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  • Problem with RSA-encrypting a string in PHP and passing it to .NET service

    - by jonasaxelsson
    I need to call a web service that requires a login url containing an RSA encrypted, base_64 encoded and url-encoded login data. I don't have a formal php training, but even for me it seems like an easy task, however when calling the service I get an 'Invalid Format' response. What am I doing wrong and is there another way to come up with the encrypted string? Code example below. Thank you for your help! http://www.edsko.net/misc/ for encryption. $message = '?id=112233&param1=hello&[email protected]&name=Name'; $keyLength = '2048'; $exponent = '65537'; $modulus = '837366556729991345239927764652........'; $encryptedData = rsa_encrypt($message, $exponent, $modulus, $keyLength); $data = urlencode(base64_encode($encryptedData)); $loginurl = 'http://www.somedomain.com/LoginWB.aspx?Id=9876&Data='.$data; echo '<iframe src="'.$loginurl.'" width="570px" height="800px">'; echo '</iframe>'; ?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Porting VB6 app to VB.Net: Can anyone ballpark how much effort this is?

    - by Robusto
    In 2002 I did a pretty large VB6 app for a client. It used a lot of UserControls and a 3rd party menu control (for putting icons next to menu names). It had dynamically "splittable" panels, TreeViews with multi-state checkboxes, etc. A very rich UI. My total time on the project was about 500 hours, which the client graciously let me spread over a whole month. (Yeah, it was that kind of job.) They were very happy, though, and they paid the bill on time with no argument. So after having no contact with them for years, they suddenly call and wonder if I can update the app to .Net for them. My initial reaction is just to decline, since I don't use VB.Net. And having read a bunch of posts on SO about the difficulties of porting, etc., etc., I'm even more inclined to decline, so to speak. Still, before I tell them no I am interested in roughly quantifying the effort it would take. I would love to hear from anyone who has done this kind of thing and has a feel for how much work it is. Was it: Significantly less than the effort you used on the original? Somewhat less than the effort you used on the original? The same as the effort you used on the original? More? A lot more? Please only respond if you have actually done this kind of port. And the answer doesn't have to be exact, since I really am only trying to ballpark this. My feeling is that the effort will be at least as much as it took for the original, if not more. But I could be wrong. Thanks for any help.

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  • SQL query select from table and group on other column...

    - by scaryjones
    I'm phrasing the question title poorly as I'm not sure what to call what I'm trying to do but it really should be simple. I've a link / join table with two ID columns. I want to run a check before saving new rows to the table. The user can save attributes through a webpage but I need to check that the same combination doesn't exist before saving it. With one record it's easy as obviously you just check if that attributeId is already in the table, if it is don't allow them to save it again. However, if the user chooses a combination of that attribute and another one then they should be allowed to save it. Here's an image of what I mean: So if a user now tried to save an attribute with ID of 1 it will stop them, but I need it to also stop them if they tried ID's of 1, 10 so long as both 1 and 10 had the same productAttributeId. I'm confusing this in my explanation but I'm hoping the image will clarify what I need to do. This should be simple so I presume I'm missing something.

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  • Best way to do client/server validation in ASP.NET in 2010?

    - by punkouter
    First there was the ASP.NET validators and we used them... Then some people on the team did things manually in javascript... Then a bunch of jquery validation libraries came out... Then MVC2 came out with attributes as validators.. I work with apps that have alot of forms with alot of various validation (Some fields needs to be compared with other values in a DB so a postball/ajax call is required) .. Right now I have a mess of ASP.NET custom validators and functions that calculate on the server side as well. Can I get some opinions on the best tool/combination to approach this job that can create the smallest/most elegant code? Pure server side solution? AJAX/Jquery? A certain plugin for jquery? For example, I have 2 dates.. I want to make sure that the 1st date is less than the 2nd date... Are there jquery validators that encapsulate this? My feeling is if I can get jquery plugins to handle half the more basic validation for my that could cut my code in half.

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  • jquery - DOM traversal question

    - by David
    Hi, Basically what I have here is a button that adds a new list item to an unordered list. Within this list item is a dropdown box (.formSelector) that when changed triggers an ajax call to get the values for another dropdown box (.fieldSelector) in the same list item. The problem is on this line: $(this).closest(".fieldSelector").append( If I change it to $(".fieldSelector").append( the second box updates correctly. The problem with this is that when I have multiple list items it updates every dropdown box on the page with the class fieldSelector, which is undesirable. How can I traverse the DOM to just pick the fieldSelector in the current list item? Any help is greatly appreciated. Complete code: $("button", "#newReportElement").click(function() { $("#reportElements").append("<li class=\"ui-state-default\"> <span class=\"test ui-icon ui-icon-arrowthick-2-n-s \"></span><span class=\"ui-icon ui-icon-trash deleteRange \"></span> <select name=\"form[]\" class=\"formSelector\"><? foreach ($forms->result() as $row) { echo "<option value='$row->formId'>$row->name</option>"; }?></select><select class=\"fieldSelector\" name=\"field[]\"></select></li>"); $(".deleteRange").button(); $('.formSelector').change(function() { var id = $(this).val(); var url = "<? echo site_url("report/formfields");?>" + "/" + id; var atext = "ids:"; $.getJSON(url, function(data){ $.each(data.items, function(i,item){ $(this).closest(".fieldSelector").append( $('<option></option>').val(item.formId).html(item.formLabel) ); }); }); }); return false; });

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  • jQuery .ready() automatically assigning variables for each element with ID in DOM

    - by Greg
    I have noticed some unexpected behaviour when using the jQuery .ready() function, whereby afterwards you can reference an element in the DOM simply by using its ID without prior declaration or assignment: <html> <script src="jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function() { myowndiv.innerHTML = 'wow!' }); </script> <body> <div id="myowndiv"></div> </body> </html> I would have expected to have to declare and assign myowndiv with document.getElementById("myowndiv"); or $("#myowndiv"); before I could call innerHTML or anything else on it? Is this behaviour by design? Can anyone explain why? My fear is that if I refactor and end up not using .ready() or even using jQuery at all then my code will fail to execute. Cheers!

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  • File being used by another process. Reason, and solution?

    - by pstar
    The process cannot access the file 'abc.log' because it is being used by another process. Hi, I've seen this exception from my application occationaly but I am still trying to fix that, hope I will get some insight from stackoverflow. In my application I've have defined a WriteToLog function which will write to a log file. Also the mainForm of my application will launch a backgroundWorker do some job which also calls the WriteToLog. Maybe two threads access a file will cause a problem? But in my code I 've already do my best to write flush and close the text file (I think), and here is my code from WriteToLog: StreamWriter sw = null; string newText = ""; try { //populate the content for newText sw = File.AppendText(LOG_FILE); sw.Write(newText); sw.Flush(); sw.Close(); } catch (IOException ex) { MessageBox.Show("Failed to write to log!\n\t" + ex.Message, "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } finally { if (sw != null) { sw.Close(); } } I think as long as I flush and close the streamWriter, I should be able call the WriteToLog multi-times and in multi-threads isn't it? Or if I am wrong, could I simple make the file open shared, or there are other reason/solutions?

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  • PHP rewrite an included file - is this a valid script?

    - by Poni
    Hi all! I've made this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2921469/php-mutual-exclusion-mutex As said there, I want several sources to send their stats once in a while, and these stats will be showed at the website's main page. My problem is that I want this to be done in an atomic manner, so no update of the stats will overlap another one running in the background. Now, I came up with this solution and I want you PHP experts to judge it. stats.php <?php define("my_counter", 12); ?> index.php <?php include "stats.php"; echo constant("my_counter"); ?> update.php <?php $old_error_reporting = error_reporting(0); include "stats.php"; define("my_stats_template",' <?php define("my_counter", %d); ?> '); $fd = fopen("stats.php", "w+"); if($fd) { if (flock($fd, LOCK_EX)) { $my_counter = 0; try { $my_counter = constant("my_counter"); } catch(Exception $e) { } $my_counter++; $new_stats = sprintf(constant("my_stats_template"), $my_counter); echo "Counter should stand at $my_counter"; fwrite($fd, $new_stats); } flock($fd, LOCK_UN); fclose($fd); } error_reporting($old_error_reporting); ?> Several clients will call the "update.php" file once every 60sec each. The "index.php" is going to use the "stats.php" file all the time as you can see. What's your opinion?

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  • What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

    - by user366152
    I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

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  • LINQ Sorting - First three need to be different manufacturers

    - by Rob
    My OM has a 'product' object. Each product has a 'manufacturer id' (property, integer). When I have a list of products to display, the first three are displayed as the 'featured products'. The list is already sorted in a specific sort order, putting the 'featured' products first in the list. However, I now need to ensure the featured products in the listing are from different Manufacturers. I want to have a method to call to do this re-sorting. Trying to utilize LINQ to to the querying of the input 'products' and the 'results' public List<Product> SetFeatures(List<Product> products, int numberOfFeatures) { List<Product> result; // ensure the 2nd product is different manufacturer than the first .... // ensure the 3rd product is a different manufacturer than the first two... // ... etc ... for the numberOfFeatures return result; } Thanks in advance.

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  • Creating dynamic icons based on data entered into database from django forms

    - by John Hoke
    So I'm using Django to create a projects page with multiple forms for each project. Let's call them form 1, 2, 3, and 4. Once you create a project you can fill out any of these forms. I want to create "buttons" or links for each one of the forms that would show up on the main page. Now this is the part I need help with: Step 1. I want it so that if you click on a button for a form (say form 1) and none exists for that project yet a pop up would come up saying "This form does not exist yet, are you sure you want to create one?". And if you'd answer yes you would be directed to the form page. Step 2. But if that form does exist, I don't want any pop up to open and I want the link to take the user directly to that page. Step 3. My next problem is this. These forms are in order, so if you didn't create form 1 but created form 2, I don't want to give the user access to form 1. So in this scenario, if you click on form 1 I want a pop up to open and say "This form can no longer be created", and the link wouldn't function anymore. Basically the button will have 3 function. First it should look at the database and if data for that specific form exists it should do "Step 2", if data for that form and the proceeding forms don't exist it should do "Step 1", and if data for that form doesn't exist but data for proceeding form's does exist is should do "Step 3". Is this possible? Please help as I need to find a solution to this soon. Any help would be highly appreciated. Thank you

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  • When calling a static method on parent class, can the parent class deduce the type on the child (C#)

    - by Matt
    Suppose we have 2 classes, Child, and the class from which it inherits, Parent. class Parent { public static void MyFunction(){} } class Child : Parent { } Is it possible to determine in the parent class how the method was called? Because we can call it two ways: Parent.MyFunction(); Child.MyFunction(); My current approach was trying to use: MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().ReflectedType; // and MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType; But both appear to return the Parent type. If you are wondering what, exactly I am trying to accomplish (and why I am violating the basic OOP rule that the parent shouldn't have to know anything about the child), the short of it is this (let me know if you want the long version): I have a Model structure representing some of our data that persists to the database. All of these models inherit from an abstract Parent. This parent implements a couple of events, such as SaveEvent, DeleteEvent, etc. We want to be able to subscribe to events specific to the type. So, even though the event is in the parent, I want to be able to do: Child.SaveEvent += new EventHandler((sender, args) => {}); I have everything in place, where the event is actually backed by a dictionary of event handlers, hashed by type. The last thing I need to get working is correctly detecting the Child type, when doing Child.SaveEvent. I know I can implement the event in each child class (even forcing it through use of abstract), but it would be nice to keep it all in the parent, which is the class actually firing the events (since it implements the common save/delete/change functionality).

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  • C++ traits question

    - by duli
    I have a templated class template <typename Data> class C { ..... } In most situations, I depend on the compiler to let me substitute types for Data. I call methods foo(), goo() on objects of type Data, so what I substitute needs to provide that. I now need to substitute int and string for my Data type. I do not want to specialize because the class is already too big and would require specializing each method (with only small code change). My options (please tell me if there are more) 1) I can provide wrapper classes around int and string which implement the methods foo(), goo() etc 2) provide a traits class traits that calls foo() or goo() on objects of classes that provide foo(),goo() (these are my present substitutable classes) and specialize these classes for int and string. Questions 1) what are the relative merits of 1 vs 2? 2) My traits classes will have static methods. Can a traits class have non-static methods as well? I see most traits classes define constants in the STL. 3) Do I make the traits classes global or should I pass them in as a template parameter for class C?

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  • NSMagedObjectContext, threads and NSFechedResultsController

    - by tmpz
    Dear iphone developers, Core Data newbie speaking here. In my application I have two NSManagedObjectContext that refer to that same NSPersistentStorageController. One ManagedObjectContext (c1) is in the main thread --created when I create a NSFetchedResultsController -- and the second ManagedObjectContext (c2) created in a second thread, running in the background, detached from the main thread. In the background thread I pull some data off a website and insert the entities created for the pulled data in the thread's ManagedObjectContext (c2). In the meanwhile, the main thread sits doing nothing and displaying a UITableView whose data do be display should be provided by the NSFetchedResultsController. When the background thread has finished pulling the data and inserting entities in c2, c2 saves, and the background thread notifies the main thread that the processing has finished before it exiting. As a matter of fact, the entities that I have inserted in c2 are know by c1 because it can ask it about one particular entity with [c1 existingObjectWithID:ObjectID error:&error]; I would expect at this point, if I call on my tableview reloadData to see some rows showing up with the data I pulled from the web in the background thread thanks to the NSFetchedResults controller which should react to the modifications of its ManagedObjectContext (c1). But nothing is happening! Only if I restart the application I see what I have previously pulled from the web! Where am I doing things wrong? Thank you in advance!

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  • Linux: Find all symlinks of a given 'original' file? (reverse 'readlink')

    - by sdaau
    Hi all, Consider the following command line snippet: $ cd /tmp/ $ mkdir dirA $ mkdir dirB $ echo "the contents of the 'original' file" > orig.file $ ls -la orig.file -rw-r--r-- 1 $USER $USER 36 2010-12-26 00:57 orig.file # create symlinks in dirA and dirB that point to /tmp/orig.file: $ ln -s $(pwd)/orig.file $(pwd)/dirA/ $ ln -s $(pwd)/orig.file $(pwd)/dirB/lorig.file $ ls -la dirA/ dirB/ dirA/: total 44 drwxr-xr-x 2 $USER $USER 4096 2010-12-26 00:57 . drwxrwxrwt 20 root root 36864 2010-12-26 00:57 .. lrwxrwxrwx 1 $USER $USER 14 2010-12-26 00:57 orig.file -> /tmp/orig.file dirB/: total 44 drwxr-xr-x 2 $USER $USER 4096 2010-12-26 00:58 . drwxrwxrwt 20 root root 36864 2010-12-26 00:57 .. lrwxrwxrwx 1 $USER $USER 14 2010-12-26 00:58 lorig.file -> /tmp/orig.file At this point, I can use readling to see what is the 'original' (well, I guess the usual term here is either 'target' or 'source', but those in my mind can be opposite concepts as well, so I'll just call it 'original') file of the symlinks, i.e. $ readlink -f dirA/orig.file /tmp/orig.file $ readlink -f dirB/lorig.file /tmp/orig.file ... However, what I'd like to know is - is there a command I could run on the 'original' file, and find all the symlinks that point to it? In other words, something like (pseudo): $ getsymlinks /tmp/orig.file /tmp/dirA/orig.file /tmp/dirB/lorig.file Thanks in advance for any comments, Cheers!

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  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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  • IIS publish of WCF service -- fails with no error message

    - by tavistmorph
    I havea WCF service which I publish from Visual Studio 2008 to an IIS 6. According to the output window of VS, the publish succeeded, no error messages or warnings. When I look at IIS, the virtual directory was created, but there is no .svc listed in the directory. The directory just has my web.config and a bin. Any attempts to call my WCF service fail cause they don't exist. How can I see an error message of what's going wrong? By trial-and-error, I discovered changing my app.config before publishing will make the service show up. Namely my app.config file has these lines: <binding ...> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCreditionalType="None"/> </security> </binding> If I switch "Transport" to "None", then my service shows up on IIS. But I do have a certificate installed on IIS on the server, and as far as I can tell, everything is configured correctly on the server. There is no error message in the event log. How can I get a find more error messages about why the service is failing to show up?

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  • pass variable by reference within class? in php

    - by user151841
    I'm working on a hex color class where you can change the color values of any hex code color. In my example, I haven't finished the hex math, but it's not completely relevant to what I'm explaining here. Naively, I wanted to start to do something that I don't think can be done. I wanted to pass object properties in a method call. Is this possible? class rgb { private $r; private $b; private $g; public function __construct( $hexRgb ) { $this->r = substr($hexRgb, 0, 2 ); $this->g = substr($hexRgb, 2, 2 ); $this->b = substr($hexRgb, 4, 2 ); } private function add( & $color, $amount ) { $color += amount; // $color should be a class property, $this->r, etc. } public function addRed( $amount ) { self::add( $this->r, $amount ); } public function addGreen( $amount ) { self::add( $this->g, $amount ); } public function addBlue( $amount ) { self::add( $this->b, $amount ); } } If this is not possible in PHP, what is this called and in what languages is it possible? I know I could do something like public function add( $var, $amount ) { if ( $var == "r" ) { $this->r += $amount } else if ( $var == "g" ) { $this->g += $amount } ... } But I want to do it this cool way.

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  • iPhone app developed with SDK 4.2, requires backward compatibility with iOS 3.1.3 .. easy way?

    - by mrd3650
    I have built an iPhone app with SDK 4.2 however I know also want to make it compatible with iOS 3.1.3. First step was to set the Deployment Target to 3.1.3. It runs fine on the 3.2 Simulator but the app crashes at times since I'm using some methods which are not available in this early SDK. So my qestion is, is there a straight forward way to locate the offending methods/classes I'm using in my project which are not available in 3.1.3 ? (without manually going through each method call and consult with the docs for the SDK availability?) Thanks. UPDATE: I have executed the app on 3.1.3 and attempted to manually test each execution path with the hope of locating all exceptions. This was completed with some level of success. However, what if the application is huge? and there are lots of execution paths? There must be some tool for this scenario. Any thoughts are much appreciated.

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  • question about prefix and suffix in java

    - by kate
    hi!!I have an issue and i want your help!I have a specific REGEX which i have named it "unique" and i want to store the data that it gives me!! The prefix and the suffix of this regex!!so!!someone has told me to use var prefix and var suffix but i don't know how to do it! for your convinience i give u my xml for this regex <reg name="unique"> <start><![CDATA[ <!-- 72 HOURS FORECASTS --> ]]></start> <end><![CDATA[<!-- 72 HOURS FORECASTS -->]]></end> </reg> the code where i call this regex is int k = 0; for(Xml reg_is:fetchsite.child("site").child("regexps").children("reg")) { if(reg_is.string("name").contains("unique")){ if(reg_is.child("start").content()=="") error += "\tNo prefix reg.exp. given.\n"; else prefix = HtmlMethods.removeBreaks(replaceVariables(reg_is.child("start").content())); if(reg_is.child("end").content()=="") error += "\tNo suffix reg.exp. given.\n"; else suffix = HtmlMethods.removeBreaks(replaceVariables(reg_is.child("end").content())); } else{ poleis[k][0]= HtmlMethods.removeBreaks(reg_is.string("name")); poleis[k][1] = HtmlMethods.removeBreaks(replaceVariables(reg_is.child("start").content())); poleis[k][2] = HtmlMethods.removeBreaks(replaceVariables(reg_is.child("end").content())); k++; }

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  • Creating a assertClass() method in JUnit

    - by Mike
    Hi, I'm creating a test platform for a protocol project based on Apache MINA. In MINA when you receive packets the messageReceived() method gets an Object. Ideally I'd like to use a JUnit method assertClass(), however it doesn't exist. I'm playing around trying to work out what is the closest I can get. I'm trying to find something similar to instanceof. Currently I have: public void assertClass(String msg, Class expected, Object given) { if(!expected.isInstance(given)) Assert.fail(msg); } To call this: assertClass("Packet type is correct", SomePacket.class, receivedPacket); This works without issue, however in experimenting and playing with this my interest was peaked by the instanceof operator. if (receivedPacket instanceof SomePacket) { .. } How is instanceof able to use SomePacket to reference the object at hand? It's not an instance of an object, its not a class, what is it?! Once establishing what type SomePacket is at that point is it possible to extend my assertClass() to not have to include the SomePacket.class argument, instead favouring SomePacket?

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  • jQuery - Can someone help stitching jQuery code with .ajaxComplete()?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Hi, so I've got this content loader that replaces content within a div with content from a separate page. But the content that arrives contains a menu that uses jQuery and this is not working. Someone told me I need to reinitialize the code. But how do I do that? I've looked into .ajaxComplete(), but I don't really get how I'm supposed to stitch that together with my existing code? $('.dynload').live('click', function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #content'; $('#content').fadeOut('fast',loadContent); $('#ajaxloader').fadeIn('normal'); function loadContent() { $('#content').load(toLoad,'',showNewContent()) } function showNewContent() { $('#content').fadeIn('fast',hideLoader()); //Cufon.replace('h1, h2, h3, h4, .menuwrapper', { fontFamily: 'advent'}); } function hideLoader() { $('#ajaxloader').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); This is the code I'm using for the jQuery menu: $().ready(function() { $('#kontrollpanel .slidepanels').kwicks({ min : 42, spacing : 3, isVertical : true, sticky : true, event : 'click' }); }); Also, notice how I try to call Cufon as well within the first function? That doesn't really work either, could that be reinitialized as well? Would really appreciate any help at all..

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  • What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

    - by hobodave
    Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

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