Search Results

Search found 48324 results on 1933 pages for 'how stuff works'.

Page 824/1933 | < Previous Page | 820 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831  | Next Page >

• Templates vs. coded HTML

  - by Alan Harris-Reid

  I have a web-app consisting of some html forms for maintaining some tables (SQlite, with CherryPy for web-server stuff). First I did it entirely 'the Python way', and generated html strings via. code, with common headers, footers, etc. defined as functions in a separate module. I also like the idea of templates, so I tried Jinja2, which I find quite developer-friendly. In the beginning I thought templates were the way to go, but that was when pages were simple. Once .css and .js files were introduced (not necessarily in the same folder as the .html files), and an ever-increasing number of {{...}} variables and {%...%} commands were introduced, things started getting messy at design-time, even though they looked great at run-time. Things got even more difficult when I needed additional javascript in the or sections. As far as I can see, the main advantages of using templates are: Non-dynamic elements of page can easily be viewed in browser during design. Except for {} placeholders, html is kept separate from python code. If your company has a web-page designer, they can still design without knowing Python. while some disadvantages are: {{}} delimiters visible when viewed at design-time in browser Associated .css and .js files have to be in same folder to see effects in browser at design-time. Data, variables, lists, etc., must be prepared in advanced and either declared globally or passed as parameters to render() function. So - when to use 'hard-coded' HTML, and when to use templates? I am not sure of the best way to go, so I would be interested to hear other developers' views. TIA, Alan

  Read the article

• ASP MVC: Sending an E-mail

  - by wh0emPah

  Okay I'm kindoff new to the .NET platform. And currently i'm learning ASP MVC. I want to send an e-mail from my program and i have the following code: public void sendVerrificationEmail() { //create the mail message MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); //set the addresses mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.To.Add("[email protected]"); //set the content mail.Subject = "This is an email"; mail.Body = "this is a sample body with html in it. <b>This is bold</b> <font color=#336699>This is blue</font>"; mail.IsBodyHtml = true; //send the message SmtpClient smtp = new SmtpClient("127.0.0.1"); smtp.Send(mail); } Now when i execute this code i'll get the following exception: System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:25 Now i'm very very new to the IIS manager & stuff. so there is probably something wrong there. Do i need to install a virtual smtp server or something?. Currently i have following settings (sorry not allowed to uplaod images yet =) ): http://img153.imageshack.us/img153/695/capture2p.png I've been looking for a few hours now but i can't seem to find a working solution. Help would be appreciated! Tyvm.

  Read the article

• Zend: How to authenticate using OpenId on local server.

  - by NAVEED

  I am using zend framework. Now I want to authenticate users with other already registered accounts using RPX. I am following the 3 steps as described at RPX site: 1- Get the Widget 2- Receive Tokens 3- Choose Providers I created a controller(person) and action(signin) to show widget and my own signin form. When following action (http://test.dev/#person/personsignin) is called then my own login form and widget is shown successfully. # is used in above URL for AJAX indication. public function personsigninAction() { $this->view->jsonEncoded = true; // Person Signin Form $PersonSigninForm = new Form_PersonSignin(); $this->view->PersonSigninForm = $PersonSigninForm; $this->view->PersonSigninForm->setAction( $this->view->url() ); $request = $this->getRequest(); if ( $request->isPost() ) { } } There are two problems while login using openid widget: When I am authenticated from outside(for example: Yahoo) then I am redirected to http://test.dev, therefor indexAction in called in indexController and home page is shown. I want to redirect to http://test.dev/#person/personsignin after authentication and want to set session in isPost() condition of personsigninAction() (described above). For now I consider indexAction to be called when outside authentication is done. Now I posted the code from http://gist.github.com/291396 in indexAction to follow step 3 mentioned above. But it is giving me following error: An error occured: Invalid parameter: apiKey Am I using the right way to use this. This is my very first attempt to this stuff. Can someone tell me the exact steps using my above actions? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Beginner question about CSS and layout and height

  - by vtortola

  Hi, I'm trying to create a very simple page that contains a container, a header, a left column and a footer: [containter] [header /] [content /] [leftBar /] [footer /] [/containter] (Sorry, I cannot paste the code properly, only appears the tag "body" and the rest disapears :S ... ) As you can see, very simple stuff. I want to use the 100% of the height, as I can do with the width, but I simply don`t get it work :S At his moment I'm using min-height, but how could I use the height:100% ? What I like is that the footer is always visible, and you scroll the content. This is what I have till the moment: body { font-family: Verdana; font-size: 0.8em; background-color:#f1f1f1; } container { border:solid 2px Black; position:absolute; left:10%; width:80%; margin:auto; } header { height:20px; background: #DDDDDD; } leftBar { width: 20%; background: #669966; min-height:600px; postion:absolute; top:20px; bottom:20px; } content { float:right; background-color: #cdcde6; position:absolute; left:20%; right:0px; bottom:20px; top:20px; padding:5px; } footer { position:absolute; height:20px; } I'm reading a book about CSS, but I still don't get the part about the height :S Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Ajax call to parent window after form submission

  - by David

  Hi all, Pardon the complicated title. Here's my situation: I'm working on a Grails app, and using jQuery for some of the more complex UI stuff. The way the system is set up, I have an item, which can have various files (user-supplied) associated with it. On my Item/show view, there is a link to add a file. This link pops up a jQuery modal dialog, which displays my file upload form (a remote .gsp). So, the user selects the file and enters a comment, and when the form is submitted, the dialog gets closed, and the list of files on the Item/show view is refreshed. I was initially accomplishing this by adding onclick="javascript:window.parent.$('#myDialog').dialog('close');" to my submit button. This worked fine, but when submitting some larger files, I end up with a race condition where the dialog closes and the file list is refreshed before the new file is saved, and so the list of files is out of date (the file still gets saved properly). So my question is, what is the best way to ensure that the dialog is not closed until after the form submit operation completes? I've tried using the <g:formRemote tag in Grails, and closing the dialog in the "after" attribute (according to the Grails docs, the script is called after form submission), but I receive an error (taken from FireBug) stating that window.parent.$('#myDialog').dialog is not a function Is this a simple JavaScript/Grails syntax issue that I'm missing here, or am I going about this entirely wrong? Thanks so much for your time and assistance!

  Read the article

• JQUERY, Compare two Text Blocks, and then animate only the new text

  - by nobosh

  I have two blocks of text Text Block 1 - Currently displayed on the page: "Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa" But now Block 1 on the backend is: "Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsaadskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasdadskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsaadskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasdadskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsaadskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsaadskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsaadskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa Ahd Hd ahaSdjdajs dadjs jasd adskadskl1lksad klasd klasd dsa" I'd like to update the original Block 1 that's on the page, with the Block 2 that's on the server to the page. And I'd like to append, and not flash the entire block. So only the new stuff is flashed. Any ideas on how to do this in JQUERY?

  Read the article

• Do overlays/tooltips work correctly in Emacs for Windows?

  - by Cheeso

  I'm using Flymake on C# code, emacs v22.2.1 on Windows. The Flymake stuff has been working well for me. For those who don't know, you can read an overview of flymake, but the quick story is that flymake repeatedly builds the source file you are currently working on in the background, for the purpose of doing syntax checking. It then highlights the compiler warnings and erros in the current buffer. Flymake didn't work for C# initially, but I "monkey-patched it" and it works nicely now. If you edit C# in emacs, I highly recommend using flymake. The only problem I have is with the UI. Flymake highlights the errors and warnings nicely, and then inserts "overlays" with the full error or warning text. IF I hover the mouse pointer over the highlighted line in code, the overlay pops up. But as you can see, the overlay (tooltip) is truncated, and it doesn't display correctly. Flymake seems to be doing the right thing, it's the overlay part that seems broken., and overlay seems to do the right thing. It's the tooltip that is displayed incorrectly. Do overlays tooltips work correctly in emacs for Windows? Where do I look to fix this?

  Read the article

• pgsql.so is not loaded in PHP

  - by Obay

  Hi, I've been tasked to create a PHP app which accesses an existing PostgreSQL database. This is my first time working with Postgre, not to mention the PHP has already been installed in the Linux box on which the app is supposed to run. I have no experience setting up this stuff, I just code. My question is that I can't seem to get the Postgre extension working in PHP. I checked the php.ini file, there were no "extension=..." lines. So I added "extension=pgsql.so". I then checked the "extension_dir" and found that there were only 2 files in there (ldap.so, phpcups.so), I added a pgsql.so file taken from another Linux box. I restarted httpd. And it does not work. I couldn't find any "pgsql" or "postgre" in phpinfo(). Forgive my noobness. I know too little Linux. I would really appreciate it if you can point me to the right direction.

  Read the article

• vlad the deployer: why do I need a scm folder?

  - by egarcia

  I'm learning to use vlad the deployer and I've got a question. Since I'm still learning I don't know what is pertinent to the question and what isn't, so please bear with me if I'm a little verbose. I've got 2 environments for a new application (test and production) besides my development machine. I've figured out this way to do the initial setup in my vlad.rake: namespace :test task :set set :domain, 'test.myserver.com' end end namespace :production task :set set :domain, 'www.myserver.com' end end This way I can have environment-specific stuff inside the namespaces, and still have shared tasks. For example, this would be the initial setup for test: rake vlad:test:set vlad:setup vlad:update This creates the following folders on my test server: releases/ scm/ shared/ current -> symlink to last release (inside the releases folder) My question is: what's the point of the scm folder? Every time I do vlad:update, the following happens: svn checkout on the scm/ folder above svn export on the /releases/{date} folder update current symlink So scm is a copy of my repository... but then there's an "export" copy of the repository on /releases/{date}. And that is the one used by the application... scm doesn't seem to be used by anyone? Wouldn't I be just fine without the scm folder?

  Read the article

• Overriding deep functions in javascript

  - by PintSizedCat

  I'm quite new to javascript but have undertaken a task to get better aquainted with it. However, I am running into some problems with jQuery. The following javascript is the code that is in a third party jQuery plugin and I would love to be able to override the funFunction() function here to do my own implementation. Is this possible, if so, how can I do it? I've been doing a fair amount of searching and have tried a number of methods for overriding the function using things like: jQuery.blah.funFunction = funtion() { alert("like this"); }; Main code: (function($) { $.extend( { blah: new function() { this.construct = = function(settings) { //Construct... stuff }; function funFunction() { //Function I want to override } } }); })(jQuery); For those further interested I am trying to override tablesorter so that the only way a user can sort a column is in ascending order only. Edit: There is a wordpress installation that uses WP-Table-Reloaded which in turn uses this plugin. I don't want to change the core code for this plugin because if there was ever an update I would then have to make sure that my predecessor knew exactly what I had done. I've been programming for a long time and feel like I should easily be able to pick up javascript whilst also looking at jQuery. I know exactly what I need to do for this, just not how I can override this function.

  Read the article

• rename files with the same name

  - by snorpey

  Hi. I use the following function to rename thumbnails. For example, if I upload a file called "image.png" to an upload folder, and this folder already has a file named "image.png" in it, the new file automatically gets renamed to "image-copy-1.png". If there also is a file called "image-copy-1.png" it gets renamed to "image-copy-2.png" and so on. The following function returns the new filename. At least that's what it is supposed to do... The renaming doesn't seeem to work correctly, though. Sometimes it produces strange results, like: 1.png 1-copy-1.png 1-copy-2.png 1-copy-2-copy-1.png 1-copy-2-copy-3.png I hope you understand my problem, despite my description being somewhat complex... Can you tell me what went wrong here? (bonus question: Is regular expressions the right tool for doing this kind of stuff?) <?php function renameDuplicates($path, $file) { $fileName = pathinfo($path . $file, PATHINFO_FILENAME); $fileExtension = "." . pathinfo($path . $file, PATHINFO_EXTENSION); if(file_exists($path . $file)) { $fileCopy = $fileName . "-copy-1"; if(file_exists($path . $fileCopy . $fileExtension)) { if ($contains = preg_match_all ("/.*?(copy)(-)(\\d+)/is", $fileCopy, $matches)) { $copyIndex = $matches[3][0]; $fileName = substr($fileCopy, 0, -(strlen("-copy-" . $copyIndex))) . "-copy-" . ($copyIndex + 1); } } else { $fileName .= "-copy-1"; } } $returnValue = $fileName . $fileExtension; return $returnValue; }?>

  Read the article

• ai: Determining what tests to run to get most useful data

  - by Sai Emrys

  This is for http://cssfingerprint.com I have a system (see about page on site for details) where: I need to output a ranked list, with confidences, of categories that match a particular feature vector the binary feature vectors are a list of site IDs & whether this session detected a hit feature vectors are, for a given categorization, somewhat noisy (sites will decay out of history, and people will visit sites they don't normally visit) categories are a large, non-closed set (user IDs) my total feature space is approximately 50 million items (URLs) for any given test, I can only query approx. 0.2% of that space I can only make the decision of what to query, based on results so far, ~10-30 times, and must do so in <~100ms (though I can take much longer to do post-processing, relevant aggregation, etc) getting the AI's probability ranking of categories based on results so far is mildly expensive; ideally the decision will depend mostly on a few cheap sql queries I have training data that can say authoritatively that any two feature vectors are the same category but not that they are different (people sometimes forget their codes and use new ones, thereby making a new user id) I need an algorithm to determine what features (sites) are most likely to have a high ROI to query (i.e. to better discriminate between plausible-so-far categories [users], and to increase certainty that it's any given one). This needs to take into balance exploitation (test based on prior test data) and exploration (test stuff that's not been tested enough to find out how it performs). There's another question that deals with a priori ranking; this one is specifically about a posteriori ranking based on results gathered so far. Right now, I have little enough data that I can just always test everything that anyone else has ever gotten a hit for, but eventually that won't be the case, at which point this problem will need to be solved. I imagine that this is a fairly standard problem in AI - having a cheap heuristic for what expensive queries to make - but it wasn't covered in my AI class, so I don't actually know whether there's a standard answer. So, relevant reading that's not too math-heavy would be helpful, as well as suggestions for particular algorithms. What's a good way to approach this problem?

  Read the article

• Convert 4 bytes to int

  - by Oscar Reyes

  I'm reading a binary file like this: InputStream in = new FileInputStream( file ); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; while( ( in.read(buffer ) > -1 ) { int a = // ??? } What I want to do it to read up to 4 bytes and create a int value from those but, I don't know how to do it. I kind of feel like I have to grab 4 bytes at a time, and perform one "byte" operation ( like << & FF and stuff like that ) to create the new int What's the idiom for this? EDIT Ooops this turn out to be a bit more complex ( to explain ) What I'm trying to do is, read a file ( may be ascii, binary, it doesn't matter ) and extract the integers it may have. For instance suppose the binary content ( in base 2 ) : 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000001 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000010 The integer representation should be 1 , 2 right? :- / 1 for the first 32 bits, and 2 for the remaining 32 bits. 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 Would be -1 and 01111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 Would be Integer.MAX_VALUE ( 2147483647 )

  Read the article

• asp.net does not Redirect when in frameset

  - by Snoop Dogg

  I have developed an application on asp.net. I uploaded it to my host. lets say http://myhost/app. My manager wrapped this address into an empty frameset on http://anotherhost/somename and sets the src of frame to http://myhost/ap. And so nobody can login. When the button is hit, it posts back (browser loads stuff, progress bar fills up and ends) but nothing happens. Does not redirect. (I have set IE to alwaysAllowCookies and it now does work, but other people still cannot) I think there is something that I have no clue about framesets and ASP.NET ps: I never use frames but could not convince my manager in doing so. He likes to develop in front page :) Whatz happening? Thx in advance protected void btnLogin_Click(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Member member = Logic.DoLogin(txtUsername.Text.Trim(), txtPassword.Text.Trim()); if (null == member) { lblError.Text = "Invalid Login !"; return; } CurrentMember = member; ///CurrentMember is an inherited property that accesses Session["member"] = member Response.Redirect("Default.aspx");

  Read the article

• Why user control with code behind file doesn't want to compile under MVC2?

  - by kyrisu

  I have user control in my MVC2 app placed in the Content folder (it's not supposed to be a view, just reusable part of the app). UserControl1.ascx looks like: <@ Control AutoEventWireup="true" Language="C#" CodeFile="~/Content/UserControl1.ascx.cs" Inherits="MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1" %> <div runat="server" id="mydiv"> <asp:LinkButton id="lb_text" runat="server"></asp:LinkButton> </div> UserControl1.ascx.cs looks like: using System; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; namespace MVCDrill.Content { public class UserControl1 : UserControl { public string Text { get { return this.lb_text.Text; } set { this.lb_text.Text = value; } } } } I'm pretty sure this kind of stuff compiled under webforms but I'm getting compilation error: 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' does not contain a definition for 'lb_text' and no extension method 'lb_text' accepting a first argument of type 'MVCDrill.Content.UserControl1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Am I missing something? How to change it (what is the alternative) in MVC2 ? p.s. Intellisense sees lb_text with no problem. I've tried with different controls with the same outcome.

  Read the article

• Is there any way to access files in your source tree in Android?

  - by Chris Thompson

  Hi all, This is a bit unorthodox but I'm trying to figure out if there's a way to access files stored in the src tree of my applications apk in Android. I'm trying to use i-Jetty (Jetty implementation for Android) and rather than use it as a separate application and manually download my war file, I'd rather just bake i-jetty in. However, in order to use (easily) standard html/jsp I need to be able to give it a document root, preferably within my application's apk file. I know Android specifically works to prevent you from accessing (freely) the stuff on the actual system so this may not be possible, but I'm thinking it might be possible to access something within the apk. One option to work around this would be to have all of the files stored in the res directory and then copy them to the sdcard on startup but this wouldn't allow me to automatically remove the files on uninstall. To give you an idea of what I've tried, currently, the html files are stored in org.webtext.android Context rootContext = new Context(server_, "/", Context.SESSIONS); rootContext.setResourceBase("org/webtext/webapp"); Returns a 404 error. final URL url = this.getClassLoader().getResource("org/webtext/webapp"); Context html = new WebAppContext(url.toExternalForm(), "/"); Blows up with a NullPointerException because no URL is returned from the getResource call. Any thoughts would be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Chris

  Read the article

• Getting Google results in Java? Need help!

  - by Cris Carter

  Hello. Right now, I'm trying to get the results from Google in Java, by searching for a term. I'm using a desktop program, not an applet. That in itself isn't complicated. but then Google gave me a 403 error. Anyways, I added referrer and User Agent and then it worked. Now, my problem is that I don't get the results page from Google. Instead, I get their script which gets the results page. My code right now simply uses a GET request on "http://www.google.com/search?q=" + Dork; Then it outputs each line. Here is what I get when I run my program: <.!doctype html<.head<.titledork - Google Search<./title<.scriptwindow.google={kEI:"9myaS-Date).getTime()}}};try{}catch(u){}window.google.jsrt_kill=1; align:center}#logo{display:block;overflow:hidden;position:relative;width:103px;height:37px; <./ script<./div Lots of stuff like that. I shortened it (A LOT) and put in dots to fit it here. So my big question is: How do I turn this whole mess into the nice results page I get when searching Google with a browser? Any help would be seriously appreciated, and I really need the answer fast. Also, please keep in mind that I do NOT want to use Google's API for this. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• IoC & Interfaces Best Practices

  - by n8wrl

  I'm experimenting with IoC on my way to TDD by fiddling with an existing project. In a nutshell, my question is this: what are the best practices around IoC when public and non-public methods are of interest? There are two classes: public abstract class ThisThingBase { public virtual void Method1() {} public virtual void Method2() {} public ThatThing GetThat() { return new ThatThing(this); } internal virtual void Method3() {} internal virtual void Method4() {} } public class Thathing { public ThatThing(ThisThingBase thing) { m_thing = thing; } ... } ThatThing does some stuff using its ThisThingBase reference to call methods that are often overloaded by descendents of ThisThingBase. Method1 and Method2 are public. Method3 and Method4 are internal and only used by ThatThings. I would like to test ThatThing without ThisThing and vice-versa. Studying up on IoC my first thought was that I should define an IThing interface, implement it by ThisThingBase and pass it to the ThatThing constructor. IThing would be the public interface clients could call but it doesn't include Method3 or Method4 that ThatThing also needs. Should I define a 2nd interface - IThingInternal maybe - for those two methods and pass BOTH interfaces to ThatThing?

  Read the article

• WPF HiercharchicalDataTemplate.DataType: How to react on interfaces?

  - by David Schmitt

  Problem I've got a collection of IThings and I'd like to create a HierarchicalDataTemplate for a TreeView. The straightforward DataType={x:Type local:IThing} of course doesn't work, probably because the WPF creators didn't want to handle the possible ambiguities. Since this should handle IThings from different sources at the same time, referencing the implementing class is out of question. Current solution For now I'm using a ViewModel which proxies IThing through a concrete implementation: public interface IThing { string SomeString { get; } ObservableCollection<IThing> SomeThings { get; } // many more stuff } public class IThingViewModel { public IThing Thing { get; } public IThingViewModel(IThing it) { this.Thing = it; } } <!-- is never applied --> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:IThing}"> <!-- is applied, but looks strange --> <HierarchicalDataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:IThingViewModel}" ItemsSource="{Binding Thing.SomeThings}"> <TextBox Text="{Binding Thing.SomeString}"/> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> Question Is there a better (i.e. no proxy) way?

  Read the article

• MVC 2 Data annotations problem

  - by Louzzzzzz

  Hi. Going mad now. I have a MVC solution that i've upgraded from MVC 1 to 2. It all works fine.... except the Validation! Here's some code: In the controller: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Globalization; using System.Linq; using System.Security.Principal; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using MF.Services.Authentication; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; namespace MF.Controllers { //basic viewmodel public class LogOnViewData { [Required] public string UserName { get; set; } [Required] public string Password { get; set; } } [HandleError] public class AccountController : Controller { [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOn(LogOnViewData lvd, string returnUrl) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { //do stuff - IsValid is always true } } } } The ModelState is always valid. The model is being populated correctly however. Therefore, if I leave both username and password blank, and post the form the model state is still valid. Argh! Extra info: using structure map for IoD. Previously, before upgrading to MVC 2 was using the MS data annotation library so had this in my global.asax.cs: ModelBinders.Binders.DefaultBinder = new Microsoft.Web.Mvc.DataAnnotations.DataAnnotationsModelBinder(); Have removed that now. I'm sure i'm doing something really basic and wrong. If someone could point it out that would be marvellous. Cheers

  Read the article

• Overriding windows authentication for a .NET application

  - by JoshReedSchramm

  I have a .NET application where the homepage (default.aspx) should be accessible by anyone. There is also a reporting page (reporting.aspx) that I want to secure via windows authentication and only allow access to a particular set of AD groups. Right now the way my web.config is setup it is securing the reporting page but on the home page it prompts the user for login credentials. If they hit esc they can continue to the page though so it isnt actually securing it. I need to prevent it from prompting the user. How do i need to setup my config. Here is what i have now - <system.web> <authentication mode="Windows" /> <identity impersonate="true" /> <authorization> <allow roles="BUILTIN\Administrators, DomainName\Manager" /> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> ...MORE STUFF... </system.web> <location path="default.aspx"> <system.web> <identity impersonate="false" /> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location>

  Read the article

• sqrt(int_value + 0.0) -- Does it have a purpose?

  - by Earlz

  Hello, while doing some homework in my very strange C++ book, which I've been told before to throw away, had a very peculiar code segment. I know homework stuff always throws in extra "mystery" to try to confuse you like indenting 2 lines after a single-statement for-loop. But this one I'm confused on because it seems to serve some real-purpose. basically it is like this: int counter=10; ... if(pow(floor(sqrt(counter+0.0)),2) == counter) ... I'm interested in this part especially: sqrt(counter+0.0) Is there some purpose to the +0.0? Is this the poormans way of doing a static cast to a double? Does this avoid some compiler warning on some compiler I do not use? The entire program printed the exact same thing and compiled without warnings on g++ whenever I left out the +0.0 part. Maybe I'm not using a weird enough compiler? Edit: Also, does gcc just break standard and not make an error for Ambiguous reference since sqrt can take 3 different types of parameters? [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ cat calc.cpp #include <cmath> int main(){ int counter=0; sqrt(counter); } [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $ g++ calc.cpp /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcpy() is almost always misused, please use strlcpy() /usr/lib/libstdc++.so.47.0: warning: strcat() is almost always misused, please use strlcat() [earlz@EarlzBeta-~/projects/homework1] $

  Read the article

• Use localeURL middleware with apache prefix

  - by Olivier R.

  Good morning everyone, I Got a question about localeURL usage. Everything works great for me with url like this : www.mysite.com/ If I type www.mysite.com/ in adress bar, it turns correctly in www.mysite.com/en/ for example. If I use the view change_locale, it's also all right (ie change www.mysite.com/en/ in www.mysite.com/fr/). But my application use apache as server, and use a prefix for the site, that gives url like this : www.mysite.com/prefix/ If I type www.mysite.com/prefix/ in the adress bar, the adress turns into www.mysite.com/en/ without prefix (so 404) I change code of view to manage our settings.SERVER_PREFIX value : def change_locale(request) : """ Redirect to a given url while changing the locale in the path The url and the locale code need to be specified in the request parameters. O. Rochaix; Taken from localeURL view, and tuned to manage : - SERVER_PREFIX from settings.py """ next = request.REQUEST.get('next', None) if not next: next = request.META.get('HTTP_REFERER', None) if not next: next = settings.SERVER_PREFIX + '/' next = urlsplit(next).path prefix = False if settings.SERVER_PREFIX!="" and next.startswith(settings.SERVER_PREFIX) : prefix = True next = "/" + next.lstrip(settings.SERVER_PREFIX) _, path = utils.strip_path (next) if request.method == 'POST': locale = request.POST.get('locale', None) if locale and check_for_language(locale): path = utils.locale_path(path, locale) if prefix : path = settings.SERVER_PREFIX + path response = http.HttpResponseRedirect(path) return response with this customized view, i'm able to correctly change language, but i'm not sure that's the right way of doing stuff. Is there any option on localeURL to manage prefix of apache ?

  Read the article

• PJSIP Custom Registration Header (iOS)

  - by Daniel Redington

  I am attempting to setup SIP communication with an internal server (using the PJSIP library), however, this server requires a custom header field with a specified header value for the REGISTRATION call. For example's sake we'll call this required header "MyHeader". From what I've found, the pjsua_acc_add() function will add an account and register it to the server using a config struct. The parameter "reg_hdr_list" of the config struct has the description "The optional custom SIP headers to be put in the registration request." Which sounds like exactly what I need, however doesn't seem to have any effect on the call itself. Here's what I have so far: pjsua_acc_config cfg; pjsua_acc_config_default(&cfg); //...Some other config stuff related to the server... pjsip_hdr test; test.name = pj_str("MyHeader"); test.sname = pj_str("MyHdr"); test.type = PJSIP_H_OTHER; test.prev = cfg.reg_hdr_list.prev; test.next = cfg.reg_hdr_list.next; cfg.reg_hdr_list = test; pj_status_t status; status = pjsua_acc_add(&cfg, PJ_TRUE, &acc_id); From the server side, there are no extra header fields or anything. And the struct that is used to define the header (pjsua_hdr) has no "value" or equivalent field, so even if it did create the header, how does it set the value? Here's the refrence for the header list definition: Link And the reference for the header struct: Link Any help would be greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Qt 5.3 OpenGL - vertex buffer object drawing using the core profile

  - by user3700881

  Im using Qt 5.3 to create a QWindow to do some basic rendering stuff. The QWindow is declared like this: class OpenGLWindow : public QWindow, protected QOpenGLFunctions_3_3_Core { Q_OBJECT ... } It is initialized in the constructor: OpenGLWindow::OpenGLWindow(QWindow *parent) : QWindow(parent) { QSurfaceFormat format; format.setVersion(3,3); format.setProfile(QSurfaceFormat::CoreProfile); this->setSurfaceType(OpenGLSurface); this->setFormat(format); this->create(); _context = new QOpenGLContext; _context->setFormat(format); _context->create(); _context->makeCurrent(this); this->initializeOpenGLFunctions(); ... } And that's the rendering code: void OpenGLWindow::render() { if(!isExposed()) return; _context->makeCurrent(this); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glUseProgram(_shaderProgram); glBindBuffer(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, _positionBufferObject); glEnableVertexAttribArray(0); glVertexAttribPointer(0, 4, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, 0); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLES, 0, 3); glDisableVertexAttribArray(0); glUseProgram(0); _context->swapBuffers(this); } I am trying to draw a simple triangle using a vertex and fragment shader. The problem is that the triangle is not showing up when the core profile is set. Only when I set the OpenGL version to 2.0 or when I use the compatibility profile, it shows up. From my point of view that doesn't make any sense because I am not using fixed functionality at all. What am I missing?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 820 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831  | Next Page >