Search Results

Search found 47506 results on 1901 pages for 'system sounds'.

Page 836/1901 | < Previous Page | 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840 841 842 843  | Next Page >

  • Subsonic 3, MySql, won't update record.

    - by Warspawn
    [WebMethod] public string GetAuthToken(string username, string password) { var db = new LogicDB(); //var results = from u in db.Users // where u.Username == username && u.Password == password // select u; User u = db.Select .From<User>() .Where(UsersTable.UsernameColumn).IsEqualTo(username) .And(UsersTable.PasswordColumn).IsEqualTo(password) .ExecuteSingle<User>(); if (u == null) { return "{'success': false, 'reason': 'Invalid username and/or password.'}"; } else { // really there should only be one match... Guid code = Guid.NewGuid(); u.Securitycode = code.ToString(); u.Securityexp = System.DateTime.Now.AddHours(24); //u.Save(db.Provider); return "{'id':'" + u.Id.ToString() + "', 'code':'" + code.ToString() + "', 'exp':'" + u.Securityexp.ToString() + "'}" + "\n\n<br/><br/>" + u.GetDirtyColumns().ToArray().ToString(); } } When I run that, I keep getting: System.Collections.Generic.KeyNotFoundException: The given key was not present in the dictionary. This is when u.Save(db.Provider); is uncommented. And happens even with just u.Save(); or using the linq query above results instead.

    Read the article

  • C# CreatePipe() -> Protected memory error

    - by M. Dimitri
    Hi all, I trying to create a pipe using C#. The code is quite simple but I get a error saying "Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt." Here the COMPLETE code of my form : public partial class Form1 : Form { [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool CreatePipe(out SafeFileHandle hReadPipe, out SafeFileHandle hWritePipe, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES lpPipeAttributes, int nSize); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES { public DWORD nLength; public IntPtr lpSecurityDescriptor; public bool bInheritHandle; } public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void btCreate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES sa = new SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES(); sa.nLength = (DWORD)System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.SizeOf(sa); sa.lpSecurityDescriptor = IntPtr.Zero; sa.bInheritHandle = true; SafeFileHandle hWrite = null; SafeFileHandle hRead = null; if (CreatePipe(out hRead, out hWrite, sa, 4096)) { MessageBox.Show("Pipe created !"); } else MessageBox.Show("Error : Pipe not created !"); } } At the top I declare : using DWORD = System.UInt32; Thank you very much if someone can help.

    Read the article

  • Does SmtpClient class represent POP3 client or…?

    - by SourceC
    I assume that web controls (such as the PasswordRecovery control) use SmtpClient to send email messages. If so, does SmtpClient represent a POP3 client or does SmtpClient forward email message to POP3 client? Do attributes specified inside <smtp> element in web.config map to SmtpClient class? <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp deliveryMethod="Network" ...></smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net> One of the possible values for the attribute deliveryMethod is Network, which tells that email should be sent through the network to an SMTP server. In other words, this value tells to send email to SMTP server using SMTP protocol?! For the PasswordRecovery control to be able to send email messages, we need to set basic properties in <MailDefinition> subelement of the PasswordRecovery control. Thus I assume MailDefinition is used by controls to create an email message?!

    Read the article

  • silverlight master-detail with two listboxes in pure xaml with ria services throwing exception

    - by Sam
    Hi, I was trying to achieve master-detail with 2 ListBox, 2 DomainDataSource and a IValueConverter, when entering the page it throws the random error it does when your xaml is invalid: "AG_E_PARSER_BAD_PROPERTY_VALUE [Line: 24 Position: 61]" Which is in fact the start position of where I am binding the listbox selected item with converter to the parameter's value of my DomainDataSource. I would love to achieve this by pure xaml, I did it by code behind and that works but I don't like it :p When the parameter is a hard-coded integer 1, it works, so I assume it's the value binding My code is below here, thanks in advance for at least looking :) (taken into accound all the xmlns's & usings are correct) Xaml: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Grid.Resources> <helpers:ListItemtoIdListValueConverter x:Key="mListConverter" /> </Grid.Resources> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource x:Name="GetLists" DomainContext="{StaticResource DbContext}" LoadSize="20" QueryName="GetLists" AutoLoad="True" /> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource x:Name="GetListItems" DomainContext="{StaticResource DbContext}" LoadSize="20" QueryName="GetListItemsById" AutoLoad="True"> <riacontrols:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> <riadata:Parameter ParameterName="id" Value="{Binding ElementName=ListBoxLists, Path=SelectedItem, Converter={StaticResource mListConverter}}" /> </riacontrols:DomainDataSource.QueryParameters> </riacontrols:DomainDataSource> <activity:Activity IsActive="{Binding IsBusy, ElementName=ListBoxListItems}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <ListBox x:Name="ListBoxLists" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=GetLists, Mode=OneWay}" Width="150" Margin="0,0,10,10" /> <ListBox x:Name="ListBoxListItems" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=GetListItems, Mode=OneWay}" Width="150" Margin="0,0,10,10" /> </StackPanel> </activity:Activity> </Grid> IValueConverter: public class ListItemtoIdListValueConverter: IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { list mList = (list)value; if (mList != null) return mList.id; else return null; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion }

    Read the article

  • InvalidCastException for two Objects of the same type

    - by LLEA
    hi, I have this weird problem that I cannot handle myself. A class in the model of my mvp-project designed as singleton causes an InvalidCastException. The source of error is found in this code line where the deserialised object is assigned to the instance variable of the class: engineObject = (ENGINE)xSerializer.Deserialize(str); It occurs whenever I try to add one of my UserControls to a Form or to a different UC. All of my UCs have a special presenter that access the above mentioned instance variable of the singleton class. This is what I get when trying to add a UC somewhere: 'System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'MVP.Model.EngineData' threw an exception. ---- System.InvalidCastException: [A]Engine cannot be cast to [B]Engine. Type A originates from 'MVP.Model, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location '[...]\AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\ProjectAssemblies\uankw1hh01\MVP.Model.dll'. Type B originates from 'MVP.Model, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location '[...]\AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\ProjectAssemblies\u_hge2de01\MVP.Model.dll'... So I somehow have two assemblies and they are not accessed from my project folder, but from a VS temp folder? I googled a lot and only found this: IronPython Exception: [A]Person cannot be cast to [B]Person. There is a solution offered, but first it concerns IronPhyton and second I don't know where to use it within my project? It would be just great, if u could help me out here :-) thx

    Read the article

  • Understanding ItemsSource and DataContext in a DataGrid

    - by Ben McCormack
    I'm trying to understand how the ItemsSource and DataContext properties work in a Silverlight Toolkit DataGrid. I'm currently working with dummy data and trying to get the data in the DataGrid to update when the value of a combo box changes. My MainPage.xaml.vb file currently looks like this: Partial Public Class MainPage Inherits UserControl Private IssueSummaryList As List(Of IssueSummary) Public Sub New() GetDummyIssueSummary("Day") InitializeComponent() dgIssueSummary.ItemsSource = IssueSummaryList 'dgIssueSummary.DataContext = IssueSummaryList ' End Sub Private Sub GetDummyIssueSummary(ByVal timeInterval As String) Dim lst As New List(Of IssueSummary)() 'Generate dummy data for lst ' IssueSummaryList = lst End Sub Private Sub ComboBox_SelectionChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Controls.SelectionChangedEventArgs) Dim cboBox As ComboBox = CType(sender, ComboBox) Dim cboBoxItem As ComboBoxItem = CType(cboBox.SelectedValue, ComboBoxItem) GetDummyIssueSummary(cboBoxItem.Content.ToString()) End Sub End Class My XAML currently looks this for the DataGrid: <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgIssueSummary" AutoGenerateColumns="False" > <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding ProblemType}" Header="Problem Type"/> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding Count}" Header="Count"/> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> The problem is that if I set the value of the ItemsSource property of the data grid equal to IssueSummaryList, it will display the data when it loads, but it won't update when the underlying IssueSummaryList collection changes. If I set the DataContext of the grid to be IssueSummaryList, no data will be displayed when it renders. I must not understand how ItemsSource and DataContext are supposed to function, because I expect one of those properties to "just work" when I assign a List object to them. What do I need to understand and change in my code so that as data changes in the List, the data in the grid is updated?

    Read the article

  • WCF Mono - BasicHttpBinding with SSL

    - by TheNextman
    I'm trying to port an existing WCF client application to run on Linux under Mono. Right now I'm testing everything out, figuring out what works on Mono and what doesn't. The client makes a super simple call over basicHttpBinding. It works great, until I enable SSL (that is, specify BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport in the binding). Running on .NET in Windows, it works great Running on Mono on Ubuntu 9.10 / Mono 2.6 I get the following error: Exception in async operation: System.Net.WebException: Error getting response stream (Write: The authentication or decryption has failed.): SendFailure --- System.IO.IOException: The authentication or decryption has failed. --- Mono.Security.Protocol.Tls.TlsException: Invalid certificate received from server. Error code: 0xffffffff800b010a I've read the Mono security FAQ here: http://www.mono-project.com/FAQ:_Security; however the SSL certificate on the server is from a root CA (a purchased certificate) - issued by Equifax Secure Certificate Authority. I ran the TlsTest tool on the Ubuntu install against the .svc URL and there are no problems/errors. Also I can hit the service fine in Firefox (no security warnings). What am I missing? Thanks in advance, Richard

    Read the article

  • Access static method from non static class possible in java and not in c#

    - by sagar_kool
    Access static method from non static class with object. It is not possible in C#. Where it is done by JAVA. How it works? example of java /** * Access static member of the class through object. */ import java.io.*; class StaticMemberClass { // Declare a static method. public static void staticDisplay() { System.out.println("This is static method."); } // Declare a non static method. public void nonStaticDisplay() { System.out.println("This is non static method."); } } class StaticAccessByObject { public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { // call a static member only by class name. StaticMemberClass.staticDisplay(); // Create object of StaticMemberClass class. StaticMemberClass obj = new StaticMemberClass(); // call a static member only by object. obj.staticDisplay(); // accessing non static method through object. obj.nonStaticDisplay(); } } Output of the program: This is static method. This is static method. This is non static method. How to do this in C#? thanks in advance..

    Read the article

  • Validate MVC 2 form using Data annotations and Linq-to-SQL, before the model binder kicks in (with D

    - by Stefanvds
    I'm using linq to SQL and MVC2 with data annotations and I'm having some problems on validation of some types. For example: [DisplayName("Geplande sessies")] [PositiefGeheelGetal(ErrorMessage = "Ongeldige ingave. Positief geheel getal verwacht")] public string Proj_GeplandeSessies { get; set; } This is an integer, and I'm validating to get a positive number from the form. public class PositiefGeheelGetalAttribute : RegularExpressionAttribute { public PositiefGeheelGetalAttribute() : base(@"\d{1,7}") { } } Now the problem is that when I write text in the input, I don't get to see THIS error, but I get the errormessage from the modelbinder saying "The value 'Tomorrow' is not valid for Geplande sessies." The code in the controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(Projecten p) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { _db.Projectens.InsertOnSubmit(p); _db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } else { SelectList s = new SelectList(_db.Verbonds, "Verb_ID", "Verb_Naam"); ViewData["Verbonden"] = s; } return View(); } What I want is being able to run the Data Annotations before the Model binder, but that sounds pretty much impossible. What I really want is that my self-written error messages show up on the screen. I have the same problem with a DateTime, which i want the users to write in the specific form 'dd/MM/yyyy' and i have a regex for that. but again, by the time the data-annotations do their job, all i get is a DateTime Object, and not the original string. So if the input is not a date, the regex does not even run, cos the data annotations just get a null, cos the model binder couldn't make it to a DateTime. Does anyone have an idea how to make this work?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Setting Culture with InitializeCulture

    - by Helen
    I have a website with three domains .com, .de and .it Each domain needs to default to the local language/culture of the country. I have created a base page and added an InitializeCulture Protected Overrides Sub InitializeCulture() Dim url As System.Uri = Request.Url Dim hostname As String = url.Host.ToString() Dim SelectedLanguage As String If HttpContext.Current.Profile("PreferredCulture").ToString Is Nothing Then Select Case hostname Case "www.domain.de" SelectedLanguage = "de" Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = New CultureInfo(SelectedLanguage) Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(SelectedLanguage) Case "www.domain.it" SelectedLanguage = "it" Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = New CultureInfo(SelectedLanguage) Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(SelectedLanguage) Case Else SelectedLanguage = "en" Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = New CultureInfo(SelectedLanguage) Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(SelectedLanguage) End Select End If End Sub This is fine. The problem now occurs because we also want three language selection buttons on the home page so that the user can override the domain language. So on my Default.asp.vb we have three button events like this... Protected Sub langEnglish_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.ImageClickEventArgs) Handles langEnglish.Click Dim SelectedLanguage As String = "en" 'Save selected user language in profile HttpContext.Current.Profile.SetPropertyValue("PreferredCulture", SelectedLanguage) 'Force re-initialization of the page to fire InitializeCulture() Context.Server.Transfer(Context.Request.Path) End Sub But of course the InititalizeCulture then overrides whatever button selection has been made. Is there any way that the InitialCulture can check whether a button click has occurred and if so skip the routine? Any advice would be greatly appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Dynamics CRM Customer Portal Accelerator Installation

    - by saturdayplace
    (I've posted this question on the codeplex forums too, but have yet to get a response) I've got an on-premise installation of CRM and I'm trying to hook the portal to it. My connection string in web.config: <connectionStrings> <add name="Xrm" connectionString="Authentication Type=AD; Server=http://myserver:myport/MyOrgName; User ID=mydomain\crmwebuser; Password=thepassword" /> </connectionStrings> And my membership provider: <membership defaultProvider="CustomCRMProvider"> <providers> <add connectionStringName="Xrm" applicationName="/" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" minRequiredPasswordLength="1" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" name="CustomCRMProvider" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider" /> </providers> </membership> Now, I'm super new to MS style web development, so please help me if I'm missing something. In Visual Studio 2010, when I go to Project ASP.NET Configuration it launches the Web Site Administration Tool. When I click the Security Tab there, I get the following error: There is a problem with your selected data store. This can be caused by an invalid server name or credentials, or by insufficient permission. It can also be caused by the role manager feature not being enabled. Click the button below to be redirected to a page where you can choose a new data store. The following message may help in diagnosing the problem: An error occurred while attempting to initialize a System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection object. The value that was provided for the connection string may be wrong, or it may contain an invalid syntax. Parameter name: connectionString I can't see what I'm doing wrong here. Does the user mydomain\crmwebuser need certain permissions in the SQL database, or somewhere else? edit: On the home page of the Web Site Administration Tool, I have the following: **Application**:/ **Current User Name**:MACHINENAME\USERACCOUNT Which is obviously a different set of credentials than mydomain\crmwebuser. Is this part of the problem?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 2.0 app runs on Win 2003 in IIS 5 isolation mode but not in (default) IIS 6 mode

    - by Tex
    The app uses DLLImport to call a legacy unmanaged dll. Let's call this dll Unmanaged.dll for the sake of this question. Unmanaged.dll has dependencies on 5 other legacy dll's. All of the legacy dll's are placed in the WebApp/bin/ directory of my ASP.NET application. When IIS is running in 5.0 isolation mode, the app works fine - calls to the legacy dll are processed without error. When IIS is running in the default 6.0 mode, the app is able to initiate the Unmanaged.dll (InitMe()), but dies during a later call to it (ProcessString()). I'm pulling my hair out here. I've moved the unmanaged dll's to various locations, tried all kinds of security settings and searched long and hard for a solution. Help! Sample code: [DllImport("Unmanaged.dll", EntryPoint="initME", CharSet=System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi, CallingConvention=CallingConvention.Cdecl)] internal static extern int InitME(); //Calls to InitMe work fine - Unmanaged.dll initiates and writes some entries in a dedicated log file [DllImport("Unmanaged.dll", EntryPoint="processString", CharSet=System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi, CallingConvention=CallingConvention.Cdecl)] internal static extern int ProcessString(string inStream, int inLen, StringBuilder outStream, ref int outLen, int maxLen); //Calls to ProcessString cause the app to crash, without leaving much of a trace that I can find so far

    Read the article

  • Ruby through RVM fails

    - by TheLQ
    In constant battle to install Ruby 1.9.2 on an RPM system (OS is based off of CentOS), I'm trying again with RVM. So once I install it, I then try to use it: [root@quackwall ~]# rvm use 1.9.2 Using /usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136 [root@quackwall ~]# ruby bash: ruby: command not found [root@quackwall ~]# which ruby /usr/bin/which: no ruby in (/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin:/root/bin) Now that's interesting; rvm info says something completely different: [root@quackwall bin]# rvm info ruby-1.9.2-p136: system: uname: "Linux quackwall.highwow.lan 2.6.18-194.8.1.v5 #1 SMP Thu Jul 15 01:14:04 EDT 2010 i686 i686 i386 GNU/Linux" bash: "/bin/bash => GNU bash, version 3.2.25(1)-release (i686-redhat-linux-gnu)" zsh: " => not installed" rvm: version: "rvm 1.2.2 by Wayne E. Seguin ([email protected]) [http://rvm.beginrescueend.com/]" ruby: interpreter: "ruby" version: "1.9.2p136" date: "2010-12-25" platform: "i686-linux" patchlevel: "2010-12-25 revision 30365" full_version: "ruby 1.9.2p136 (2010-12-25 revision 30365) [i686-linux]" homes: gem: "/usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136" ruby: "/usr/local/rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.2-p136" binaries: ruby: "/usr/local/rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/ruby" irb: "/usr/local/rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/irb" gem: "/usr/local/rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/gem" rake: "/usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin/rake" environment: PATH: "/usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin:/usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136@global/bin:/usr/local/rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.2-p136/bin:bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin:/root/bin:/usr/local/rvm/bin" GEM_HOME: "/usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136" GEM_PATH: "/usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136:/usr/local/rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-p136@global" MY_RUBY_HOME: "/usr/local/rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.2-p136" IRBRC: "/usr/local/rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.2-p136/.irbrc" RUBYOPT: "" gemset: "" So I have RVM that says one thing and bash which says another. Any suggestions on how to get this working?

    Read the article

  • Cannot use READPAST in snapshot isolation mode

    - by Marcus
    I have a process which is called from multiple threads which does the following: Start transaction Select unit of work from work table with by finding the next row where IsProcessed=0 with hints (UPDLOCK, HOLDLOCK, READPAST) Process the unit of work (C# and SQL stored procedures) Commit the transaction The idea of this is that a thread dips into the pool for the "next" piece of work, and processes it, and the locks are there to ensure that a single piece of work is not processed twice. (the order doesn't matter). All this has been working fine for months. Until today that is, when I happened to realise that despite enabling snapshot isolation and making it the default at the database level, the actual transaction creation code was manually setting an isolation level of "ReadCommitted". I duly changed that to "Snapshot", and of course immediately received the "You can only specify the READPAST lock in the READ COMMITTED or REPEATABLE READ" error message. Oops! The main reason for locking the row was to "mark the row" in such a way that the "mark" would be removed when the transaction that applied the mark was committed and the lock seemed to be the best way to do this, since this table isn't read otherwise except by these threads. If I were to use the IsProcessed flag as the lock, then presumably I would need to do the update first, and then select the row I just updated, but I would need to employ the NOLOCK flag to know whether any other thread had set the flag on a row. All sounds a bit messy. The easiest option would be to abandon the snapshot isolation mode altogether, but the design of step #3 requires it. Any bright ideas on the best way to resolve this problem? Thanks Marcus

    Read the article

  • Writing tests for Rails plugins

    - by Adam
    I'm working on a plugin for Rails that would add limited in-memory caching to ActiveRecord's finders. The functionality itself is mature enough, but I can't for the life of me get unit tests to work with the plugin. I now have under vendor/plugins/my_plugin/test/my_plugin_test.rb a standard subclass of ActiveSupport::TestCase with a couple of basic tests. I try running 'rake test' from the plugin directory, and I have confirmed that this task loads the ruby file with the test case, but it doesn't actually run any of the tests. I followed the Rails plugin guide (http://guides.rubyonrails.org/plugins.html) where applicable, but it seems to be horribly outdated (it suggests things that Rails now do automatically, etc.) The only output I get is this: Kakadu:ingenious_record adam$ rake test (in /Users/adam/Sites/1_PRK/vendor/plugins/ingenious_record) /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby -Ilib:lib:test "/System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.3/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/ingenious_record_test.rb" The simplest test case looks like this: require 'test_helper' require 'active_record' class IngeniousRecordTest < ActiveSupport::TestCase test "example" do assert false end end This should definitely produce at least some output, and the only test in that file should produce a failed assertion. Any ideas what I could do to get Rails to run my tests?

    Read the article

  • Use XMPP instead of HTTP

    - by pavel
    Hey guys. My friend and I, we are working on iPhone application. This application uses XMPP protocol to provide chat functionality. Right now we are designing architecture for the application. So my friend is working on iPhone side, and I am ruby on rails guy. My friend suggested, that we wrap every call, that is usually served via HTTP into XMPP. So, user registration, users search, profile editing, photo uploading, everything goes via XMPP. No HTTP at all. My friend wants to use XMPP, because he says, that it's much easier to implement XMPP on client-side rather HTTP. As for me, this is bullshit, but we've got a product owner, who have been working with my friend for a long time and he trusts him. So what I'm trying to do is to convince my friend and product owner that using XMPP for what HTTP can work find — is totally not the best idea. I feel, that if we implement everything on XMPP, we will have a pain in an ass till the end of lives. But how do I prove it? P.S. I'm not against chat over XMPP, I am against users search, photo uploading, rankings, nearby search and various other restful requests. Please, leave response. Any help appreciated. A little update: Yesterday we had a long discussion. And it turns out, it's quiete hard to receive response from both XMPP and HTTP in Objective-C. Because every single object and its data should be stored in Core Data model, while this model can't be securely modified from various places. Say, if you use HTTP transport, you always want to use only HTTP transport to update data in your model. And if you use XMPP, you should always use XMPP. So, you can't use both. That's what my iPhone buddy told me. It sounds weird for me, can anyone explain me that?

    Read the article

  • Page.User.Identity.Name is blank on pages of subdomains

    - by sparks
    I have multiple subdomains trying to use a single subdomain for authentiction using forms authentication all running on windows server 2008 r2. All of the forms authentication pages are setup to use the same name, and on the authentication page the cookie is added with the following snippet: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(txtUserName.Text, false); System.Web.HttpCookie MyCookie = System.Web.Security.FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie(User.Identity.Name.ToString(), false); MyCookie.Domain = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["domainName"]; Response.AppendCookie(MyCookie); When I am logged in to signon.mysite.com the page.user.identity.isauthenticated and page.user.identity.name properties both work fine. When I navigate to subdomain.mysite.com the page.user.identity.isauthenticated returns true, bue the name is empty. I tried to retrieve it from the cookie using the following, but it also was blank. HttpCookie cookie = Request.Cookies[".ASPXAUTH"]; FormsAuthenticationTicket fat = FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(cookie.Value); user2_lbl.Text = fat.Name; When googling the issue I found some people saying something must be added to global.asax and other saying it wasn't necessary. The goal is to be able to login on the authentication subdomain and have the user identity accessible from the root site and other subdomains. Machine keys match in all web.config, and the AppSettings["domainName"] is set to "mysite.com" currently. Does anyone know what is preventing me from accessing the user information?

    Read the article

  • How to force two process to run on the same CPU?

    - by kovan
    Context: I'm programming a software system that consists of multiple processes. It is programmed in C++ under Linux. and they communicate among them using Linux shared memory. Usually, in software development, is in the final stage when the performance optimization is made. Here I came to a big problem. The software has high performance requirements, but in machines with 4 or 8 CPU cores (usually with more than one CPU), it was only able to use 3 cores, thus wasting 25% of the CPU power in the first ones, and more than 60% in the second ones. After many research, and having discarded mutex and lock contention, I found out that the time was being wasted on shmdt/shmat calls (detach and attach to shared memory segments). After some more research, I found out that these CPUs, which usually are AMD Opteron and Intel Xeon, use a memory system called NUMA, which basically means that each processor has its fast, "local memory", and accessing memory from other CPUs is expensive. After doing some tests, the problem seems to be that the software is designed so that, basically, any process can pass shared memory segments to any other process, and to any thread in them. This seems to kill performance, as process are constantly accessing memory from other processes. Question: Now, the question is, is there any way to force pairs of processes to execute in the same CPU?. I don't mean to force them to execute always in the same processor, as I don't care in which one they are executed, altough that would do the job. Ideally, there would be a way to tell the kernel: If you schedule this process in one processor, you must also schedule this "brother" process (which is the process with which it communicates through shared memory) in that same processor, so that performance is not penalized.

    Read the article

  • Programatically insert a Word document into an existing document (Word 2007)

    - by cjb
    I have a Word 2007 document that I want to insert an exsiting Word document into - while preserving the header/footer, graphics, borders etc of both documents. I'm doing this using the Word API in C#. It sounds pretty simple, I mean surely you just use the "InsertFile" method... except that in Word 2007 the "insert file" functionality now is actually "insert text from file" and it does just that - leaving out the page border, graphics and footer etc. OK then, I'll use copy and paste instead, like so... _Document sourceDocument = wordApplication.Documents.Open(insert the 8 million by ref parameters Word requries) sourceDocument.Activate(); // This is the document I am copying from wordApplication.Selection.WholeStory(); wordApplication.Selection.Copy(); targetDocument.Activate(); // This is the document I am pasting into wordApplication.Selection.InsertBreak(wdSectionBreakNextPage); Selection.PasteAndFormat(wdFormatOriginalFormatting); wordApplication.Selection.InsertBreak(wdSectionBreakNextPage); which does what you would expect, takes the source document, selects everything, copies it then pastes it into the target document. Because I've added a section break before doing the paste it also preserves the borders, header/footer of both documents. However - now this is where I have the problem. The paste only includes the borders, header etc if I paste at the end of the target document. If I paste it in the middle - despite there being a preceding section break, then only the text gets pasted and the header and borders etc are lost. Can anyone help before I buy a grenade and a one way ticket to Redmond...

    Read the article

  • C# and F# lambda expressions code generation

    - by ControlFlow
    Let's look at the code, generated by F# for simple function: let map_add valueToAdd xs = xs |> Seq.map (fun x -> x + valueToAdd) The generated code for lambda expression (instance of F# functional value) will looks like this: [Serializable] internal class map_add@3 : FSharpFunc<int, int> { public int valueToAdd; internal map_add@3(int valueToAdd) { this.valueToAdd = valueToAdd; } public override int Invoke(int x) { return (x + this.valueToAdd); } } And look at nearly the same C# code: using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; static class Program { static IEnumerable<int> SelectAdd(IEnumerable<int> source, int valueToAdd) { return source.Select(x => x + valueToAdd); } } And the generated code for the C# lambda expression: [CompilerGenerated] private sealed class <>c__DisplayClass1 { public int valueToAdd; public int <SelectAdd>b__0(int x) { return (x + this.valueToAdd); } } So I have some questions: Why does F#-generated class is not marked as sealed? Why does F#-generated class contains public fields since F# doesn't allows mutable closures? Why does F# generated class has the constructor? It may be perfectly initialized with the public fields... Why does C#-generated class is not marked as [Serializable]? Also classes generated for F# sequence expressions are also became [Serializable] and classes for C# iterators are not.

    Read the article

  • Extracting files from merge module

    - by Mystagogue
    All I want is a command-line tool that can extract files from a merge module (.msm) onto disk. I'm trying msidb.exe and orca.exe The documentation for orca states: Many merge module options can be specified from the command line... Extracting Files from a Merge Module Orca supports three different methods for extracting files contained in a merge module. Orca can extract the individual CAB file, extract the files into a module tree and extract the files into a source image once it has been merged into a target database... Extracting Files To extract the individual files from a merge module, use the ... -x ... option on the command line, where is the desired path to the new directory tree. The specified path is used as the root path for the extracted files. All files are extracted from the CAB file embedded in the module and placed in the specified path. The directory layout for the extracted files is based on the directory tree of the merge module. It mostly sounds like exactly what I need. But when I try it, orca simply opens up an editor (with info on the msm I specified) and then does nothing. I've tried a variety of command lines, usually starting with this: orca -x theDirectory theModule.msm I use "theDirectory" as whatever empty folder I want. Like I said - it didn't do anything. Then I tried msidb, where a couple of attempts I've made look like this: msidb -d theModule.msm -w {storage} msidb -d theModule.msm -x {stream} In both cases, I don't know what to insert for {storage} or {stream} to make it happy - I don't know what those represent. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong with the command line options? Is there any other tool that can do this?

    Read the article

  • Subsonic Access To App.Config Connection Strings From Referenced DLL in Powershell Script

    - by J Wynia
    I've got a DLL that contains Subsonic-generated and augmented code to access a data model. Actually, it is a merged DLL of that original assembly, Subsonic itself and a few other referenced DLL's into a single assembly, called "PowershellDataAccess.dll. However, it should be noted that I've also tried this referencing each assembly individually in the script as well and that doesn't work either. I am then attempting to use the objects and methods in that assembly. In this case, I'm accessing a class that uses Subsonic to load a bunch of records and creates a Lucene index from those records. The problem I'm running into is that the call into the Subsonic method to retrieve data from the database says it can't find the connection string. I'm pointing the AppDomain at the appropriate config file which does contain that connection string, by name. Here's the script. $ScriptDir = Get-Location [System.IO.Directory]::SetCurrentDirectory($ScriptDir) [Reflection.Assembly]::LoadFrom("PowershellDataAccess.dll") [System.AppDomain]::CurrentDomain.SetData("APP_CONFIG_FILE", "$ScriptDir\App.config") $indexer = New-Object LuceneIndexingEngine.LuceneIndexGenerator $indexer.GeneratePageTemplateIndex("PageTemplateIndex"); I went digging into Subsonic itself and the following line in Subsonic is what's looking for the connection string and throwing the exception: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[connectionStringName] So, out of curiosity, I created an assembly with a single class that has a single property that just runs that one line to retrieve the connection string name. I created a ps1 that called that assembly and hit that property. That prototype can find the connection string just fine. Anyone have any idea why Subsonic's portion can't seem to see the connection strings?

    Read the article

  • javadoc and overloaded methods

    - by skrebbel
    Hi all, I'm developing an API with many identically named methods that just differ by signature, which I guess is fairly common. They all do the same thing, except that they initialize various values by defaults if the user does not want to specify. As a digestible example, consider public interface Forest { public Tree addTree(); public Tree addTree(int amountOfLeaves); public Tree addTree(int amountOfLeaves, Fruit fruitType); public Tree addTree(int amountOfLeaves, int height); public Tree addTree(int amountOfLeaves, Fruit fruitType, int height); } The essential action performed by all of these methods is the same; a tree is planted in the forest. Many important things users of my API need to know about adding trees hold for all these methods. Ideally, I would like to write one Javadoc block that is used by all methods: /** * Plants a new tree in the forest. Please note that it may take * up to 30 years for the tree to be fully grown. * * @param amountOfLeaves desired amount of leaves. Actual amount of * leaves at maturity may differ by up to 10%. * @param fruitType the desired type of fruit to be grown. No warranties * are given with respect to flavour. * @param height desired hight in centimeters. Actual hight may differ by * up to 15%. */ In my imagination, a tool could magically choose which of the @params apply to each of the methods, and thus generate good docs for all methods at once. With Javadoc, if I understand it correctly, all I can do is essentially copy&paste the same javadoc block five times, with only a slightly differing parameter list for each method. This sounds cumbersome to me, and is also difficult to maintain. Is there any way around that? Some extension to javadoc that has this kind of support? Or is there a good reason why this is not supported that I missed?

    Read the article

  • Distinguishing between .NET exception types

    - by Swingline Rage
    For the love of all things holy, how do you distinguish between different "exception flavors" within the predefined .NET exception classes? For example, a piece of code might throw an XmlException under the following conditions: The root element of the document is NULL Invalid chars are in the document The document is too long All of these are thrown as XmlException objects and all of the internal "tell me more about this exception" fields (such as Exception.HResult, Exception.Data, etc.) are usually empty or null. That leaves Exception.Message as the only thing that allows you to distinguish among these exception types, and you can't really depend on it because, you guessed it, the Exception.Message string is glocabilized, and can change when the culture changes. At least that's my read on the documentation. Exception.HResult and Exception.Data are widely ignored across the .NET libraries. They are the red-headed stepchildren of the world's .NET error-handling code. And even assuming they weren't, the HRESULT type is still the worst, downright nastiest error code in the history of error codes. Why we are still looking at HRESULTs in 2010 is beyond me. I mean if you're doing Interop or P/Invoke that's one thing but... HRESULTs have no place in System.Exception. HRESULTs are a wart on the proboscis of System.Exception. But seriously, it means I have to set up a lot of detailed specific error-handling code in order to figure out the same information that should have been passed as part of the exception data. Exceptions are useless if they force you to work like this. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Enable DOM Access for Silverlight Web Part in Sharepoint 2010

    - by Bhaskar
    I am hosting a silverlight 3.0 control on my Sharepoint 2010 page. I am using the built-in SilverlightWebPart web part, where I have provided the path for .xap file. Its displaying properly, but when I try to access the System.Windows.Browser, its throwing an error. My code is: public static string GetQueryString(string key) { try { var documentQueryString = (Dictionary<string, string>)System.Windows.Browser.HtmlPage.Document.QueryString; if (documentQueryString.ContainsKey(key)) { return documentQueryString[key].ToString(); } } catch (Exception ex) { return ex.Message; } return string.Empty; } The error I am getting is: The DOM/scripting bridge is disabled. How do I enable this? I know if I host this in a ASP.NET page, I can add the param - <param name="enablehtmlaccess" value="true"/>. I have tried putting this webpart in a "content editor web part", and I have embedded the object tag to call the .xap file and its working totally fine. I need to make it work using the built-in Silverlight web part.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 832 833 834 835 836 837 838 839 840 841 842 843  | Next Page >