Search Results

Search found 87922 results on 3517 pages for 'code burgar'.

Page 831/3517 | < Previous Page | 827 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838  | Next Page >

  • Violation of PRIMARY KEY constraint 'PK_

    - by abhi
    hi am trying to write a code in which i need to perform a update but on primary keys how do i achieve it i have written the following code: kindly look at it let me know where m wrong Protected Sub rgKMSLoc_UpdateCommand(ByVal source As Object, ByVal e As Telerik.Web.UI.GridCommandEventArgs) Handles rgKMSLoc.UpdateCommand Try KAYAReqConn.Open() If TypeOf e.Item Is GridEditableItem Then Dim strItemID As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("hdnID"), HiddenField).Value Dim strrcmbLocation As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("rcmbLocation"), RadComboBox).SelectedValue Dim strKubeLocation As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("txtKubeLocation"), TextBox).Text Dim strCSVCode As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("txtCSVCode"), TextBox).Text SQLCmd = New SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM MstKMSLocKubeLocMapping WHERE LocationID= '" & rcmbLocation.SelectedValue & "'", KAYAReqConn) Dim dr As SqlDataReader dr = SQLCmd.ExecuteReader If dr.HasRows Then lblMsgWarning.Text = "<font color=red>""User ID Already Exists" Exit Sub End If dr.Close() SQLCmd = New SqlCommand("UPDATE MstKMSLocKubeLocMapping SET LocationID=@Location,KubeLocation=@KubeLocation,CSVCode=@CSVCode WHERE LocationID = '" & strItemID & "'", KAYAReqConn) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Location", Replace(strrcmbLocation, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@KubeLocation", Replace(strKubeLocation, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CSVCode", Replace(strCSVCode, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Status", "A") SQLCmd.ExecuteNonQuery() lblMessageUpdate.Text = "<font color=blue>""Record Updated SuccessFully" SQLCmd.Dispose() rgKMSLoc.Rebind() End If Catch ex As Exception Response.Write(ex.ToString) Finally KAYAReqConn.Close() End Try End Sub this is my designer page' Location: ' / ' DataSourceID="dsrcmbLocation" DataTextField="Location" DataValueField="LocationID" Height="150px" Kube Location: ' Class="forTextBox" MaxLength="4" onkeypress="return filterInput(2,event);" CSV Code: ' Class="forTextBox" MaxLength="4" onkeypress="return filterInput(2,event);" <tr class="tableRow"> <td colspan="2" align="center" class="tableCell"> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnUpdate" runat="server" CommandName="Update" CausesValidation="true" ValidationGroup="Update" ImageUrl="~/Images/update.gif"></asp:ImageButton> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnCancel" runat="server" CausesValidation="false" CommandName="Cancel" ImageUrl="~/Images/No.gif"></asp:ImageButton> </td> </tr> </table> </FormTemplate> </EditFormSettings> Locationid is my primary key

    Read the article

  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Error with Property Validation in Form Submission in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Maxim Z.
    I have a simple form on an ASP.NET MVC site that I'm building. This form is submitted, and then I validate that the form fields aren't null, empty, or improperly formatted. However, when I use ModelState.AddModelError() to indicate validation errors from my controller code, I get an error when my view is re-rendered. In Visual Studio, I get that the following line is highlighted as being the location of the error: <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> The error is the following: NullReferenceException was unhandled by user code - object reference not set to an instance of an object. My complete code for that textbox is the following: <p> <label for="Email">Your Email:</label> <%=Html.TextBox("Email")%> <%=Html.ValidationMessage("Email", "*") %> </p> Here's how I'm doing that validation in my controller: try { System.Net.Mail.MailAddress address = new System.Net.Mail.MailAddress(email); } catch { ModelState.AddModelError("Email", "Should not be empty or invalid"); } return View(); Note: this applies to all of my fields, not just my Email field, as long as they are invalid.

    Read the article

  • mod_python req.subprocess_env not "seeing" PythonOptions

    - by Brandon
    I'm having trouble getting an environmental variable out of apache config. (don't ask why it's being done this way, I didn't originally code it) This is what I have in the apache config. <Location "/var/www"> SetHandler python-program PythonHandler mod_python.publisher PythonOption MYSQL_PWD ########### PythonDebug On </Location> This is the problem code... #this is the problem code in question. def index(req): req.add_common_vars() os.environ["MYSQL_PWD"] = req.subprocess_env["MYSQL_PWD"] req.content_type = "text/html" statText = getStatText() here is the traceback I'm getting from executing this. Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/importer.py", line 1537, in HandlerDispatch default=default_handler, arg=req, silent=hlist.silent) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/importer.py", line 1229, in _process_target result = _execute_target(config, req, object, arg) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/importer.py", line 1128, in _execute_target result = object(arg) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/publisher.py", line 213, in handler published = publish_object(req, object) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/publisher.py", line 425, in publish_object return publish_object(req,util.apply_fs_data(object, req.form, req=req)) File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/mod_python/util.py", line 554, in apply_fs_data return object(**args) File "/var/www/admin/Stat.py", line 299, in index os.environ["MYSQL_PWD"] = req.subprocess_env["MYSQL_PWD"] KeyError: 'MYSQL_PWD'

    Read the article

  • How to add validation errors in the validation collection asp.net mvc?

    - by johndoe
    Inside my controller's action I have the following code: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add errors to the errors collection and then return the view saying that you cannot select the dropdownlist value with the "Please Select" option } return View(); UPDATE: if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add error ModelState.AddModelError("GridActionDropDownList", "Please select an option"); return RedirectToAction("Orders"); } } UPDATE 2: Here is my updated code: @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedGridAction, Model.GridActions,"Please Select") @Html.ValidationMessageFor(x => x.SelectedGridAction) The Model looks like the following: public class MyInvoicesViewModel { private List<SelectListItem> _gridActions; public int CurrentGridAction { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please select an option")] public string SelectedGridAction { get; set; } public List<SelectListItem> GridActions { get { _gridActions = new List<SelectListItem>(); _gridActions.Add(new SelectListItem() { Text = "Export to Excel", Value = "1"}); return _gridActions; } } } And here is my controller action: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { if (String.IsNullOrEmpty(id)) { // add error ModelState.AddModelError("SelectedGridAction", "Please select an option"); return RedirectToAction("Orders"); } return View(); } Nothing happens! I am totally lost on this one! UPDATE 3: I am now using the following code but still the validation is not firing: public ActionResult GridAction(string id) { var myViewModel= new MyViewModel(); myViewModel.SelectedGridAction = id; // id is passed as null if (!ModelState.IsValid) { return View("Orders"); }

    Read the article

  • Ext JS 4: Show all columns in Ext.grid.Panel as custom option

    - by MacGyver
    Is there a function that can be called on an Ext.grid.Panel in ExtJS that will make all columns visible, if some of them are hidden by default? Whenever an end-user needs to show the hidden columns, they need to click each column. Below, I have some code to add a custom menu option when you select a field header. I'd like to execute this function so all columns show. As an example below, I have 'Project ID' and 'User Created' hidden by default. By choosing 'Select All Columns' would turn those columns on, so they show in the list view. listeners: { ... }, afterrender: function() { var menu = this.headerCt.getMenu(); menu.add([{ text: 'Select All Columns', handler: function() { var columnDataIndex = menu.activeHeader.dataIndex; alert('custom item for column "'+columnDataIndex+'" was pressed'); } }]); } } }); =========================== Answer (with code): Here's what I decided to do based on Eric's code below, since hiding all columns was silly. afterrender: function () { var menu = this.headerCt.getMenu(); menu.add([{ text: 'Show All Columns', handler: function () { var columnDataIndex = menu.activeHeader.dataIndex; Ext.each(grid.headerCt.getGridColumns(), function (column) { column.show(); }); } }]); menu.add([{ text: 'Hide All Columns Except This', handler: function () { var columnDataIndex = menu.activeHeader.dataIndex; alert(columnDataIndex); Ext.each(grid.headerCt.getGridColumns(), function (column) { if (column.dataIndex != columnDataIndex) { column.hide(); } }); } }]); }

    Read the article

  • Throttling CPU/Memory usage of a Thread in Java?

    - by Nalandial
    I'm writing an application that will have multiple threads running, and want to throttle the CPU/memory usage of those threads. There is a similar question for C++, but I want to try and avoid using C++ and JNI if possible. I realize this might not be possible using a higher level language, but I'm curious to see if anyone has any ideas. EDIT: Added a bounty; I'd like some really good, well thought out ideas on this. EDIT 2: The situation I need this for is executing other people's code on my server. Basically it is completely arbitrary code, with the only guarantee being that there will be a main method on the class file. Currently, multiple completely disparate classes, which are loaded in at runtime, are executing concurrently as separate threads. I inherited this code (the original author is gone). The way it's written, it would be a pain to refactor to create separate processes for each class that gets executed. If that's the only good way to limit memory usage via the VM arguments, then so be it. But I'd like to know if there's a way to do it with threads. Even as a separate process, I'd like to be able to somehow limit its CPU usage, since as I mentioned earlier, several of these will be executing at once. I don't want an infinite loop to hog up all the resources. EDIT 3: An easy way to approximate object size is with java's Instrumentation classes; specifically, the getObjectSize method. Note that there is some special setup needed to use this tool.

    Read the article

  • How to access C arrays from assembler for Windows x64?

    - by 0xdword32
    I've written an assembler function to speed up a few things for image processing (images are created with CreateDIBSection). For Win32 the assembler code works without problems, but for Win64 I get a crash as soon as I try to access my array data. I put the relevant info in a struct and my assembler function gets a pointer to this struct. The struct pointer is put into ebx/rbx and with indexing I read the data from the struct. Any idea what I am doing wrong? I use nasm together with Visual Studio 2008 and for Win64 I set "default rel". C++ code: struct myData { tUInt32 ulParam1; void* pData; }; CallMyAssemblerFunction(&myData); Assembler Code: Win32: ... push ebp; mov ebp,esp mov ebx, [ebp + 8]; pointer to our struct mov eax, [ebx]; ulParam1 mov esi, [ebx + 4]; pData, 4 byte pointer movd xmm0, [esi]; ... Win64: ... mov rbx, rcx; pointer to our struct mov eax, [rbx]; ulParam1 mov rsi, [rbx + 4]; pData, 8 byte pointer movd xmm0, [rsi]; CRASH! ...

    Read the article

  • Why would fopen fail to open a file that exists?

    - by void
    I'm on Windows XP using Visual Studio 6 (yes I know it's old) building/maintaining a C++ DLL. I'm encountered a problem with fopen failing to open an existing file, it always returns NULL. I've tried: Checking errno and _doserrno by setting both to zero and then checking them again, both remain zero, and thus GetLastError() reports no errors. I know fopen isn't required to set errno when it encounters an error according to a C standard. Hardcoding the file path, which are not relative. Tried on another developers machine which the same result. The really strange thing is CreateFile works and the file can be read with ReadFile. We believe this works in a release build, however we are also seeing some very odd behaviour in other areas of the application and we're not sure if this is related. The code is below, I don't see anything odd it looks quite standard to me. The source file hasn't changed for just under half a year. HRESULT CDataHandler::LoadFile( CStdString szFilePath ) { //Code FILE* pFile; if ( NULL == ( pFile = fopen( szFilePath.c_str(), "rb") ) ) { return S_FALSE; } //More code }

    Read the article

  • How do I specify Open ID Realm in spring security ?

    - by Salvin Francis
    We are using Spring security in our application with support for username / password based authentication as well as Open id based authentication. The issue is that google gives a different open id for the return url specified and we have at least 2 different entry points in our application from where open id is configured into our system. Hence we decided to use open id realm. http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2009/0...ue-per-domain/ http://groups.google.com/group/googl...unts-api?pli=1 how is it possible to integrate realm into our spring configuration/code ? This is how we are doing it in traditional openid library code: AuthRequest authReq = consumerManager.authenticate(discovered, someReturnToUrl,"http://www.example.com"); This works and gives same open id for different urls from our site. our configuration: Code: ... <http auto-config="false"> <!-- <intercept-url> tags are here --> <remember-me user-service-ref="someRememberedService" key="some key" /> <form-login login-page="/Login.html" authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="false" default-target-url="/MainPage.html"/> <openid-login authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="true" default-target-url="/MainPage.html" user-service-ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </http> ... <beans:bean id="someOpenIdUserService" class="com.something.MyOpenIDUserDetailsService"> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="openIdAuthenticationProvider" class="com.something.MyOpenIDAuthenticationProvider"> <custom-authentication-provider /> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </beans:bean> ...

    Read the article

  • Improve Application Performace

    - by Gtest
    Hello, Want To Improvide Performace Of C#.Net Applicaiton.. In My Application I am using Third Party Interop/Dll To Process .doc Files. It's a Simple Operation, Which Pass Input/Output FilePath to Interop dll ...& dll will execute text form input file. To Improve Performace I have Tried, Execute 2 therad to process 32 files.(each Thread process 16 files) Execute application code by creating 2 new AppDomains(each AppDomain Code process 16 files) Execute Code Using TPL(Task Parellel Library) But all options take around same time (32 sec) to process 32 files.Manually process tooks same 32 sec to process 32 files. Just tried one thing ..when i have created sample exe to process 16 files as input & output for refrence PAth given in TextBox. ..I open 2 exe instance to process. 1 exe has differnt 16 input files & output Created with input file path 2 exe has differnt 16 input files & output Created with input file path When i click on start button of both exe ..it use 100% cpu & Utilize both core significantly & Process Completed within 16 sec for 32 files. Can we provide this kind of explicit prallism to Improve my applicaiton Peformace? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to perform Linq select new with datetime in SQL 2008

    - by kd7iwp
    In our C# code I recently changed a line from inside a linq-to-sql select new query as follows: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Year.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Month.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Day.ToString() : "") To: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") The change makes the line smaller and cleaner. It also works fine with our SQL 2008 database in our development environment. However, when the code deployed to our production environment which uses SQL 2005 I received an exception stating: Nullable Type must have a value. For further analysis I copied (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") into a string (outside of a Linq statement) and had no problems at all, so it only causes an in issue inside my Linq. Is this problem just something to do with SQL 2005 using different date formats than from SQL 2008? Here's more of the Linq: dt = FilteredOrders.Where(x => x != null).Select(p => new { Order = p.OrderId, link = "/order/" + p.OrderId.ToString(), StudentId = (p.PersonId.HasValue ? p.PersonId.Value : 0), FirstName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.FirstName, LastName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.LastName, DeliverBy = p.DeliverBy, OrderDate = p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : ""}).ToDataTable(); This is selecting from a List of Order objects. The FilteredOrders list is from another linq-to-sql query and I call .AsEnumerable on it before giving it to this particular select new query. Doing this in regular code works fine: if (o.OrderDate.HasValue) tempString += " " + o.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd");

    Read the article

  • dialing on iphone/ipod touch not working with documented procedures

    - by dave
    I'm trying to set up an iphone app to the phone number of a various sports store using the tel:// url passing method- I am developing on an ipod touch- usually on the touch you see the error message "Unsupported URL - This URL wasn't loaded tel://99887766" when you try and dial a number. I cant get this message to appear on the simulator or the ipod touch. do I need to do some sort of fancy signing before the app will dial properly? I am using this code: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@", [selectedBar phoneNumber]]]]; and I've tried adding the slashes: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel://%@", [selectedBar phoneNumber]]]]; but neither work. I have also tried this way: [[UIApplication application] openURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"tel://99887766"]]; and this way: NSMutableString *phone = [[@"+ 12 34 567 89 01" mutableCopy] autorelease]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@"(" withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; [phone replaceOccurrencesOfString:@")" withString:@"" options:NSLiteralSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [phone length])]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"tel:%@", phone]]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:url]; No matter what i do i can't get any response from the simulator / ipod touch that it is dealing with a phone number- When I press the button associated with this code, it doesnt crash, it's like its processed it and decided not to do anything. i even put an NSLog(@"button called"); in just before the code to confirm the button was working, which it is.

    Read the article

  • singleton factory connection pdo

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I am having a lot of trouble trying to understand this and I was just wondering if someone could help me with some questions. I found some code that is supposed to create a connection with pdo. The problem I was having was having my connection defined within functions. Someone suggested globals but then pointed to a 'better' solution http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130878/global-or-singleton-for-database-connection. My questions with this code are. PS I cannot format this code on this page so see the link if you cannot read What is the point of the connection factory? What goes inside new ConnectionFactory(...) When the connection is defined $db = new PDO(...); why is there no try or catch (I use those for error handling)? Does this then mean I have to use try and catch for every subsequent query? class ConnectionFactory { private static $factory; public static function getFactory() { if (!self::$factory) self::$factory = new ConnectionFactory(...); return self::$factory; } private $db; public function getConnection() { if (!$db) $db = new PDO(...); return $db; } } function getSomething() { $conn = ConnectionFactory::getFactory()-getConnection(); . . . }

    Read the article

  • Ruby and duck typing: design by contract impossible?

    - by davetron5000
    Method signature in Java: public List<String> getFilesIn(List<File> directories) similar one in ruby def get_files_in(directories) In the case of Java, the type system gives me information about what the method expects and delivers. In Ruby's case, I have no clue what I'm supposed to pass in, or what I'll expect to receive. In Java, the object must formally implement the interface. In Ruby, the object being passed in must respond to whatever methods are called in the method defined here. This seems highly problematic: Even with 100% accurate, up-to-date documentation, the Ruby code has to essentially expose its implementation, breaking encapsulation. "OO purity" aside, this would seem to be a maintenance nightmare. The Ruby code gives me no clue what's being returned; I would have to essentially experiment, or read the code to find out what methods the returned object would respond to. Not looking to debate static typing vs duck typing, but looking to understand how you maintain a production system where you have almost no ability to design by contract. Update No one has really addressed the exposure of a method's internal implementation via documentation that this approach requires. Since there are no interfaces, if I'm not expecting a particular type, don't I have to itemize every method I might call so that the caller knows what can be passed in? Or is this just an edge case that doesn't really come up?

    Read the article

  • if/else statement in a function: using onclick as a switch

    - by Aurora Schmidt
    I have looked for solutions to this on google for what seems like an eternity, but I can't seem to formulate my search correctly, or nobody has posted the code I'm looking for earlier. I am currently trying to make a function that will modify one or several margins of a div element. I want to use an if/else statement within the function, so that the onclick event will switch between the two conditions. This is what I have been working on so far; function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').style.margin-left == "-250px";) { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="0px"; } else { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="-250px"; } } I have tried twisting it around a little, like switching between "marginLeft" and "margin-left", to see if I was just using the wrong terms.. I'm starting to wonder if it might not be possible to combine jQuery and regular javascript? I don't know.. It's all just guesses on my part at this point. Anyway, I have a div, which is now positioned (fixed) so almost all of it is hidden outside the borders of the browser. I want the margin to change onclick so that it will be fully shown on the page. And when it is shown, I want to be able to hide it again by clicking it. I might be approaching this in the wrong way, but I really hope someone can help me out, or even tell me another way to get the same results. Thank you for any help you can give me. You can see it in action at: http://www.torucon.no/test/ (EDIT: By the way, I am a complete javascript novice, I have no experience with javascript prior to this experiment. Please don't be too harsh, as I am aware I probably made some really stupid mistakes in this short code.) EDITED CODE: function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px') { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '0px'); } else { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px'); } }

    Read the article

  • Building a formset dynamically

    - by vorpyg
    I initially wrote code to build a form dynamically, based on data from the DB, similar to what I described in my previous SO post. As SO user Daniel Roseman points out, he would use a formset for this, and now I've come to the realization that he must be completely right. :) My approach works, basically, but I can't seem to get validation across the entire form to be working properly (I believe it's possible, but it's getting quite complex, and there has to be a smarter way of doing it = Formsets!). So now my question is: How can I build a formset dynamically? Not in an AJAX way, I want each form's label to be populated with an FK value (team) from the DB. As I have a need for passing parameters to the form, I've used this technique from a previous SO post. With the former approach, my view code is (form code in previous link): def render_form(request): teams = Team.objects.filter(game=game) form_collection = [] for team in teams: f = SuggestionForm(request.POST or None, team=team, user=request.user) form_collection.append(f) Now I want to do something like: def render_form(request): teams = Team.objects.filter(game=game) from django.utils.functional import curry from django.forms.formsets import formset_factory formset = formset_factory(SuggestionForm) for team in teams: formset.form.append(staticmethod(curry(SuggestionForm, request.POST or None, team=team, user=request.user))) But the append bit doesn't work. What's the proper way of doing this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to minify JS in PHP easily...Or something else

    - by RickyAYoder
    I've done some looking around, but I'm still confused a bit. I tried Crockford's JSMin, but Win XP can't unzip the executable file for some reason. What I really want though is a simple and easy-to-use JS minifier that uses PHP to minify JS code--and return the result. The reason why is because: I have 2 files (for example) that I'm working between: scripts.js and scripts_template.js scripts_template is normal code that I write out--then I have to minify it and paste the minified script into scripts.js--the one that I actually USE on my website. I want to eradicate the middle man by simply doing something like this on my page: <script type="text/javascript" src="scripts.php"></script> And then for the contents of scripts.php: <?php include("include.inc"); header("Content-type:text/javascript"); echo(minify_js(file_get_contents("scripts_template.js"))); This way, whenever I update my JS, I don't have to constantly go to a website to minify it and re-paste it into scripts.js--everything is automatically updated. Yes, I have also tried Crockford's PHP Minifier and I've taken a look at PHP Speedy, but I don't understand PHP classes just yet...Is there anything out there that a monkey could understand, maybe something with RegExp? How about we make this even simpler? I just want to remove tab spaces--I still want my code to be readable. It's not like the script makes my site lag epically, it's just anything is better than nothing. Tab removal, anyone? And if possible, how about removing completely BLANK lines?

    Read the article

  • sorting filtered data in asp.net listview

    - by user791345
    I've created a listview that's filled up with a list of guitars from the database on page load like so: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["GuitarsLTDBConnectionString"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Guitars", con); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd.CommandText, con); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); da.Fill(dt); lvGuitars.DataSource = dt; lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The following code filters that list of guitars by a certain Make when the user checks the checkbox corresponding to that make protected void chkOrgs_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); if (chkOrgs.SelectedValue == "Gibson") { dv.RowFilter = "Make = 'Gibson' OR Make='Fender'"; } lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } Now, what I want to do is be able to sort the latest data that is present within the listview. Meaning, if sort is clicked before filtering, the it should sort all data. If sort is clicked after filtering, it should sort the filtered data. I'm using the following code, which is triggered upon a LinkButton click protected void lnkSortResults_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = (DataTable)lvGuitars.DataSource; DataView dv = new DataView(dt); dv.Sort = "Make ASC"; lvGuitars.DataSource = dv.ToTable(); lvGuitars.DataBind(); } The problem is that all the data that the listview was loaded with before any filtering is sorted, and not the latest filtered data. How can I change this code so that the latest data available in the listview is the one that's sorted? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Saving and retrieving image in SQL database from C# problem

    - by Mobin
    I used this code for inserting records in a person table in my DB System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); Image img = Image_Box.Image; img.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Bmp); this.personTableAdapter1.Insert(NIC_Box.Text.Trim(), Application_Box.Text.Trim(), Name_Box.Text.Trim(), Father_Name_Box.Text.Trim(), DOB_TimePicker.Value.Date, Address_Box.Text.Trim(), City_Box.Text.Trim(), Country_Box.Text.Trim(), ms.GetBuffer()); but when i retrieve this with this code byte[] image = (byte[])Person_On_Application.Rows[0][8]; MemoryStream Stream = new MemoryStream(); Stream.Write(image, 0, image.Length); Bitmap Display_Picture = new Bitmap(Stream); Image_Box.Image = Display_Picture; it works perfectly fine but if i update this with my own generated Query like System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); Image img = Image_Box.Image; img.Save(ms, System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Bmp); Query = "UPDATE Person SET Person_Image ='"+ms.GetBuffer()+"' WHERE (Person_NIC = '"+NIC_Box.Text.Trim()+"')"; the next time i use the same code for retrieving the image and displaying it as used above . Program throws an exception

    Read the article

  • NHibernate stored procedure problem

    - by Calvin
    I'm having a hard time trying to get my stored procedure works with NHibernate. The data returned from the SP does not correspond to any database table. This is my mapping file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="DomainModel" namespace="DomainModel.Entities"> <sql-query name="DoSomething"> <return class="SomeClass"> <return-property name="ID" column="ID"/> </return> exec [dbo].[sp_doSomething] </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> Here is my domain class: namespace DomainModel.Entities { public class SomeClass { public SomeClass() { } public virtual Guid ID { get; set; } } } When I run the code, it fails with Exception Details: NHibernate.HibernateException: Errors in named queries: {DoSomething} at line 80 Line 78: config.Configure(Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "NHibernate.config")); Line 79: Line 80: g_sessionFactory = config.BuildSessionFactory(); When I debug into NHibernate code, it seems that SomeClass is not added to the persister dictionary because there isn't a class mapping (only sql-query) defined in hbm.xml. And later on in CheckNamedQueries function, it is not able to find the persistor for SomeClass. I've checked all the obvious things (e.g. make hbm as an embedded resource) and my code isn't too much different from other samples I found on the web, but somehow I just can't get it working. Any idea how I can resolve this issue?

    Read the article

  • dynamically created controls and responding to control events

    - by Dirk
    I'm working on an ASP.NET project in which the vast majority of the forms are generated dynamically at run time (form definitions are stored in a DB for customizability). Therefore, I have to dynamically create and add my controls to the Page every time OnLoad fires, regardless of IsPostBack. This has been working just fine and .NET takes care of managing ViewState for these controls. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); RenderDynamicControls() } private void RenderDynamicControls(){ //1. call service layer to retrieve form definition //2. create and add controls to page container } I have a new requirement in which if a user clicks on a given button (this button is created at design time) the page should be re-rendered in a slightly different way. So in addition to the code that executes in OnLoad (i.e. RenderDynamicControls()), I have this code: protected void MyButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() } private void RenderDynamicControlsALittleDifferently() (){ //1. clear all controls from the page container added in RenderDynamicControls() //2. call service layer to retrieve form definition //3. create and add controls to page container } My question is, is this really the only way to accomplish what I'm after? It seems beyond hacky to effectively render the form twice simply to respond to a button click. I gather from my research that this is simply how the page-lifecycle works in ASP.NET: Namely, that OnLoad must fire on every Postback before child events are invoked. Still, it's worthwhile to check with the SO community before having to drink the kool-aid. On a related note, once I get this feature completed, I'm planning on throwing an UpdatePanel on the page to perform the page updates via Ajax. Any code/advice that make that transition easier would be much appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • TypeError: Error #1009 - (Null reference error) With Flash.

    - by Wind Chimez
    I am not an expert in flash, but i do work with AS and tweak Flash projects , though not having deep expertise in it. Currently i need to revamp a flash website done by one another guy, and the code base given to me, upon execution is throwing the following error. "--- TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/__setProp_ContactOutP1_ContactOut_Contents_0() at NewSite_fla::MainTimeline/frame1() --" The structure of the project is like, it has the different sections split into different movie clips. There is no single main timeline, but click actions on different areas of seperate movie clips will take them between one another. All the AS logic of event handling are written inline in FLA , no seperate Document class exists. Preloader Movie clip is the first one getting loaded. As i understood the error is getting thrown initially itself, and it is not happening due to any Action script logic written inline, because it is throwing error even before hitting the first inline AS code. I am not able to figure Out what exactly it causing the problem, or where to resolve it. I really got stuck at this point. Any help will be great.I had not seen the particular solution i am looking for anywhere yet, though Error #1009 is common. I uploaded the fla, here ( http://tinyurl.com/249e95p ), for reference.It may not be working , since the included/refered video files and all are not there, but reviwing the action code/movie clips will be possible. Please let me know if somebody will be able to trace the issue exactly.

    Read the article

  • XML problem in the basic menu example

    - by arakn0
    Hi there, I am trying to create an app with some menus, an I am following the basic example available in the official android site: http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/ui/menus.html My problems appear when I define the menu in the XML. After creating the folder res/menu and creating the menu_option.xml file from eclipse.... The project (in general) gives an error that can be read from the Problems tab: Unparsed aapt error(s)! Check the console for output Android Packaging Problem So, changing to the Console tab to get more information about the problem, this can be read: [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] Error in an XML file: aborting build. [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] W/ResourceType(11566): Bad XML block: header size 63327 or total size -144759824 is larger than data size 0 [2010-06-02 11:35:54 - TestAudio] /home/User/workspace/TestAudio/res/menu/options_menu.xml:1: error: Error parsing XML: no element found The strange thing is that eclipse recognizes the menu items that I've defined in the XML,I can reference them in the code with no problems and my main activity builds. (and the rest of the files too). Could it be that when eclipse creates a file, for some reason, the Android SDK has problems to read it, or something similar?? The XML code is exactly the same as the one in the example, so I don't really know what is happening. The code in options_menu.xml is this: <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" <item android:id="@+id/new_game" android:title="New Game" / <item android:id="@+id/quit" android:title="Quit" / </menu Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • CSS styles are not applied to elements added to JavaFX component tree

    - by pazabo
    I have applied CSS style to JavaFX components and it looks like everything is working fine except one situation: when I add JavaFX components to component tree on-the-fly their CSS styles are not applied. For example following code: package test; import javafx.stage.Stage; import javafx.scene.Scene; import javafx.scene.shape.Rectangle; import javafx.scene.input.MouseEvent; import javafx.util.Math; import javafx.scene.paint.Color; function getRect(): Rectangle { return Rectangle { x: 230 * Math.random() y: 60 * Math.random() width: 20, height: 20 styleClass: "abc" } } def stage: Stage = Stage { scene: Scene { width: 250, height: 80 stylesheets: "{__DIR__}main.css" content: [ Rectangle { x: 0, y: 0, width: 250, height: 80 fill: Color.WHITE onMouseClicked: function (evt: MouseEvent): Void { insert getRect() into stage.scene.content; } } getRect() ] } } with following stylesheet: .abc { fill: red; } in main.css file (both in test package) display red square on white background, but after clicking the main rectangle black (not red) squares are added to scene. I noticed that: Components added dynamically look just like style information was not applied. If you set their style in JavaFX code then everything works fine. After changing stylesheets property (so that it points to another valid stylesheet) the objects already added render properly. Does anyone know the solution to this problem? I could of course put all the properties into JavaFX code or provide another stylesheet (for every existing stylesheed) that would contain the same data and change stylesheet right after adding any component, but I would like to find some elegant solution. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 827 828 829 830 831 832 833 834 835 836 837 838  | Next Page >