • odd url, and difficulty in following the php page flow

    - by sdfor
    I'm trying to understand code that I bought so I can modify it. In the index.php there are picture links: <a href="test10,10"><img title="" border=1 src="makethumb.php?pic=product_images/test101.jpg&amp;w=121&amp;sq=N" / ></a> I don't understand the href since it is not pointing to a page. test10 is an id of a picture. I assumed it was going back to the index.php and the code would extract the test10,10 from the url, but it's not. I know that because I put in trace code as the first line. The question is, where is the link going to? I know it that it somewhere in the process it executes a page called profile.php, but nowhere in the source code (doing a global search) is there an explicit call to profile.php. As a related question, is there a way to profile the code to see what pages it's calling without using xdebug, which for the life of me I can't get working after many hours of trying every suggestion I found here and else where. (I'm using xampp) thanks

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  • Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

    - by Matt Rowles
    I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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  • Magento products will not show in category

    - by Aaron
    I've recently been tasked with the build and deployment of a large Ecommerce site. In the past we've had to use the clients legacy X-cart installation for redevelopment (too far integrated with their existing work flow). We'd heard good things about Magento, so I've set up a test install to get to grips with it. After a couple of initial issues, there is a live development site which displays categories on the default theme. The problem we've hit now is that products don't display..! After a lot more in-depth research into this, all I've been able to discover is that quite a number of developers endorse using other solutions entirely, with the other 50% saying after the steep learning curve the platform is as wonderful as we'd initially been led to believe. Now, my test category is showing, so I know this is configured properly. I've set up three test products and associated them with this (all done following the Magento user guide), checked double checked and thrice checked the products are enabled and visible individually, yet still the front end says the category has no products in it. I've cleared the cache repeatedly, reset everything possible many times in index management - no products show up. I have to make a call tomorrow morning on whether we're going ahead with Magento. If I can't even get it to show products I'm going to have to go with something with a more established track record and more community support available. Can anybody advise what could possibly be wrong here?

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  • reset TextView scroll to top

    - by JayAvon
    Okay well I apologize for how sloppy this code is, but I still cant figure out how to post a code tag on here correctly. So I am making an Android application (Java) and i have a scrolling text field. If the user scrolls a long row down and stays at the end when they click the next row and if it is short, it will be scrolled down on that element too even though it may be a 1 line(and non scrollable) row. I was wondering if there is any way I can call something to right after txtLvlInfo.setText to reset the x-scroll value to 0 or something so it is always reset to the top of the content, long or short. Thanks for any help with this and please let me know if I need to clarify more. TextView txtLvlInfo = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.txtLevelInfo); txtLvlInfo.setMovementMethod(new ScrollingMovementMethod()); switch (v.getId()){ case R.id.row1: txtLvlInfo.setText("1: My text view is only two lines max and so I set it to scroll, if the user clicks row2 to load that text while having me scrolled down they have to click and pull to drag back down to the top of text view 2 row."); break; case R.id.row2: txtLvlInfo.setText("I only fill line 1 of the two."); break; android:textColor="#052027" android:text="" android:id="@+id/txtLevelInfo" android:scrollbars="vertical" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/minimizeBtn" android:layout_marginRight="38dip"

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  • Update PageTitle on Timer.Tick

    - by sohum
    I've got a page with a Timer that is being used as a trigger on an UpdatePanel. The page also contains a TabContainer and several TabPanels. Look at this question for more information. Basically, I've got an UpdatePanel as the element in each TabPanel's ContentTemplate, and the UpdatePanel is triggered by the Timer. My page displays data by reading a database on each tick. I've got the following code running on each Timer.Tick in my codebehind: protected void timeRefresher_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { UpdateLivePageTitle(); } The UpdateLivePageTitle() function reads the new information from the database and sets Page.Title accordingly. However, this information is of course not sent to the browser because there is no full page postback--only an async postback to the update panels. As a result, my page title is not being updated until the whole page is being posted back, which destroys the purpose of using UpdatePanels in the first place. I figure there would be a way to do this by using the document.title JS element and call that from within UpdateLivePageTitle(). But as of now, I haven't been able to figure out how to do this. I tried using the following in my UpdateLivePageTitle() function: string updatePageTitleScript = String.Format("document.title = '{0}'", newPageTitle); ToolkitScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this.Page, this.Page.GetType(), "UpdatePageTitle", updatePageTitleScript, true); But the result of this was that my TabContainer stopped rendering. I'm also not sure that would work with the async partial page postbacks, either. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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