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  • Is it OK to put a standard, pure C header #include directive inside a namespace?

    - by mic_e
    I've got a project with a class log in the global namespace (::log). So, naturally, after #include <cmath>, the compiler gives an error message each time I try to instantiate an object of my log class, because <cmath> pollutes the global namespace with lots of three-letter methods, one of them being the logarithm function log(). So there are three possible solutions, each having their unique ugly side-effects. Move the log class to it's own namespace and always access it with it's fully qualified name. I really want to avoid this because the logger should be as convenient as possible to use. Write a mathwrapper.cpp file which is the only file in the project that includes <cmath>, and makes all the required <cmath> functions available through wrappers in a namespace math. I don't want to use this approach because I have to write a wrapper for every single required math function, and it would add additional call penalty (cancelled out partially by the -flto compiler flag) The solution I'm currently considering: Replace #include <cmath> by namespace math { #include "math.h" } and then calculating the logarithm function via math::log(). I have tried it out and it does, indeed, compile, link and run as expected. It does, however, have multiple downsides: It's (obviously) impossible to use <cmath>, because the <cmath> code accesses the functions by their fully qualified names, and it's deprecated to use in C++. I've got a really, really bad feeling about it, like I'm gonna get attacked and eaten alive by raptors. So my question is: Is there any recommendation/convention/etc that forbid putting include directives in namespaces? Could anything go wrong with diferent C standard library implementations (I use glibc), different compilers (I use g++ 4.7, -std=c++11), linking? Have you ever tried doing this? Are there any alternate ways to banish the math functions from the global namespace? I've found several similar questions on stackoverflow, but most were about including other C++ headers, which obviously is a bad idea, and those that weren't made contradictory statements about linking behaviour for C libraries. Also, would it be beneficial to additionally put the #include <math.h> inside extern "C" {}?

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  • Replacing div html() by echoing PHP - how to?

    - by Jared
    Hello, I have a multiple product elements that get their class and ID from PHP: $product1["codename"] = "product-1"; $product1["short"] = "Great Product 1"; $product2["codename"] = "product-2"; $product2["short"] = "Great Product 2"; <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="'. $product1["codename"].'" >'. $product1["short"].'</div> <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="'. $product2["codename"].'" >'. $product2["short"].'</div> These display as: <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="product-1" > Great Product 1</div> <div class="leftMenuProductButton" id="product-2" > Great Product 2</div> In the page, I have an element that I want to replace the HTML: <div id="productPopupTop"> //Replace this content </div> Using jquery, I have tried the following: $( '.leftMenuProductButton' ).hover ( function () { var swapNAME = $(this).attr("id"); //gets the ID, #product-1, #product-2 etc. This works. $("#productPopupTop").html(' <? echo $' + swapNAME + '["short"] ?>'); //This is supposed to get something like <? echo $product-1["short"] ?> This doesn't appear to work. }, function () { //this is just here for later }); If I try to do an alert('<? echo $' + swapNAME + '["short"] ?>'); it will literally display something like <? echo $product-1["short"] ?> Please note that both the Javascript and the PHP are externally linked in a PHP file (index.php <<< (js.js, products.php) QUESTION: How do I replace the HTML() of #productPopupTop with the ["short"] of a product? If I should use Ajax, how would I code this?

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  • jquery ajax form success callback not being called

    - by Michael Merchant
    I'm trying to upload a file using "AJAX", process data in the file and then return some of that data to the UI so I can dynamically update the screen. I'm using the JQuery Ajax Form Plugin, jquery.form.js found at http://jquery.malsup.com/form/ for the javascript and using Django on the back end. The form is being submitted and the processing on the back end is going through without a problem, but when a response is received from the server, my Firefox browser prompts me to download/open a file of type "application/json". The file has the json content that I've been trying to send to the browser. I don't believe this is an issue with how I'm sending the json as I have a modularized json_wrapper() function that I'm using in multiple places in this same application. Here is what my form looks after Django templates are applied: <form method="POST" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="/test_suites/active/upload_results/805/"> <p> <label for="id_resultfile">Upload File:</label> <input type="file" id="id_resultfile" name="resultfile"> </p> </form> You won't see any submit buttons because I'm calling submit with a button else where and am using ajaxSubmit() from the jquery.form.js plugin. Here is the controlling javascript code: function upload_results($dialog_box){ $form = $dialog_box.find("form"); var options = { type: "POST", success: function(data){ alert("Hello!!"); }, dataType: "json", error: function(){ console.log("errors"); }, beforeSubmit: function(formData, jqForm, options){ console.log(formData, jqForm, options); }, } $form.submit(function(){ $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); return false; }); $form.ajaxSubmit(options); } As you can see, I've gotten desperate to see the success callback function work and simply have an alert message created on success. However, we never reach that call. Also, the error function is not called and the beforeSubmit function is executed. The file that I get back has the following contents: {"count": 18, "failed": 0, "completed": 18, "success": true, "trasaction_id": "SQEID0.231"} I use 'success' here to denote whether or not the server was able to run the post command adequately. If it failed the result would look something like: {"success": false, "message":"<error_message>"} Your time and help is greatly appreciated. I've spent a few days on this now and would love to move on.

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  • A new MEF error I've not seen before -- "The export is not assignable to type..."

    - by Dave
    I was very surprised to get this error today, as it's one that I've never encountered before. Everything in the code looked okay, so I did some searches. The previous questions and their respective answers didn't help. This one was solved when the poster made sure his assembly references were consistent. I don't have this issue right now because I'm currently referencing another project in my solution. This one was solved when the poster was instructed to use ImportMany, but I am already using it (I think properly, too) to try to load multiple plugins This one was solved when the poster realized that there was a platform target mismatch. I've already gone through my projects to ensure that everything targets x86. So here's what I am trying to do. I have a plugin that owns a connection to a device. I might also need to be able to share that connection with another plugin. I decided that the cleanest way to do this was to create an interface that would allow the slave plugin to request its own connection to the device. Let's just call it IConnectionSharer. If the slave plugin does not need to borrow this connection and has its own, then it should use its own implementation of IConnectionSharer to connect to the device. My "master" plugin (the one that owns the connection to the device) implements IConnectionSharer. It also exports this via ExportAttribute. My "slave" plugin assembly defines a class that also implements and exports IConnectionSharer. When the application loads, the intent is for my slave plugin, via MEF, to enumerate all IConnectionSharers and store them in an IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer>. It does so like this: [ImportMany] public IEnumerable<IConnectionSharer> AllSharedConnections { get; set; } But during part composition, I get the error the export 'Company.MasterPlugin (ContractName="IConnectionSharer")' is not assignable to type 'IConnectionSharer'. The error message itself seems clear enough -- it's as if MEF thinks my master plugin doesn't inherit from IConnectionSharer... but it does! Can anyone suggest further debugging strategies? I'm going to start the painful process of single stepping through the MEF source.

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  • jQuery: load refuses to get dynamic content in IE6

    - by user260157
    jQuery refuses to load my dynamic content in IE6. All in FireFox & Safari works fine. Only IE6 is being a pain. When I try the a html with <p>Hello World</p> that works. Properly. But when loading a PHP it doesn't work! As you can see it's doing multiple things. <script type="text/javascript"> // When the document is ready set up our sortable with it's inherant function(s) $(document).ready(function() { // Sort list & amend in database function sortTableMenuAndReload() { var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); $("#menuList").load("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/sortableMenu_ajax.php"); } function sortTableOrder() { var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); } function sortTableOrderAndRemove(removeID) { $('#listItem_'+removeID).remove(); var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); $("#menuList").load("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/sortableMenu_ajax.php"); } $("#menuList > li > .remove").live('click', function () { var removeID = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: 'PLUGINS/SortableMenu/removeLine.php', data: 'id='+removeID, success: sortTableOrderAndRemove(removeID) }); }); $("#menuList > li > .publish").live('click', function () { var publishID = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: 'PLUGINS/SortableMenu/publishLine.php', data: 'id='+publishID, success: sortTableOrder }); }); $('#new_documents > li').draggable({ addClasses: false, helper:'clone', connectToSortable:'#menuList' }); $("#menuList").droppable({ addClasses: false, drop: function() { var clone = $("#menuList > li#newArticleTYPE1"); $(clone).attr("id","listItem_newArticleTYPE1"); } }); $("#menuList").sortable({ opacity: 0.6, handle : '.handle, .remove', update : sortTableMenuAndReload }); }); </script>

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  • JPA - Can I create an Entity class, using an @DiscriminatorValue, that doesn't have its own table?

    - by DaveyDaveDave
    Hi - this is potentially a bit complex, so I'll do my best to describe my situation - it's also my first post here, so please forgive formatting mistakes, etc! I'm using JPA with joined inheritance and a database structure that looks like: ACTION --------- ACTION_ID ACTION_MAPPING_ID ACTION_TYPE DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID CHANNEL_ID OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION -------------------------- ACTION_ID (various fields specific to this action type) So, in plain English, I have multiple different types of action, all share an ACTION_MAPPING, which is referenced from the 'parent' ACTION table. DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION and OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION both have extra, supplementary data of their own, and are mapped to ACTION with a FK. Real-world, I also have a 'suppress' action, but this doesn't have any supplementary data of its own, so it doesn't have a corresponding table - all it needs is an ACTION_MAPPING, which is stored in the ACTION table. Hopefully you're with me so far... I'm creating a new project from scratch, so am pretty flexible in what I can do, but obviously would like to get it right from the outset! My current implementation, which works, has three entities loosely defined as follows: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class Action @Entity @Table(name="DELIVERY_CHANNEL_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("DELIVERY_CHANNEL") public class DeliveryChannelAction extends Action @Entity @Table(name="OVERRIDE_ADDRESS_ACTION") @DiscriminatorValue("OVERRIDE_ADDRESS") public class OverrideAddressAction extends Action That is - I have a concrete base class, Action, with a Joined inheritance strategy. DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction both extend Action. What feels wrong here though, is that my Action class is the base class for these two actions, but also forms the concrete implementation for the suppress action. For the time being this works, but at some point more actions are likely to be added, and there's every chance that some of them will, like SUPPRESS, have no supplementary data, which will start to get difficult! So... what I would like to do, in the object model world, is to have Action be abstract, and create a SuppressAction class, which is empty apart from having a @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS"). I've tried doing exactly what is described above, so, changing Action to: @Entity @Table(name="ACTION") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) public abstract class Action and creating: @DiscriminatorValue("SUPPRESS") public class SuppressAction extends Action but no luck - it seems to work fine for DeliveryChannelAction and OverrideAddressAction, but when I try to create a SuppressAction and persist it, I get: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Object: com.mypackage.SuppressAction[actionId=null] is not a known entity type. at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.sessions.UnitOfWorkImpl.registerNewObjectForPersist(UnitOfWorkImpl.java:4147) at org.eclipse.persistence.internal.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:368) at com.mypackage.test.util.EntityTestUtil.createSuppressAction(EntityTestUtil.java:672) at com.mypackage.entities.ActionTest.testCRUDAction(ActionTest.java:27) which I assume is down to the fact that SuppressAction isn't registered as an entity, but I don't know how I can do that, given that it doesn't have an associated table. Any pointers, either complete answers or hints for things to Google (I'm out of ideas!), most welcome :) EDIT: to correct my stacktrace.

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  • Sharing the same file between different projects

    - by selsine
    Hi Everyone, For version control we currently use Visual Source Safe and are thinking of migrating to another version control system (SVN, Mercurial, Git). Currently we use Visual Source Safe's "Shared" file feature quite heavily. This allows us to share code between design and runtimes of a single product, and between multiple products as well. For example: **Product One** - Design Login.cpp Login.h Helper.cpp Helper.h - Runtime Login.cpp Login.h Helper.cpp Helper.h **Product Two** - Design Login.cpp Login.h - Launcher Login.cpp Login.h - Runtime Login.cpp Login.h In this example Login.cpp and Login.h contain common code that all of our projects need, Helper.cpp and Helper.h is only used in Product One. In Visual Source Safe they are shared between the specific projects, which means that whenever the files are updated in one project they are updated in any project they are shared with. This is a simple example but hopefully it explains why we use the shared feature: to reduce the amount of duplicated code and ensure that when a bug is fixed all projects automatically have access to the new fixed code. After researching alternatives to Visual Source Safe it seems that most version control systems do not have the idea of shared files, instead they seem to use the idea of sub repositories. (http://mercurial.selenic.com/wiki/subrepos http://svnbook.red-bean.com/en/1.0/ch07s03.html) My question (after all of that) is about what the best practices for achieving this are using other version control systems? Should we restructure our projects so that two copies of the files do not exist and an include directory is used instead? e.g. Product One Design Login.cpp Login.h Runtime Login.cpp Login.h Common Helper.cpp Helper.h This still leaves what to do with Login.cpp and Logon.h Should the shared files be moved to their own repository and then compiled into a lib or dll? This would make bug fixing more time consuming as the lib projects would have to be edited and then rebuilt. Should we use externals or sub repositories? Should we combine our projects (i.e. runtime, design, and launcher) into one large project? Any help would be appreciated. We have the feeling that our project design has evolved based on the tools that we used and now that we are thinking of switching tools it's difficult for us to see how we can best modify our practices. Or maybe we are the only people are there doing this...? Also, we use Visual Studio for all of our stuff. Thanks.

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  • How can I enable a debugging mode via a command-line switch for my Perl program?

    - by Michael Mao
    I am learning Perl in a "head-first" manner. I am absolutely a newbie in this language: I am trying to have a debug_mode switch from CLI which can be used to control how my script works, by switching certain subroutines "on and off". And below is what I've got so far: #!/usr/bin/perl -s -w # purpose : make subroutine execution optional, # which is depending on a CLI switch flag use strict; use warnings; use constant DEBUG_VERBOSE => "v"; use constant DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS => "s"; use constant DEBUG_IGNORE_VALIDATION => "i"; use constant DEBUG_SETPPING_COMPUTATION => "c"; our ($debug_mode); mainMethod(); sub mainMethod # () { if(!$debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is OFF\n"; } elsif($debug_mode) { print "debug_mode is ON\n"; } else { print "OMG!\n"; exit -1; } checkArgv(); printErrorMsg("Error_Code_123", "Parsing Error at..."); verbose(); } sub checkArgv #() { print ("Number of ARGV : ".(1 + $#ARGV)."\n"); } sub printErrorMsg # ($error_code, $error_msg, ..) { if(defined($debug_mode) && !($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS)) { print "You can only see me if -debug_mode is NOT set". " to DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS\n"; die("terminated prematurely...\n") and exit -1; } } sub verbose # () { if(defined($debug_mode) && ($debug_mode =~ DEBUG_VERBOSE)) { print "Blah blah blah...\n"; } } So far as I can tell, at least it works...: the -debug_mode switch doesn't interfere with normal ARGV the following commandlines work: ./optional.pl ./optional.pl -debug_mode ./optional.pl -debug_mode=v ./optional.pl -debug_mode=s However, I am puzzled when multiple debug_modes are "mixed", such as: ./optional.pl -debug_mode=sv ./optional.pl -debug_mode=vs I don't understand why the above lines of code "magically works". I see both of the "DEBUG_VERBOS" and "DEBUG_SUPPRESS_ERROR_MSGS" apply to the script, which is fine in this case. However, if there are some "conflicting" debug modes, I am not sure how to set the "precedence of debug_modes"? Also, I am not certain if my approach is good enough to Perlists and I hope I am getting my feet in the right direction. One biggest problem is that I now put if statements inside most of my subroutines for controlling their behavior under different modes. Is this okay? Is there a more elegant way? I know there must be a debug module from CPAN or elsewhere, but I want a real minimal solution that doesn't depend on any other module than the "default". And I cannot have any control on the environment where this script will be executed...

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  • Select Elements in nested Divs using JQuery

    - by PIKP
    I have the following html markup inside a Div named item and I want to select all the elements (inside nested divs) and clear the values. As shown in following given Jquery I have managed to access elements in each Div by using.children().each(). But the the problem is .children().each()goes one level down at a time from the parent div, so I have repeated the same code block with multiple .children() to access the elements inside nested Divs, can anyone suggest me a method to do this without repeating the code for N number of nested divs . html markup <div class="item"> <input type="hidden" value="1234" name="testVal"> <div class="form-group" id="c1"> <div class="controls "> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s1" maxlength="255" id="id2"> </div> </div> <div class="form-group" id="id4"> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s12" maxlength="255" id="id225"> <div class="form-group" id="id41"> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s12" maxlength="255" id="5"> <div class="form-group" id="id42"> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s12" maxlength="255" id="5"> <div class="form-group" id="id43"> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s12" maxlength="255" id="id224"> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> My Qjuery script var row = $(".item:first").clone(false).get(0); $(row).children().each(function () { updateElementIndex(this, prefix, formCount); if ($(this).attr('type') == 'text') { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'hidden' && ($(this).attr('name') != 'csrfmiddlewaretoken')) { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'file') { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'checkbox') { $(this).attr('checked', false); } $(this).remove('a'); }); // Relabel or rename all the relevant bits $(row).children().children().each(function () { updateElementIndex(this, prefix, formCount) if ($(this).attr('type') == 'text') { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'hidden' && ($(this).attr('name') != 'csrfmiddlewaretoken')) { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'file') { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'checkbox') { $(this).attr('checked', false); } $(this).remove('a'); });

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  • Inventory count in CakePHP

    - by metrobalderas
    We are developing an inventory tracking system. Basically we've got an order table in which orders are placed. When an order is payed, the status changes from 0 to 1. This table has multiple children in another table order_items. This is the main structure. CREATE TABLE order( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, user_id INT UNSIGNED, status INT(1), total INT UNSIGNED ); CREATE TABLE order_items( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, order_id INT UNSIGNED, article_id INT UNSIGNED, size enum('s', 'm', 'l', 'xl'), quantity INT UNSIGNED ); Now, we've got a stocks table with similar architecture for the acquisitions. This is the structure. CREATE TABLE stock( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, article_id INT UNSIGNED ); CREATE TABLE stock_items( id INT UNSIGNED AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, stock_id INT UNSIGNED, size enum('s', 'm', 'l', 'xl'), quantity INT(2) ); The main difference is that stocks has no status field. What we are looking for is a way to sum each article size from stock_items, then sum each article size from order_items where Order.status = 1 and substract both these items to find our current inventory. This is the table we want to get from a single query: Size | Stocks | Sales | Available s | 10 | 3 | 7 m | 15 | 13 | 2 l | 7 | 4 | 3 Initially we thought abouth using complex find conditions, but perhaps that's the wrong approach. Also, since it's not a direct join, it turns out to be quite hard. This is the code we have to retrieve the stock's total for each item. function stocks_total($id){ $find = $this->StockItem->find('all', array( 'conditions' => array( 'StockItem.stock_id' => $this->find('list', array('conditions' => array('Stock.article_id' => $id))) ), 'fields' => array_merge( array( 'SUM(StockItem.cantidad) as total' ), array_keys($this->StockItem->_schema) ), 'group' => 'StockItem.size', 'order' => 'FIELD(StockItem.size, \'s\', \'m\' ,\'l\' ,\'xl\') ASC' )); return $find; } Thanks.

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  • Big O Complexity of a method

    - by timeNomad
    I have this method: public static int what(String str, char start, char end) { int count=0; for(int i=0;i<str.length(); i++) { if(str.charAt(i) == start) { for(int j=i+1;j<str.length(); j++) { if(str.charAt(j) == end) count++; } } } return count; } What I need to find is: 1) What is it doing? Answer: counting the total number of end occurrences after EACH (or is it? Not specified in the assignment, point 3 depends on this) start. 2) What is its complexity? Answer: the first loops iterates over the string completely, so it's at least O(n), the second loop executes only if start char is found and even then partially (index at which start was found + 1). Although, big O is all about worst case no? So in the worst case, start is the 1st char & the inner iteration iterates over the string n-1 times, the -1 is a constant so it's n. But, the inner loop won't be executed every outer iteration pass, statistically, but since big O is about worst case, is it correct to say the complexity of it is O(n^2)? Ignoring any constants and the fact that in 99.99% of times the inner loop won't execute every outer loop pass. 3) Rewrite it so that complexity is lower. What I'm not sure of is whether start occurs at most once or more, if once at most, then method can be rewritten using one loop (having a flag indicating whether start has been encountered and from there on incrementing count at each end occurrence), yielding a complexity of O(n). In case though, that start can appear multiple times, which most likely it is, because assignment is of a Java course and I don't think they would make such ambiguity. Solving, in this case, is not possible using one loop... WAIT! Yes it is..! Just have a variable, say, inc to be incremented each time start is encountered & used to increment count each time end is encountered after the 1st start was found: inc = 0, count = 0 if (current char == start) inc++ if (inc > 0 && current char == end) count += inc This would also yield a complexity of O(n)? Because there is only 1 loop. Yes I realize I wrote a lot hehe, but what I also realized is that I understand a lot better by forming my thoughts into words...

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  • Pass variables between separate instances of ruby (without writing to a text file or database)

    - by boulder_ruby
    Lets say I'm running a long worker-script in one of several open interactive rails consoles. The script is updating columns in a very, very, very large table of records. I've muted the ActiveRecord logger to speed up the process, and instruct the script to output some record of progress so I know how roughly how long the process is going to take. That is what I am currently doing and it would look something like this: ModelName.all.each_with_index do |r, i| puts i if i % 250 ...runs some process... r.save end Sometimes its two nested arrays running, such that there would be multiple iterators and other things running all at once. Is there a way that I could do something like this and access that variable from a separate rails console? (such that the variable would be overwritten every time the process is run without much slowdown) records = ModelName.all $total = records.count records.each_with_index do |r, i| $i = i ...runs some process... r.save end meanwhile mid-process in other console puts "#{($i/$total * 100).round(2)}% complete" #=> 67.43% complete I know passing global variables from one separate instance of ruby to the next doesn't work. I also just tried this to no effect as well unix console 1 $X=5 echo {$X} #=> 5 unix console 2 echo {$X} #=> "" Lastly, I also know using global variables like this is a major software design pattern no-no. I think that's reasonable, but I'd still like to know how to break that rule if I'd like. Writing to a text file obviously would work. So would writing to a separate database table or something. That's not a bad idea. But the really cool trick would be sharing a variable between two instances without writing to a text file or database column. What would this be called anyway? Tunneling? I don't quite know how to tag this question. Maybe bad-idea is one of them. But honestly design-patterns isn't what this question is about.

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  • newbie in Jquery (including but no result)

    - by Negin
    I have this code: <html> <head> </head> <body> <form method='post'> <link type="text/css" href="css/themename/jquery-ui-1.8.14.custom.css" rel="Stylesheet" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.4.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.8.14.custom.min.js"></script> <style> #feedback { font-size: 1.4em; } #selectable .ui-selecting { background: #FECA40; } #selectable .ui-selected { background: #F39814; color: white; } #selectable { list-style-type: none; margin: 0; padding: 0; width: 60%; } #selectable li { margin: 3px; padding: 0.4em; font-size: 1.4em; height: 18px; } </style> <script> $(function() { $( "#selectable" ).selectable(); }); </script> <div class="demo"> <ol id="selectable"> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 1</li> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 2</li> <li class="ui-widget-content">Item 3</li> </ol> </div><!-- End demo --> <div class="demo-description" style="display: none; "> <p>Enable a DOM element (or group of elements) to be selectable. Draw a box with your cursor to select items. Hold down the Ctrl key to make multiple non-adjacent selections. </p> </div><!-- End demo-description --> </form> </body> </html> I downloaded the jquery but it has no result I used this site: http://jqueryui.com/demos/selectable/#event-create what is wrong here?

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  • asp.net mvc 2 multithread

    - by Chris Cap
    I'm getting some weird behavior in asp.net MVC2 (at least it's not what I'm expecting). I have a controller httppost action that processes credit cards. I'm setting a session variable on the server to let me know if a user has attempted to process a card. I clear that session variable when I'm done. I am doing some very quick posts to test the process and the session variable is coming back null everytime because I clear the session variable at the end of the process. I have some debug prints that show me that the all requests are processed synchronously. That is...the first attempt occurs, it fails, session variable is cleared, second attempt tries and fails and the variable is cleared, etc... My first thought was that this was a side effect of debugging and that it just lined requests up for debugging purposes using the local webserver. So I put it on a development server and the same thing is occurring. Multiple submits/posts are processed synchronously. I even put a System.Threading.Sleep in there to make sure it would stop right after I set the session variable and it still won't even START the second request until the first is done. Has anyone else seen this behavior? My understanding was that a worker process was spawned for each request and that these actions could happen asychronously. Here's some psuedo code if (Session["CardCharged"] != null) return RedirectToAction("Index", "Problem"); Session["CardCharged"] = false; //starting the process System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10000); //charge card here if (!providerResponse.IsApproved) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("failed"); Session["CardCharged"] = null; //have to allow them to charge again since this failed return View(myModel); } Session["CardCharged"] = true; return RedirectToAction("Index", "OrderComplete"); I should mention that my code ALWAYS fails the credit card check for testing purposes. I'm trying to test the situation where processing is STILL occurring and redirect the user elsewhere. I have set a dummy session variable elsewhere to assure that the session id "sticks". So I know the session id is the same for each request. Thanks

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  • Efficiently fetching and storing tweets from a few hundred twitter profiles?

    - by MSpreij
    The site I'm working on needs to fetch the tweets from 150-300 people, store them locally, and then list them on the front page. The profiles sit in groups. The pages will be showing the last 20 tweets (or 21-40, etc) by date, group of profiles, single profile, search, or "subject" (which is sort of a different group.. I think..) a live, context-aware tag cloud (based on the last 300 tweets of the current search, group of profiles, or single profile shown) various statistics (group stuffs, most active, etc) which depend on the type of page shown. We're expecting a fair bit of traffic. The last, similar site peaked at nearly 40K visits per day, and ran intro trouble before I started caching pages as static files, and disabling some features (some, accidently..). This was caused mostly by the fact that a page load would also fetch the last x tweets from the 3-6 profiles which had not been updated the longest.. With this new site I can fortunately use cron to fetch tweets, so that helps. I'll also be denormalizing the db a little so it needs less joins, optimize it for faster selects instead of size. Now, main question: how do I figure out which profiles to check for new tweets in an efficient manner? Some people will be tweeting more often than others, some will tweet in bursts (this happens a lot). I want to keep the front page of the site as "current" as possible. If it comes to, say, 300 profiles, and I check 5 every minute, some tweets will only appear an hour after the fact. I can check more often (up to 20K) but want to optimize this as much as possible, both to not hit the rate limit and to not run out of resources on the local server (it hit mysql's connection limit with that other site). Question 2: since cron only "runs" once a minute, I figure I have to check multiple profiles each minute - as stated, at least 5, possibly more. To try and spread it out over that minute I could have it sleep a few seconds between batches or even single profiles. But then if it takes longer than 60 seconds altogether, the script will run into itself. Is this a problem? If so, how can I avoid that? Question 3: any other tips? Readmes? URLs?

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  • When to use new layouts and when to use new activities?

    - by cmdfrg
    I'm making a game in Android and I'm trying to add a set of menu screens. Each screen takes up the whole display and has various transitions available to other screens. As a rough summary, the menu screens are: Start screen Difficult select screen Game screen. Pause screen. Game over screen. And there are several different ways you can transition between screen: 1 - 2 2 - 3 3 - 4 (pause game) 4 - 1 (exit game) 4 - 3 (resume game) 3 - 5 (game ends) Obviously, I need some stored state when moving between screens, such as the difficulty level select when starting a game and what the player's score is when the game over screen is shown. Can anyone give me some advice for the easiest way to implement the above screens and transitions in Android? All the create/destroy/pause/resume methods make me nervous about writing brittle code if I'm not careful. I'm not fond of using an Activity for each screen. It seems too heavy weight, having to pass data around using intents seems like a real pain and each screen isn't a useful module by itself. As the "back" button doesn't always go back to the previous screen either, my menu layout doesn't seem to fit the activity model well. At the moment, I'm representing each screen as an XML layout file and I have one activity. I set the different buttons on each layout to call setContentView to update the screen the main activity is showing (e.g. the pause button changes the layout to the pause screen). The activity holds onto all the state needed (e.g. the current difficulty level and the game high score), which makes it easy to share data between screens. This seems roughly similar to the LunarLander sample, except I'm using multiple screens. Does what I have at the moment sound OK or am I not doing things the typical Android way? Is there a class I can use (e.g. something like ViewFlipper) that could make my life easier? By the way, my game screen is implemented as a SurfaceView that stores the game state. I need the state in this view to persist between calls to setContentView (e.g. to resume from paused). Is the right idea to create the game view when the activity starts, keep a reference to it and then use this reference with setContentView whenever I want the game screen to appear?

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  • dismissing uiwebview

    - by chimgrrl
    Ok, I really spend 2 days on this and it has gotten me stumped. From my main UIViewController I called a WebViewController which is a UIViewController with a UIWebView inside: UOLCategoriesWebViewController *ucwvcontroller = [[UOLCategoriesWebViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"UOLCategoriesWebViewController" bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:ucwvcontroller animated:YES]; [ucwvcontroller release]; Inside the UOLCategoriesWebViewController I've call the delegate method shouldStartLoadWithRequest where when the user clicks on a particular type of link it parses out the params and return back to the main UIViewController (or at least that's what I want it to do): - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView*)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest*)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { BOOL continueOrExit = YES; NSURL *url = request.URL; NSString *urlString = [url relativeString]; NSString *urlParams = [url query]; NSArray *urlParamArr = [urlParams componentsSeparatedByString:@"&"]; NSLog(@"the url is: %@",urlString); //NSLog(@"the params are: %@,%@",[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:0],[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1]); //BOOL endTrain1 = [[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1] hasPrefix:@"subCatValue"]; //BOOL endTrain2 = ([urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1 //NSLog(@"Number of elements: %@",[urlParamArr count]); if (navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked) { //NSLog(@"Enter into His glory"); if ([urlString hasSuffix:@"categories_list.php"]) { //NSLog(@"2nd Heaven"); continueOrExit = YES; }else if ([[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1] hasPrefix:@"subCatValue"]) { continueOrExit = NO; NSLog(@"end of the train"); NSArray *firstParamStringArr = [[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:0] componentsSeparatedByString:@"="]; NSArray *secondParamStringArr = [[urlParamArr objectAtIndex:1] componentsSeparatedByString:@"="]; NSString *catSelected = [firstParamStringArr objectAtIndex:1]; NSString *subCatSelected = [secondParamStringArr objectAtIndex:1]; //go back to native app [self goBackToMain:catSelected andSubCat:subCatSelected]; } } return continueOrExit; } Actually in the above function where I am calling the goBackToMain method I want it to call the delegate method and return to the mainviewcontroller. Unfortunately after executing that goBackToMain method it goes back to this method and continue to return continueOrExit. Is there anyway to make it truly exit without returning anything? I've tried putting in multiple returns to no avail. Or can I in the html page pass some javascript to directly call this method so that I don't have to go through this delegate method? Thanks for the help in advance!

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  • Is it possible to create a C++ factory system that can create an instance of any "registered" object

    - by chrensli
    Hello, I've spent my entire day researching this topic, so it is with some scattered knowledge on the topic that i come to you with this inquiry. Please allow me to describe what I am attempting to accomplish, and maybe you can either suggest a solution to the immediate question, or another way to tackle the problem entirely. I am trying to mimic something related to how XAML files work in WPF, where you are essentially instantiating an object tree from an XML definition. If this is incorrect, please inform. This issue is otherwise unrelated to WPF, C#, or anything managed - I solely mention it because it is a similar concept.. So, I've created an XML parser class already, and generated a node tree based on ObjectNode objects. ObjectNode objects hold a string value called type, and they have an std::vector of child ObjectNode objects. The next step is to instantiate a tree of objects based on the data in the ObjectNode tree. This intermediate ObjectNode tree is needed because the same ObjectNode tree might be instantiated multiple times or delayed as needed. The tree of objects that is being created is such that the nodes in the tree are descendants of a common base class, which for now we can refer to as MyBase. Leaf nodes can be of any type, not necessarily derived from MyBase. To make this more challenging, I will not know what types of MyBase derived objects might be involved, so I need to allow for new types to be registered with the factory. I am aware of boost's factory. Their docs have an interesting little design paragraph on this page: o We may want a factory that takes some arguments that are forwarded to the constructor, o we will probably want to use smart pointers, o we may want several member functions to create different kinds of objects, o we might not necessarily need a polymorphic base class for the objects, o as we will see, we do not need a factory base class at all, o we might want to just call the constructor - without #new# to create an object on the stack, and o finally we might want to use customized memory management. I might not be understanding this all correctly, but that seems to state that what I'm trying to do can be accomplished with boost's factory. But all the examples I've located, seem to describe factories where all objects are derived from a base type. Any guidance on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time!

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  • Is it a good or bad practice to call instance methods from a java constructor?

    - by Steve
    There are several different ways I can initialize complex objects (with injected dependencies and required set-up of injected members), are all seem reasonable, but have various advantages and disadvantages. I'll give a concrete example: final class MyClass { private final Dependency dependency; @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { this.dependency = dependency; dependency.addHandler(new Handler() { @Override void handle(int foo) { MyClass.this.doSomething(foo); } }); doSomething(0); } private void doSomething(int foo) { dependency.doSomethingElse(foo+1); } } As you can see, the constructor does 3 things, including calling an instance method. I've been told that calling instance methods from a constructor is unsafe because it circumvents the compiler's checks for uninitialized members. I.e. I could have called doSomething(0) before setting this.dependency, which would have compiled but not worked. What is the best way to refactor this? Make doSomething static and pass in the dependency explicitly? In my actual case I have three instance methods and three member fields that all depend on one another, so this seems like a lot of extra boilerplate to make all three of these static. Move the addHandler and doSomething into an @Inject public void init() method. While use with Guice will be transparent, it requires any manual construction to be sure to call init() or else the object won't be fully-functional if someone forgets. Also, this exposes more of the API, both of which seem like bad ideas. Wrap a nested class to keep the dependency to make sure it behaves properly without exposing additional API:class DependencyManager { private final Dependency dependency; public DependecyManager(Dependency dependency) { ... } public doSomething(int foo) { ... } } @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { DependencyManager manager = new DependencyManager(dependency); manager.doSomething(0); } This pulls instance methods out of all constructors, but generates an extra layer of classes, and when I already had inner and anonymous classes (e.g. that handler) it can become confusing - when I tried this I was told to move the DependencyManager to a separate file, which is also distasteful because it's now multiple files to do a single thing. So what is the preferred way to deal with this sort of situation?

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  • How to ensure structures are completly initialized (by name) in GCC?

    - by Steven Spark
    How do I ensure each and every field of my structures are initialized in GCC when using designated initializers? (I'm especially interested in function pointers.) (I'm using C not C++.) Here is an example: typedef struct { int a; int b; } foo_t; typedef struct { void (*Start)(void); void (*Stop)(void); } bar_t; foo_t fooo = { 5 }; foo_t food = { .b=4 }; bar_t baro = { NULL }; bar_t bard = { .Start = NULL }; -Wmissing-field-initializers does not help at all. It works for fooo only in GCC (mingw 4.7.3, 4.8.1), and clang does only marginally better (no warnings for food and bard). I'm sure there is a reason for not producing warnings for designated initializer (even when I explicitly ask for them) but I want/need them. I do not want to initialize structures based on order/position because that is more error prone (for example swapping Start and Stop won't even give any warning). And neither gcc nor clang will give any warning that I failed to explicitly initialize a field (when initializing by name). I also don't want to litter my code with if(x.y==NULL) lines for multiple reasons, one of which is I want compile time warnings and not runtime errors. At least splint will give me warnings on all 4 cases, but unfortunately I cannot use splint all the time (it chokes on some of the code (fails to parse some C99, GCC extensions)). Note: If I'm using a real function instead of NULL GCC will also show a warning for baro (but not bard). I searched google and stack overflow but only found related questions and have not found answer for this specific problem. The best match I have found is 'Ensure that all elements in a structure are initialized' Ensure that all elements in a structure are initialized Which asks pretty much the same question, but has no satisfying answer. Is there a better way dealing with this that I have not mentioned? (Maybe other code analysis tool? Preferably something (free) that can be integrated into Eclipse or Visual Studio...)

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  • Pass PHP variables without being seen when working with a database generated list

    - by Wilcoholic
    Looking for any help regarding the problem. Here's the deal: I have a database that has a teams table and it contains team_id. On one of my pages, I generate a list of links that contain the team_id of the creator in their get URL. I need the team_id on the next page but can't figure out how to pass it through any other way. Using a form and POST isn't an option because this method would only pass through the last links data on the list. Storing in a session isn't an option either because there is no way to discretely pass the the variables I need to a function to set the session variables. I have tried and it can pretty easily be viewed from viewing the source code. So here's some sample code to see exactly what I'm dealing with. <? if(mysql_num_rows($result2)>0){ ?> <a class="fltrt btn btn-danger btn-small" onclick="test()" href="acceptmatch-exec.php?match_id=<?php echo $match_id; ?>&team_id=<?php echo $team_id;?>&action=cancel">Cancel Match</a> <?}else{?> <a class="fltrt btn btn-success btn-small" href="acceptmatch-exec.php?match_id=<?php echo $match_id; ?>&team_id=<?php echo $team_id;?>&action=accept">Accept Match</a> <?} ?> The code above is generated multiple times on a page via a while loop that was excluded. I want to pass the match_id and team_id variables without being seen anywhere. If I made this a form, it wouldn't pass the correct variables unless there is only one result at the time (not likely). I'm sure there has to be an easy method that is eluding me, so please share thoughts on how to solve this. I feel as though I am not explaining it well enough, but it's not really easy to explain. I basically want something that works like GET but acts like POST and can be hidden from people viewing source code or link locations. Thanks

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  • jQuery .load(), don't show new content until images loaded

    - by Jarred
    Hi. I have been working on a jQuery photo slideshow. It scales the images to the browser size, and slides them left and right. There is no pre-determined size or aspect ratio, the script does everything on the fly. It requires that all images be fully loaded, so it can custom resize each individual image based on it's own aspect ratio ( width():height(), etc ), calculate the width of containing div, and calculate the slide distance from one image to another. As a stand-alone, it works pretty well (despite my lack of skills)! I simply hide the slideshow containing div at (document).ready, allow the images to load, then run the slideshow prep scripts at (window).load. Once this is done, it only then makes the slideshow divs, images, etc appear, properly sized, positioned and ready to roll. The ultimate goal is to be able to load in any number of slideshows without refreshing the page. The point of this is to be able to play uninterrupted background music. I know music on websites is annoying, but the target market likes it, a lot! I am using (target).load(page.php .element, function prepInsertNewShow() { //Prepare slideshow resizeImages(); slideArray(); //Show slideshow (target).fadeIn(); }); and it definitely works! The problem is that I cannot find a way to hold off on preparing and showing the new content until the images have finished loading. It is running the slideshow prep scripts (which are totally dependent on the images being fully loaded), before the images are loaded. This results in a completely jacked up show! What I want to do is this - (target).load(page.php .element, function prepInsertNewShow() { //Wait until images are loaded $('img').load( function() { //Prepare slideshow resizeImages(); slideArray(); //Show slideshow (target).fadeIn(); } }); But this doesn't seem to work, the new content is never shown. You can see a live version here. The initial gallery loads correctly, everything looks good. The only nav link that works is Galleries Engagement, which will load a new show (a containing div with multiple <img> tags). You will see that the images are not centered, the containing div and slide distances are much too small, as they were calculated using images that were not actually loaded. Is there any way I can delay handling and showing new content until it is fully loaded? Any suggestions would be most appreciated, thanks for your time! PS - It just occurred to me while typing this that a decent solution may be to insert "width=x" height="x" into the <img> tags, so the script can work from those values, even if the images have not loaded...hmm...

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  • IE dynamic image caching issue?

    - by rdevitt
    I have an html page that is loading multiple iframes into which are embedded dynamic images created from a Tomcat server page (.jsp). This works as expected from Chrome and Firefox, but for some reason IE displays all of the images the same (as the first image). I've created an example: http://coupondiscounts.com/dev/jsImageTest.html jsImageTest.html -- This page simply loads 6 instances of the testImageFrame.html page in separate iframes one-at-a-time, using Javascript. testImageFrame.html -- This is the page loaded in all the iframes. It contains only a JavaScript block that writes out the current time and an img tag. The img is dynamically generated by a .jsp page on a different server. It should be a white box on a black background. In the box are the current time (from the Tomcat server using Java) and a randomly created double between 0 & 1. What happens (in IE): The page almost instantly loads four identical iframes. Depending on the speed of your machine, the JavaScript times may vary by a second or two. The images' times will all be the same as will be the random number. This holds true even for the last two iframes which are loaded 5 and 10 seconds after the others (using JavaScript setTimeout()). What should happen (as it does in Chrome and FF): The page loads the same 4 iframes, but the random numbers in the images will be different. The times in the images occasionally span a second as well. Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here? Is IE doing some strange caching? The image header has "no-cache," "no-store" and all that. I've tried it on IE6 and 7. You can use the "Next" button to create another iframe. In IE, the images are always the same. Notes: I don't really need iframes, just the images, but if I only use img tags, the problem appears in Chrome and FF as well. I also don't really need to load these iframes dynamically, I was just trying to abstract the issue further and allow a delayed load for the latter 2 images.

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  • GROUP BY and SUM distinct date across 2 tables

    - by kenitech
    I'm not sure if this is possible in one mysql query so I might just combine the results via php. I have 2 tables: 'users' and 'billing' I'm trying to group summed activity for every date that is available in these two tables. 'users' is not historical data but 'billing' contains a record for each transaction. In this example I am showing a user's status which I'd like to sum for created date and deposit amounts that I would also like to sum by created date. I realize there is a bit of a disconnect between the data but I'd like to some all of it together and display it as seen below. This will show me an overview of all of the users by when they were created and what the current statuses are next to total transactions. I've tried UNION as well as LEFT JOIN but I can't seem to get either to work. Union example is pretty close but doesn't combine the dates into one row. ( SELECT created, SUM(status) as totalActive, NULL as totalDeposit FROM users GROUP BY created ) UNION ( SELECT created, NULL as totalActive, SUM(transactionAmount) as totalDeposit FROM billing GROUP BY created ) I've also tried using a date lookup table and joining on the dates but the SUM values are being added multiple times. note: I don't care about the userIds at all but have it in here for the example. users table (where status of '1' denotes "active") (one record for each user) created | userId | status 2010-03-01 | 10 | 0 2010-03-01 | 11 | 1 2010-03-01 | 12 | 1 2010-03-10 | 13 | 0 2010-03-12 | 14 | 1 2010-03-12 | 15 | 1 2010-03-13 | 16 | 0 2010-03-15 | 17 | 1 billing table (record created for every instance of a billing "transaction" created | userId | transactionAmount 2010-03-01 | 10 | 50 2010-03-01 | 18 | 50 2010-03-01 | 19 | 100 2010-03-10 | 89 | 55 2010-03-15 | 16 | 50 2010-03-15 | 12 | 90 2010-03-22 | 99 | 150 desired result: created | sumStatusActive | sumStatusInactive | sumTransactions 2010-03-01 | 2 | 1 | 200 2010-03-10 | 0 | 1 | 55 2010-03-12 | 2 | 0 | 0 2010-03-13 | 0 | 0 | 0 2010-03-15 | 1 | 0 | 140 2010-03-22 | 0 | 0 | 150 Table dump: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `users` ( `created` date NOT NULL, `userId` int(11) NOT NULL, `status` smallint(6) NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; INSERT INTO `users` (`created`, `userId`, `status`) VALUES ('2010-03-01', 10, 0), ('2010-03-01', 11, 1), ('2010-03-01', 12, 1), ('2010-03-10', 13, 0), ('2010-03-12', 14, 1), ('2010-03-12', 15, 1), ('2010-03-13', 16, 0), ('2010-03-15', 17, 1); CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `billing` ( `created` date NOT NULL, `userId` int(11) NOT NULL, `transactionAmount` int(11) NOT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; INSERT INTO `billing` (`created`, `userId`, `transactionAmount`) VALUES ('2010-03-01', 10, 50), ('2010-03-01', 18, 50), ('2010-03-01', 19, 100), ('2010-03-10', 89, 55), ('2010-03-15', 16, 50), ('2010-03-15', 12, 90), ('2010-03-22', 99, 150);

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  • Large Data Table with first column fixed

    - by bhavya_w
    I have structure as shown in the fiddle http://jsfiddle.net/5LN7U/. <section class="container"> <section class="field"> <ul> <li> Question 1 </li> <li> question 2 </li> <li> question 3 </li> <li> question 4 </li> <li> question 5 </li> <li> question 6 </li> <li> question 7 </li> </ul> </section> <section class="datawrap"> <section class="datawrapinner"> <ul> <li><b>Answer 1 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 2 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 3 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 4 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 5 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 6 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 7 :</b></li> </ul> </section> </section> </section> Basically its a table structure made using divs. The first column contains a long list of questions and the second column contains answers/multiple answers which can be quite big ( there has to be horizontal scrolling in the second column.) The problem i am facing is when i scroll downwards the second column which has the horizontal scroll bar is also scrolling downward. I want horizontal scrollbar to be fixed there. as in it should be always fixed there no matter how much i scroll vertically. Much Like Google Spreadsheets: where the first column stays fixed and there's horizontal scrolling on rest of the columns with over vertical scrolling for whole of the data. I cannot used position fixed in the second column. P.S : please no lectures on using div's for making a table structure. I have my own reasons. and its kinda urgent. Thanks in advance.

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