Search Results

Search found 26285 results on 1052 pages for 'grant back'.

Page 825/1052 | < Previous Page | 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831 832  | Next Page >

  • Android: SharedPreference: Defaults not set at startup...

    - by Allan
    I have Listpreferences in my app. They don't appear to be setting to their defaults right after installation - they appear to be null. I'm trying to figure out why my default preferences are not being set right after installation. In my main code I have: SharedPreferences sp = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(this); InUnits = sp.getString("List1", "defValue"); InAngs = sp.getString("List2", "defValue"); OutUnits = sp.getString("List3", "defValue"); OutAngs = sp.getString("List4", "defValue"); Right after the above code executes, each variable contains "defValue" instead of the actual values I have assigned in my ListPreference below. My preference xml file is called, "settings.xml". Here's what one of the ListPreferences there looks like: <ListPreference android:key="List1" android:title="Input: Alph" android:summary="Choose Alph or Ralph" android:entries="@array/inputAlph" android:entryValues="@array/input_Alph_codes" android:dialogTitle="Input Alph" android:defaultValue="ININ"/> Here's what some of my strings.xml file looks like: <string-array name="inputUnits"> <item>Alph</item> <item>Ralph</item> </string-array> <string-array name="input_Alph_codes"> <item>ININ</item> <item>INMM</item> </string-array> When I go to menu, and then settings, I can see my defaults checked (radiobuttoned). Then when I go back from the settings menu to my main screen - all is well - for life! ...then each var above is assigned the proper default value. This only happens when I first install my app on the phone. After I go to the settings screen once and then right out of it, the app is fine and accepts any setting changes. By the way, as you can see, "List1" is the android:key within a file called settings.xml in my res/xml folder.

    Read the article

  • Creating Drill-Down Detail UITableView from JSON NSDictionary

    - by Michael Robinson
    I'm have a load of trouble finding out how to do this, I want to show this in a UITableDetailView (Drill-Down style) with each item in a different cell. All of the things I've read all show how to load a single image on the detail instead of showing as a UITableView. Does the dictionary have to have "children" in order to load correctly? Here is the code for the first view creating *dict from the JSON rowsArray. I guess what I'm looking for is what to put in the FollowingDetailViewController.m to see the rest of *dict contents, so when selecting a row, it loads the rest of the *dict. I have rowsArray coming back as follows: '{ loginName = Johnson; memberid = 39; name = Kris; age = ;}, etc,etc... Thanks, // SET UP TABLE & CELLS - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } NSDictionary *dict = [rowsArray objectAtIndex: indexPath.row]; cell.textLabel.text = [dict objectForKey:@"name"]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = [dict objectForKey:@"loginName"]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; return cell; } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; //GET JSON FROM WEBSERVICES: NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://10.0.1.8/~imac/iphone/jsontest.php"]; NSString *jsonreturn = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; NSData *jsonData = [jsonreturn dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF32BigEndianStringEncoding]; NSError *error = nil; NSDictionary * dict = [[CJSONDeserializer deserializer] deserializeAsDictionary:jsonData error:&error]; if (dict) { rowsArray = [dict objectForKey:@"member"]; [rowsArray retain]; } [jsonreturn release]; } //GO TO DETAIL VIEW: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { FollowingDetailViewController *aFollowDetail = [[FollowingDetailViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"FollowingDetailView" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:aFollowDetail animated:YES]; }

    Read the article

  • Nesting gridview/formview in webuser control inside a parent gridview

    - by Stuart
    Hi, I'm developing an ASP.net 2 website for our HR department, where the front page has a matrix of all our departments against pay grades, with links in each cell to all the jobs for that department for that grade. These links take you a page with a gridview populated dynamically, as each department has a different number of teams, e.g. Finance has one team, IT has four. Each cell has a webuser control inserted into it. The user control has a sql datasource, pulling out all the job titles and the primary key, popuating a formview, with a linkbutton whose text value is bound to the job title. (I'm using a usercontrol as this page will also be used to show the results of a search of all roles in a range of grades for a department, and will have a varying number of rows). I've got everything to display nicely, but when I click on the linkbutton, instead of running the code I've put in the Click event, the page posts back without firing any events. Having looked around, it looks like I have to put an addhandler line in somewhere, but I'm not sure where, could anyone give me some pointers please? (fairly numpty please, I'm not too experience in ASP yet and am winging it. I'm also using VB but C# isn't a problem) This is how I'm inserting the controls into the parent grid, have I missed anything obvious? For row As Int16 = 0 To dgvRoleGrid.Rows.Count - 1 tempwuc = New UserControl tempwuc = LoadControl("wucRoleList.ascx") tempwuc.ID = "wucRoleList" & col.ToString tempwuc.EnableViewState = True dgvRoleGrid.Rows(row).Cells(col).Controls.Add(tempwuc) CType(dgvRoleGrid.Rows(row).FindControl(tempwuc.ID), wucRoleList).specialtyid = specid CType(dgvRoleGrid.Rows(row).FindControl(tempwuc.ID), wucRoleList).bandid = dgvRoleGrid.DataKeys(row)(0) CType(dgvRoleGrid.Rows(row).FindControl(tempwuc.ID), wucRoleList).familyid = Session("familyid") Next

    Read the article

  • Achieving NHibernate Nested Transactions Behavior

    - by jfneis
    Hi all, I'm trying to achieve some kind of nested transaction behavior using NHibernate's transaction control and FlushMode options, but things got a little bit confusing after too much reading, so any confirmation about the facts I list below will be very usefull. What I want is to open one big transaction that splits in little transactions. Imagine the following scenario: TX1 opens a TX and inserts a Person's record; TX2 opens a TX and updates this Person's name to P2; TX2 commits; TX3 opens a TX and updates this Person's name to P3; TX3 rollbacks; TX1 commits; I'd like to see NH sending the INSERT and the TX2 UPDATE to the database, just ignoring what TX3, as it was rolled back. I tried to use FlushMode = Never and only flushing the session after the proper Begins/Commits/Rollbacks have been demanded, but NH always update the database with the object's final state, independent of commits and rollbacks. Is that normal? Does NH really ignores transactional control when working with FlushMode = Never? I've also tried to use FlushMode = Commit and openning the nested transactions, but I discovered that, because ADO.NET, the nested transactions are, actually, always the same transaction. Note that I'm not trying to achieve a "all or nothing" behavior. I'm looking more to a savepoint way of working. Is there a way to do that (savepoints) with NH? Thank you in advance. Filipe

    Read the article

  • What are the reasons to use dos batch programs in Windows?

    - by DVK
    Question What would be a good (ideally, technical) reason to ever program some non-trivial task in dos batch language on a modern Windows system as opposed to downloading either PowerShell, or ActiveState Perl? To be more specific, I make the following two assumptions for the duration of this question: anyone technical enough to be able to write a medium-complexity batch script is technical enough to install either of the scripting interpreters. Neither of those two present enough of a learning curve for basic batch replacement tasks that said curve would outweigh the pain of doing any remotely-non-trivial task in batch. Notes "You need a batch program for autoexec.bat" is not a valid reason. Your autoexec.bat may consist of simply calling non-batch script. If you disagree with either of my 2 assumptions above, that's fine, and I may be wrong. But my question is specifically "assuming those 2 assumptions are correct, what would be the reason to still stick with batch?" If it makes it easier to suspend disbelief (in case you disagree with me), add in a 3rd assumption that the question is limited to people who already posess at least some modicum of PowerShell or Perl experience. To re-iterate - this is not meant to be a subjective question about how easy it is to learn PSh or ASPerl compared to doing advanced batch coding. That is a separate question that is too subjective to be bothered with in this post. Background: I used to do some fairly complicated batch programming back in the elder days, and remember batch as one of the worst possble programming languages I had encountered. The idea for this question came after seeing a bunch of batch questions on SO, and trying to grok the answer of one of them out of sheer curiosity and giving up in pain after a minute, exclaiming mentally "why would anyone go through this pain instead of doing that in 1 line of Perl?" :) My own plausible answer I assume there may be an an likely DOS-compatible system, which has DOS interpreter but has no compatible PowerShell or Perl... I'm not aware of one but not completely impossible.

    Read the article

  • Problem converting a byte array into datatable.

    - by kranthi
    Hi, In my aspx page I have a HTML inputfile type which allows user to browse for a spreadsheet.Once the user choses the file to upload I want to read the content of the spreadsheet and store the content into mysql database table. I am using the following code to read the content of the uploaded file and convert it into a datatable in order into insert it into database table. if (filMyFile.PostedFile != null) { // Get a reference to PostedFile object HttpPostedFile myFile = filMyFile.PostedFile; // Get size of uploaded file int nFileLen = myFile.ContentLength; // make sure the size of the file is > 0 if (nFileLen > 0) { // Allocate a buffer for reading of the file byte[] myData = new byte[nFileLen]; // Read uploaded file from the Stream myFile.InputStream.Read(myData, 0, nFileLen); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); MemoryStream st = new MemoryStream(myData); st.Position = 0; System.Runtime.Serialization.IFormatter formatter = new System.Runtime.Serialization.Formatters.Binary.BinaryFormatter(); dt=(DataTable)formatter.Deserialize(st); } } But I am getting the following error when I am trying to deserialise the byte array into datatable. Binary stream '0' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or object version change between serialization and deserialization. Could someone please tell me what am I doing wrong? I've also tried converting the bytearray into string ,then converting the string back to byte array and convert into datatable.That is also throwing the same error. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Usinng svnadmin dump to revert the latest revision committed

    - by Wux
    What I need is that the latest (mistake) revision being reverted and that the repository does not store it in anyway. That is, I'm trying to erase the latest revision out of existence, NOT trying to fix things by coming back to the latest-1 revision. In other words, I want to avoid the repository growing in size. Suppose head revision is 100. I knew that the suggested answer is that svnadmin dump -r0:80 old-repo | svnadmin load --force-uuid new-repo. What I'm confusing myself about is why not svnadmin dump -r81:100 old-repo Why the first and not the second solution? I suppose svnadmin dump will erase the repository completely? And keeping only revision 0 - 80 in a dump file? Is my understanding of "taking a part out of the repository into a dump file" about svnadmin dump completely wrong? (That is revision 81 - 100 is still there) Sincere apologies if this has been asked. I did spend some time searching though no specific things about this were found. A topic link in case I miss it would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Drag Panel Extender in Ajax?

    - by Surya sasidhar
    hi, i am working on dragpanel extender i write the code for drag panel, it is coming nice but when i drag the panel it going back to the same position where it is initially. This is my code... Untitled Page <style type="text/css"> .outerPanel { border: solid 1px #C0C0C0; background-color: #e1e1e1; width: 200px; height: 300px; z-index:20; padding: 2px; } .dragPanel { border: solid 1px #FFFFFF; background-color: #C0C0C0; width: 194px; height: 15px; color: #FFFFFF; font-weight:bold; padding: 2px; cursor: move; } function setBodyHeightToContentHeight() { document.body.style.height = Math.max(document.documentElement.scrollHeight, document.body.scrollHeight) + "px"; } setBodyHeightToContentHeight(); // Uncomment the line below if you are having problem while resizing the browser window. window.attachEvent('onresize', setBodyHeightToContentHeight); <asp:Panel ID="Panel1" runat="server" CssClass="outerPanel"> <asp:Panel ID="Panel2" runat="server" CssClass="dragPanel"> <b>Dragable Panel</b> </asp:Panel> <p> Surya Sasidhar surya sasidhar Surya Sasidhar surya sasidhar Surya sasidhar surya sasidhar </p> <cc1:DragPanelExtender ID="DragPanelExtender1" TargetControlID="Panel1" DragHandleID ="Panel2" runat="server"> </cc1:DragPanelExtender> </div> </form> and it is ging some javascript error like object required

    Read the article

  • How do I get SSIS Data Flow to put '0.00' in a flat file?

    - by theog
    I have an SSIS package with a Data Flow that takes an ADO.NET data source (just a small table), executes a select * query, and outputs the query results to a flat file (I've also tried just pulling the whole table and not using a SQL select). The problem is that the data source pulls a column that is a Money datatype, and if the value is not zero, it comes into the text flat file just fine (like '123.45'), but when the value is zero, it shows up in the destination flat file as '.00'. I need to know how to get the leading zero back into the flat file. I've tried various datatypes for the output (in the Flat File Connection Manager), including currency and string, but this seems to have no effect. I've tried a case statement in my select, like this: CASE WHEN columnValue = 0 THEN '0.00' ELSE columnValue END (still results in '.00') I've tried variations on that like this: CASE WHEN columnValue = 0 THEN convert(decimal(12,2), '0.00') ELSE convert(decimal(12,2), columnValue) END (Still results in '.00') and: CASE WHEN columnValue = 0 THEN convert(money, '0.00') ELSE convert(money, columnValue) END (results in '.0000000000000000000') This silly little issue is killin' me. Can anybody tell me how to get a zero Money datatype database value into a flat file as '0.00'?

    Read the article

  • Are eCommerce platforms worth it for large scale systems?

    - by codeflunky
    My company and I are building a new system for a relatively large client. We are going to be replacing their entire system, which includes some eCommerce aspects to it among many other things. It is not a typical public shopping site, and there are many things about the system (both back end and front end) that are quite different. Some of the people I work for are convinced that we should be using a third party product to implement the eCommerce pieces (shopping cart, catalog management). Their opinion is that it is a solved problem, and we shouldn't have to reinvent it. Given that direction, I have reviewed around ten different .NET based eCommerce platforms, and I struggle to imagine how we will be able to smoothly integrate any of them without a lot of friction. They are so all-encompassing that I feel like they are probably better suited for implementing simple shopping sites rather than larger systems that happen to have some eCommerce aspects to them. We have a really nice architecture planned for everything else (Entity Framework, ASP.NET MVC, etc.), and my gut is telling me that trying to introduce a third party platform will cause unnecessary fragmentation and difficulty. I would love to hear some opinions from people who have been there. Have you used a third party platform for eCommerce? Was it a typical shopping site or something different? Did you feel it was a help or a hinderance? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • WCF Manual SOAP POST using HttpWebRequest over https with Usertoken

    - by VonBlender
    Hi, I'm writing a client that calls a number of WCF webservices (written externallyt to my company) that are very similar in structure. The design I was hoping to use is to manually build the SOAP message from XML chunks that are stored in a database and then processed through a generic web service handler class. I have access to the WSDL's for each webservice and example working XML. The design approach is such that we can easily add to the message dynamically, hence the reason for not using the auto generated proxy classes I am basically at the last part now with the entire SOAP message constructed but am getting a SOAP fault security error returned. I have used fiddler to compare the message I'm sending with one that is sent using the normal (far simpler...) WCF generated proxy classes and can't see any difference apart from the id attribute of the Usertoken element in the SOAP header. This is where my lack of experience in this area isn't helping. I think this is because the id is generated automatically (presumably because we're using https). My question is how do I generate this programatically? I have searched for hours online but the majority of solutions are either using the proxy classes or not over https. I have briefly looked at WCE but aware this is replaced by WCF now so don't want to waste time looking into this if it's not the solution. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. I can post some code examples when I'm back in work if it will help but the method I'm using is very straightforward and only using XElements and such like at the moment (as we're using linq to sql). thanks, Andy

    Read the article

  • serializing type definitions?

    - by Dave
    I'm not positive I'm going about this the right way. I've got a suite of applications that have varying types of output (custom defined types). For example, I might have a type called Widget: Class Widget Public name as String End Class Throughout the course of operation, when a user experiences a certain condition, the application will take that output instance of widget that user received, serialize it, and log it to the database noting the name of the type. Now, I have other applications that do something similar, but instead of dealing with Widget, it could be some totally random other type with different attributes, but again I serialize the instance, log it to the db, and note the name of the type. I have maybe a half dozen different types and don't anticipate too many additional ones in the future. After all this is said and done, I have an admin interface that looks through these logs, and has the ability for the user to view the contents of this data thats been logged. The Admin app has a reference to all the types involved, and with some basic switch case logic hinged upon the name of the type, will cast it into their original types, and pass it on to some handlers that have basic display logic to spit the data back out in a readable format (one display handler for each type) NOW... all this is well and good... Until one day, my model changed. The Widget class now has deprecated the name attribute and added on a bunch of other attributes. I will of course get type mismatches in the admin side when I try to reconstitute this data. I was wondering if there was some way, at runtime, i could perhaps reflect through my code and get a snapshot of the type definition at that precise moment, serialize it, and store it along with the data so that I could somehow use this to reconstitute it in the future?

    Read the article

  • Rails test db doesn't persist record changes

    - by nathan.f77
    I've been trying to solve a problem for a few weeks now. I am running rspec tests for my Rails app, and they are working fine except for one error that I can't seem get my head around. I am using MySQL with the InnoDB engine. I have set config.use_transactional_fixtures = true in spec_helper.rb I load my test fixtures manually with the command rake spec:db:fixtures:load. The rspec test is being written for a BackgrounDRb worker, and it is testing that a record can have its state updated (through the state_machine gem). Here is my problem: I have a model called Listings. The rspec test calls the update_sold_items method within a file called listing_worker.rb. This method calls listing.sell for a particular record, which sets the listing record's 'state' column to 'sold'. So far, this is all working fine, but when the update_sold_items method finishes, my rspec test fails here: listing = Listing.find_by_listing_id(listing_id) listing.state.should == "sold" expected: "sold", got: "current" (using ==) I've been trying to track down why the state change is not persisting, but am pretty much lost. Here is the result of some debugging code that I placed in the update_sold_items method during the test: pp listing.state # => "current" listing.sell! listing.save! pp listing.state # => "sold" listing.reload pp listing.state # => "current" I cannot understand why it saves perfectly fine, but then reverts back to the original record whenever I call reload, or Listing.find etc. Thanks for reading this, and please ask any questions if I haven't given enough information. Thanks for your help, Nathan B P.S. I don't have a problem creating new records for other classes, and testing those records. It only seems to be a problem when I am updating records that already exist in the database.

    Read the article

  • Legit? Two foreign keys referencing the same primary key.

    - by Ryan
    Hi All, I'm a web developer and have recently started a project with a company. Currently, I'm working with their DBA on getting the schema laid out for the site, and we've come to a disagreement regarding the design on a couple tables, and I'd like some opinions on the matter. Basically, we are working on a site that will implement a "friends" network. All users of the site will be contained in a table tblUsers with (PersonID int identity PK, etc). What I am wanting to do is to create a second table, tblNetwork, that will hold all of the relationships between users, with (NetworkID int identity PK, Owners_PersonID int FK, Friends_PersonID int FK, etc). Or conversely, remove the NetworkID, and have both the Owners_PersonID and Friends_PersonID shared as the Primary key. This is where the DBA has his problem. Saying that "he would only implement this kind of architecture in a data warehousing schema, and not for a website, and this is just another example of web developers trying to take the easy way out." Now obviously, his remark was a bit inflammatory, and that have helped motivate me to find an suitable answer, but more so, I'd just like to know how to do it right. I've been developing databases and programming for over 10 years, have worked with some top-notch minds, and have never heard this kind of argument. What the DBA is wanting to do is instead of storing both the Owners_PersonId and Friends_PersonId in the same table, is to create a third table tblFriends to store the Friends_PersonId, and have the tblNetwork have (NetworkID int identity PK, Owner_PersonID int FK, FriendsID int FK(from TBLFriends)). All that tblFriends would house would be (FriendsID int identity PK, Friends_PersonID(related back to Persons)). To me, creating the third table is just excessive in nature, and does nothing but create an alias for the Friends_PersonID, and cause me to have to add (what I view as unneeded) joins to all my queries, not to mention the extra cycles that will be necessary to perform the join on every query. Thanks for reading, appreciate comments. Ryan

    Read the article

  • Cross-compiling with OpenSSL for Windows

    - by singpolyma
    I'm trying to compile the oauth-utils http://mir.dnsalias.com/oss/oauth/start for Windows from Ubuntu. I have compiled it on Windows before (a few months back), but wanted to try cross-compiling. I got openssl build using mingw32 ok, and put libssl.a and libcrypto.a in the right place. The linker is now finding the libraries (yay!) but I get the following error: /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xaac): undefined reference to `_CreateDCA@16' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xab9): undefined reference to `_CreateCompatibleDC@4' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xacc): undefined reference to `_GetDeviceCaps@8' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xadc): undefined reference to `_GetDeviceCaps@8' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xaf4): undefined reference to `_CreateCompatibleBitmap@12' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xb04): undefined reference to `_SelectObject@8' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xb18): undefined reference to `_GetObjectA@12' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xb81): undefined reference to `_BitBlt@36' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xb8c): undefined reference to `_GetBitmapBits@12' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xbe5): undefined reference to `_SelectObject@8' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xbec): undefined reference to `_DeleteObject@4' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xbf6): undefined reference to `_DeleteDC@4' /usr/lib/gcc/i586-mingw32msvc/4.2.1-sjlj/../../../../i586-mingw32msvc/lib/libcrypto.a(rand_win.o):rand_win.c:(.text+0xc00): undefined reference to `_DeleteDC@4' Any ideas what could be causing this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • UIImagePickerController does nothing when using camera after I hit "Use" button

    - by wgpubs
    Code below. When I hit the "Use" button after taking a picture ... the application becomes totally unresponsive. Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? The "addPlayer:" method is called when a button is pressed on the UIViewController's view. Thanks - (IBAction) addPlayers: (id)sender{ // Show ImagePicker UIImagePickerController *imagePicker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePicker.delegate = self; // If camera is available use it and display custom overlay view so that user can add as many pics // as they want without having to go back to parent view if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]) { imagePicker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePicker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [self presentModalViewController:imagePicker animated:YES]; [imagePicker release]; } - (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { // Grab original image UIImage *photo = [info objectForKey:UIImagePickerControllerOriginalImage]; // Resize photo first to reduce memory consumption [self.photos addObject:[photo scaleToSize:CGSizeMake(200.0f, 300.0f)]]; // Enable *PLAY* button if photos > 1 if([self.photos count] > 1) btnStartGame.enabled = YES; // Update player count label lblPlayerCount.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [self.photos count]]; // Dismiss picker if not using camera picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; }

    Read the article

  • Navigating through a sea of hype

    - by wouldLikeACrystalBall
    This is a vague, open question, so if you have no interest in these, please leave now. A few years ago it seemed everyone thought the death of desktop software was imminent. Web applications were the future. Everyone would move to cloud-based software-as-a-service systems, and developing applications for specific end-user platforms like Windows would soon become something of a ghetto. Joel's "How Microsoft Lost the API War" was but one of many such pieces sounding the death knell for this way of software development. Flash-forward to 2010, and the hype is all around mobile devices, particularly the iPhone. Software-as-a-Service vendors--even small ones such as YCombinator startups--go out of their way to build custom applications for the iPhone and other smart phone devices; applications that can be quite sophisticated, that run only on specific hardware and software architectures and are thus inherently incompatible. Now some of you are probably thinking, "Well, only the decline of desktop software was predicted; mobile devices aren't desktops." But the term was used by those predicting its demise to mean laptops also, and really any platform capable of running a browser. What was promised was a world where HTML and related standards would supplant native applications and their inherent difficulties. We would all code to the browser, not the OS. But here we are in 2010 with the AppStore bulging and development for the iPad just revving up. A few days ago, I saw someone on Hacker News claim that the future of computing was entirely in small, portable devices. Apparently the future is underpowered, requires dexterous thumbs and induces near-sightedness. How do those who so vehemently asserted one thing now assert the opposite with equal vehemence, without making even the slightest admission of error? And further, how are we as developers supposed to sift through all of this? I bought into the whole web-standards utopianism that was in vogue back in '06-'07 and now feel like it was a mistake. Is there some formula one can apply rather than a mere appeal to experience?

    Read the article

  • How can I set PivotField.Calculation in Excel/VSTO?

    - by Kang Su
    I'm trying to set the Calculation property on an OLAP PivotField with VSTO 3.0. For example: pivotField.Calculation = XlPivotFieldCalculation.PercentOf; If I do the above, the value I assign does not stay (Excel appears to revert the change). I suspect the reason is that the BaseField property of the PivotField also needs to be populated (as PercentOf needs a BaseField). But it appears to me that you can't set the BaseField property until you've set the Calculation property (otherwise you get a COMException). I've tried to set ManualUpdate on the PivotTable to true, but with VSTO this rarely works, as this gets reverted immediately back to false. Note, that this seems to work fine in VBA as you can assign multiple values in a single statement, like this: With ActiveSheet.PivotTables("PivotTable1").PivotFields("[Measures].[Reseller Sales Amount]") .Calculation = xlPercentOf .BaseField = "[Geography].[Geography].[Country]" .BaseItem = "[Geography].[Geography].[Country].&[France]" .NumberFormat = "0.00%" End With But with C#/VSTO there's no construct like this (that I know of) and I'm stuck not able to do something like the above. Further note, Calculation values that don't require a BaseField, e.g., XlPivotFieldCalculation.xlPercentOfTotal, get set just fine. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • UIView rotation, modal view lanscape and portrait, parent fails to render

    - by Ben
    Hi everyone, I've hit a bit of a roadblock with something that I hope that someone in here can help me out with. I'll describe the 'state of play' first, and then what the issue is, so here goes; I have a series of view controllers that are chained together with a Navigation Controller (this works just fine), All of these view controllers support portrait mode only (by design), In one of the view controllers (the 'end' one actually) the user can click a table cell to pop up a modal view controller (using presentModalViewController(...) of course) This modal view controller supports portrait and landscape modes (and this works), When the user clicks the 'Done' button on this modal view controller we pop and pass control back to the parent view controller, however; If the user is in portrait mode when they click 'Done' then the parent displays itself just fine, If the user is in landscape mode when they click 'Done' then the parent displays a totally white, blank screen (that covers the whole screen). It is as if the controller does not know how to render in landscape and just doesn't bother. I'd like to be able to have this parent view render in portrait no matter what the orientation of the phone is when the user clicks the 'Done' button. Various forum posts suggest using the UIDevice method 'setOrientation' (but this is undocumented and will get our app rejected apparently). Another suggestion was to set the 'statusBarOrientation' to portrait in the 'viewWillAppear' method but that had no effect. So I am a bit stuck! Has any encountered anything like this before? If need be I can provide code, if that will help anyone diagnose the problem for me. Thanks in advance! Cheers, Ben

    Read the article

  • PrintableArea in C# - Bug?

    - by Brandi
    I am having an issue with PageSettings.PrintableArea's width and height values. Width, Height, and Size properties claim to "get or set" the values. Also, the inflate() function claims to change the size based on values passed in. However, all of these attempts to change the value have not worked. Inflate() is ignore (no error, just passes as if it worked, but the values remain unchanged. Attempting to set the height, width, or size gives a compiler error: "Cannot modify the return value of 'System.Drawing.Printing.PageSettings.PrintableArea' because it is not a variable". I get the feeling that this means the "or set" part of the description is a lie. Why I want to know this: (Someone always asks...) I have a printing application (C#, WinForm) that for most things is working rather well. I can set the printer settings and page settings objects to control what displays in the print dialog's printer properties. However, with Microsoft Office Document Image Writer, these settings are sometimes ignored, and the paper size returns as 0, 0 even when it displayed something else. All I really want it for it to be WYSIWYG as far as the displayed values go, so I change the paper size back to what it should be, but the printable area, if it is wrong, makes the resulting image wonky. The resulting image is the size of the printable area instead of the value in papersize. Just wondering if there was a reason for this or a way to get it not to do that. Thanks in advance. :)

    Read the article

  • Creating Array of settings names and values using ADO.NET Entities

    - by jordan.baucke
    I'm using an ADO.NET Entities (.edmx) data-model along with MVC2 to build an application. I have a DB table where I want to store settings for method that run elsewhere. MVC2 allows me to create a view, editor, etc. to update this table which is great, but now when I want to do simple assignments based on column titles I'm a bit confused. For example, I would like to easily build an array that I could offset into the record's value based on it's "Title" Column: var entities = new ManagerEntities(); Setting[] settings = entities.settings.ToArray(); This returns something like: Settings[0].[SettingTitle][SettingValue] However, I would like to more easily index into the value than having to loop through all the returned settings, when they're already index. string URL_ID_NEED = [NeededUrl][http://www.url.com] Am I missing something relatively simple? Thanks! ========================= *Update* ========================= Ok, I think I've got a solution, but I'm wondering why this would be so complicated, and if I'm just not thinking of the right context for ADO.NET objects, here's what I did: public string GetSetting(string SettingName) { var entities = new LabelManagerEntities(); IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, object>> entityKeyValues = new KeyValuePair<string, object>[] { new KeyValuePair<string, object>("SettingTitle", SettingName) }; EntityKey key = new EntityKey("LabelManagerEntities.Settings", entityKeyValues); // Get the object from the context or the persisted store by its key. Setting settingvalue = (Setting)entities.GetObjectByKey(key); return settingvalue.SettingValue.ToString(); } This method handles the job of querying the Entities by "Key" to get back the correct value as a returned string (which I can than strip out the " ", or or cast to an integer, etc. etc.,) Am I just duplicating functionality that already exists in ADO.NET's design patterns (I'm pretty new to it) -- or is this a reasonable solution?

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC2 model binding issue on POST

    - by Brandon Linton
    So I'm looking at moving from MVC 1.0 to MVC 2.0 RTM. One of the conventions I'd like to start following is using the strongly-typed HTML helpers for generating controls like text boxes. However, it looks like it won't be an easy jump. I tried migrating my first form, replacing lines like this: <%= Html.TextBox("FirstName", Model.Data.FirstName, new {maxlength = 30}) %> ...for lines like this: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(x => x.Data.FirstName, new {maxlength = 30}) %> Previously, this would map into its appropriate view model on a POST, using the following method signature: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Registration(AccountViewInfo viewInfo) Instead, it currently gets an empty object back. I believe the disconnect is in the fact that we pass the view model into a larger aggregate object that has some page metadata and other fun stuff along with it (hence x.Data.FirstName instead of x.FirstName). So my question is: what is the best way to use the strongly-typed helpers while still allowing the MVC framework to appropriately cast the form collection to my view-model as it does in the original line? Is there any way to do it without changing the aggregate type we pass to the view? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • When good programmers go bad!

    - by Ed Bloom
    Hi, I'm a team lead/dev who manages a team of 10 programmers. Most of them are hard working talented guys. But of late, I've got this one person who while highly talented and has delivered great work for me in the past, has just become completely unreliable. It's not his ability - that is not in question - he's proven that many times. He just looks bored now. Is blatantly not doing much work (despite a LOT of pressure being put on the team to meet tight deadlines etc.) He just doesn't seem to care and looks bored. I'm partially guilty for not having addressed this before now - I was afraid to have to lose a talented guy given the workload I've got on. But at this stage it's becoming a problem and affecting those around him. Can anyone spare their thoughts or words of wisdom on how I should go about dealing this. I want the talented AND motivated guy back. Otherwise he's gonna have to go. Thanks, Ed

    Read the article

  • mysql backup and restore from ib_logfile failure

    - by i need help
    Here's the case: After computer being hacked, we are in a rush to backup all data out to other computer. As a result, the mysql databases are not backup out as sql statement. What we have done is backup out all the physical files/folders in the C drive to new computer. Eg: C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 4.1\data In this case, all data for mysql are inside unreadable file. Inside data folder consist of files like ib_logfile0, ib_logfile1, but not ib_data1 All database's table structure format are inside each respective folder. (Some folder have .frm, .opt) (some other folder have .frm, .myd, .myi) How can I retrieve back the data from the database in a new computer? I tried to install the same mysql version(4.1) at new computer, then replace all backup files inside data folder into this mysql in new computer. Then restart mysql service. When I restart, it fail: Could not start mysql service on local computer. error 1067: process terminated unexpectedly. Error log showing: InnoDB: The first specified data file .\ibdata1 did not exist: InnoDB: a new database to be created! 090930 10:24:49 InnoDB: Setting file .\ibdata1 size to 10 MB InnoDB: Database physically writes the file full: wait... InnoDB: Error: log file .\ib_logfile0 is of different size 0 87031808 bytes InnoDB: than specified in the .cnf file 0 25165824 bytes! 090930 10:24:49 [ERROR] Can't init databases 090930 10:24:49 [ERROR] Aborting 090930 10:24:49 [Note] C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 4.1\bin\mysqld-nt: Shutdown complete

    Read the article

  • Passing binary blob through an Android content provider

    - by velocityb0y
    I have a content provider that is custom to my set of Android applications, and one of the things it needs to expose is a small (20-30k) byte array. The uri for these blobs looks like content://my.authority/blob/# where # is the row number; the resulting cursor has the standard _id column and a data column. I'm using a MatrixCursor in the provider's query method: byte[] byteData = getMyByteData(); MatrixCursor mc = new MatrixCursor(COLUMNS); mc.addRow(new Object[] { id, byteData }); Later, in the application consuming the data, I do Cursor c = managedQuery(uri, null, null, null, null); c.moveToFirst(); byte[] data = c.getBlob(c.getColumnIndexOrThrow("data")); However, data does not contain the contents of my original byte array; rather, it contains something like "[B@435cc518", which looks more like the address of the array than the contents. I tried wrapping the byte array in an implementation of java.sql.Blob, figuring that it might be looking for that since the content provider subsystem was written to be easy to use with SQLite, but it didn't help. Has anyone gotten this to work? If the data was in the file system, there are methods in ContentProvider that I could use to provide a marshalled InputStream to the client, but the data I'm trying to send back lives as a resource in the content provider's APK.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 821 822 823 824 825 826 827 828 829 830 831 832  | Next Page >