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• sendmail and MX records when mail server is not on web host

  - by Jim Nelson

  This is a problem I'm sure is easy to fix, but I've been banging my head on it all day. I'm developing a new web site for a client. The web site resides at (this is an example) website.com. I have a PHP form script to email visitors' requests to [email protected]. When I coded this on a staging server on a different domain, all worked fine. When I moved it to website.com, the mail messages never arrived. The web server is on a virtual host with a major ISP. Here's what I've learned since then: My client's mail server is Microsoft Exchange on a box physically in their office. Whenever someone on the outside world emails [email protected], the mail arrives. But if the web server sends to the same email address, it fails every time. This is not a PHP problem. I secure shell in to the web server and have tested this both with sendmail and the UNIX mail application. I've also tested it by emailing various email accounts from the shell. I can email myself, for example, just nobody at the website.com domain. In short, when I'm logged in to website.com, mail to [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] all fail. All other addresses work fine. What I've discovered is those dropped emails are routed to the web server's "catchall" account where they sit in its inbox. I've done an MX lookup on website.com. The MX record points to mailsec.website.com. I can telnet to mailsec.website.com port 25 and see the SMTP server. It appears to me that website.com isn't doing an MX lookup when it's sending mail to [email protected]. My theory is that it recognizes the domain as local, sees that there's no "requests" user account to deliver it to, and drops the mail into the catchall account. What I want is to force sendmail to do the MX lookup and send the message on to the Exchange server. I'm at wit's end here. I can't figure out how to do this. For that matter, I may be way off base here and have misdiagnosed this entirely. Internet mail and MX has always seemed a black art to me, and my ignorance is certainly showing in this question.

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• Are there programs that iteratively write new programs?

  - by chris

  For about a year I have been thinking about writing a program that writes programs. This would primarily be a playful exercise that might teach me some new concepts. My inspiration came from negentropy and the ability for order to emerge from chaos and new chaos to arise out of order in infinite succession. To be more specific, the program would start by writing a short random string. If the string compiles the programs will log it for later comparison. If the string does not compile the program will try to rewrite it until it does compile. As more strings (mini 'useless' programs) are logged they can be parsed for similarities and used to generate a grammar. This grammar can then be drawn on to write more strings that have a higher probability of compilation than purely random strings. This is obviously more than a little silly, but I thought it would be fun to try and grow a program like this. And as a byproduct I get a bunch of unique programs that I can visualize and call art. I'll probably write this in Ruby due to its simple syntax and dynamic compilation and then I will visualize in processing using ruby-processing. What I would like to know is: Is there a name for this type of programming? What currently exists in this field? Who are the primary contributors? BONUS! - In what ways can I procedurally assign value to output programs beyond compiles(y/n)? I may want to extend the functionality of this program to generate a program based on parameters, but I want the program to define those parameters through running the programs that compile and assigning meaning to the programs output. This question is probably more involved than reasonable for a bonus, but if you can think of a simple way to get something like this done in less than 23 lines or one hyperlink, please toss it into your response. I know that this is not quite meta-programming and from the little I know of AI and generative algorithms they are usually more goal oriented than what I am thinking. What would be optimal is a program that continually rewrites and improves itself so I don't have to ^_^

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• Windows 7 - pydoc from cmd

  - by Random_Person

  Okay, I'm having one of those moments that makes me question my ability to use a computer. This is not the sort of question I imagined asking as my first SO post, but here goes. Started on Zed's new "Learn Python the Hard Way" since I've been looking to get back into programming after a 10 year hiatus and python was always what I wanted. This book has really spoken to me. That being said, I'm having a serious issue with pydoc from the command. I've got all the directories in c:/python26 in my system path and I can execute pydoc from the command line just fine regardless of pwd - but it accepts no arguments. Doesn't matter what I type, I just get the standard pydoc output telling me the acceptable arguments. Any ideas? For what it's worth, I installed ActivePython as per Zed's suggestion. C:\Users\Chevee>pydoc file pydoc - the Python documentation tool pydoc.py <name> ... Show text documentation on something. <name> may be the name of a Python keyword, topic, function, module, or package, or a dotted reference to a class or function within a module or module in a package. If <name> contains a '\', it is used as the path to a Python source file to document. If name is 'keywords', 'topics', or 'modules', a listing of these things is displayed. pydoc.py -k <keyword> Search for a keyword in the synopsis lines of all available modules. pydoc.py -p <port> Start an HTTP server on the given port on the local machine. pydoc.py -g Pop up a graphical interface for finding and serving documentation. pydoc.py -w <name> ... Write out the HTML documentation for a module to a file in the current directory. If <name> contains a '\', it is treated as a filename; if it names a directory, documentation is written for all the contents. C:\Users\Chevee> EDIT: New information, pydoc works just fine in PowerShell. As a linux user, I have no idea why I'm trying to use cmd anyways--but I'd still love to figure out what's up with pydoc and cmd. EDIT 2: More new information. In cmd... c:\>python c:/python26/lib/pydoc.py file ...works just fine. Everything works just fine with just pydoc in PowerShell without me worrying about pwd, or extensions or paths.

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• Passing a parameter in the header (XML RPC)

  - by fudgey

  I'm trying to set up a server status for the MMORPG Champions Online. I got some basic information from the web master and this is all he told me: XML-RPC call to server: http://www.champions-online.com/xmlrpc.php function name: wgsLauncher.getServerStatus Parameter (language): en-US Now, I found a nice example to start with here, and I ended up with this code: <?php ini_set('display_errors', 1); error_reporting(E_ALL); # Using the XML-RPC extension to format the XML package $request = xmlrpc_encode_request("wgsLauncher.getServerStatus", "<param><value><string>en-US</string></value></param>", null ); # Using the cURL extension to send it off, # first creating a custom header block $header[] = "Host: http://www.champions-online.com:80/"; $header[] = "Content-type: text/xml"; $header[] = "Content-length: ".strlen($request) . "\r\n"; $header[] = $request; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.champions-online.com/xmlrpc.php"); # URL to post to curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1 ); # return into a variable curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $header ); # custom headers, see above curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_CUSTOMREQUEST, 'POST' ); # This POST is special, and uses its specified Content-type $result = curl_exec( $ch ); # run! curl_close($ch); echo $result; ?> But I'm getting a "400 Bad Request" error. I'm new to XML RPC and I barely know php, so I'm at a loss. The examples from the php site show how to use an array as a parameter, but nothing else. I obtained the parameter string <param><value><string>en-US</string></value></param> from this XMLRPC Debugger (very nice btw). I entered the parameter I needed in the "payload" box and this was the output. So, I would appreciate any help on how to pass this parameter to the header. Note: My host supports xmlrpc but it seems the function "xmlrpc_client" doesn't exist. Update: The web master replied with this information, but it's still not working... it's getting to the point I may just scrape the status off the page. $request = xmlrpc_encode_request("wgsLauncher.getServerStatus", "en-US" );

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• How to set which version of the VC++ runtime Visual Studio 2005 targets

  - by TallGuy

  I have an application that contains a VC++ project (along with C# projects). Previously, (i.e. during the last year or so) when a build has been done, Visual Studio 2005 appears to be targeting the VC++ runtime version 8.0.50727.762. At least, that is what the Assembly.dll.intermediate.manifest file is telling me: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.762' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> This version number matches the Visual Studio 2005 version number. The application worked fine when deployed to the webserver. The sun was shining, the birds were singing and all was right with the world. Now something has changed. I don't know what - a security patch, an obscure Visual Studio setting or something. Now Visual Studio 2005 seems to be targeting the wrong version of the VC++ runtime: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.4053' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> When I deploy the application to the webserver, I get the dreaded This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800736B1) error. This problem occurs even when I recompile previous versions of the application. I can absolutely guarantee that nothing at all has changed in the solution - we zip up the entire contents of the solution as part of the build process and archive it. I have unzipped a number of these to a temp directory, verified that the previous manifest file refers to 8.0.50727.762, recompiled using exactly the same command at the command line and then verified that the new manifest file now refers to 8.0.50727.4053. I am using Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 Version 8.0.50727.762 (SP.050727-7600) and Microsoft Visual C++ 2005 77646-008-0000007-41610. Why would Visual Studio revert to a previous version of the VC++ runtime? How do I specify which version it should use? What is going wrong here?

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• How to have combobox take data from a child datasource

  - by SkollSunman

  I am trying to have a datagridview with two comboboxes, a company name and a supplier account number. When a company name is selected the relevant supplier account numbers (a company can have more than one supplier account) should be filtered for that company in that row. I have a datagridview with two bindingsources: supplierBindingSource and companyBindingSource and the Supplier account combobox uses the supplierBindingSource for its datasource and company name uses the companyBindingSource for its datasource. A company can have a supplier and/or customer account so the supplierBindingSource is a child or a companyBindingSource. The supplier accounts correctly filter based on the selected company name however when another company name is selected in another row all the supplier accounts are filtered for that company. Saving still works properly, regardless of what the combo box show but currently it is very confusing for a user to select a supplier account when the labels don't show what is being saved. Is it possible to have only the selected row to filter based on the company name rather than every row? EDIT: Thanks to the answer from http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/windows/en-US/b23d9e8f-a00a-49ba-adf5-52d87c1b2890/parent-child-comboboxes-in-datagridview I have been able to make some progress. The supplier account gets filtered when the drop down box is selected and restored to the full list when selection is finished. However now I am trying to have the company selected (and not filtered) when a supplier account is selected. The issue I've run into now is that I can get the companyID (which is the valuemember for the company combobox) but I cannot select the appropriate company without just setting the value of the combobox to the companyID which displays the companyID instead of the company name. Is there a way to select the company using the companyID while preserving the displaymember/valuemember dynamic? EDIT 2: The wall of text may be off putting. Some code to help elucidate my issue DataGridViewComboBoxCell dgcb2 = (DataGridViewComboBoxCell)sdgvSalesOrderLines[cmbSupplierName.Index, e.RowIndex]; var companyID = col.FirstOrDefault(c => c.AccountID == Convert.ToInt32(dgcb.Value)).CompanyID; dgcb2.Value = companyID.toString(); The second line gets the companyID and that works just fine, the final line sets the combobox to display the companyID whereas I would like it to set the valuemember value to companyID so that it would display the corresponding company name. I can set the second line to give me the company name instead but if the value of the combobox isn't the companyID then the supplier account cannot filter based on the company selected.

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• Unlocking a mutex from a different thread (C++)

  - by dan

  I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect.

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• MVC3/Razor Client Validation Not firing

  - by Jason Gerstorff

  I am trying to get client validation working in MVC3 using data annotations. I have looked at similar posts including this MVC3 Client side validation not working for the answer. I'm using an EF data model. I created a partial class like this for my validations. [MetadataType(typeof(Post_Validation))] public partial class Post { } public class Post_Validation { [Required(ErrorMessage = "Title is required")] [StringLength(5, ErrorMessage = "Title may not be longer than 5 characters")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Text is required")] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] public string Text { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Publish Date is required")] [DataType(DataType.DateTime)] public DateTime PublishDate { get; set; } } My cshtml page includes the following. <h2>Create</h2> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.ValidationSummary(true) Post <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Title) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Title) </div> <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Text) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Text) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Text) Web Config: <appSettings> <add key="ClientValidationEnabled" value="true" /> <add key="UnobtrusiveJavaScriptEnabled" value="true" /> Layout: <head> <title>@ViewBag.Title</title> <link href="@Url.Content("~/Content/Site.css")" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> So, the Multiline Text annotation works and creates a text area. But none of the validations work client side. I don't know what i might be missing. Any ideas?? i can post more information if needed. Thanks!

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• How to check for palindrome using Python logic

  - by DrOnline

  My background is only a 6 month college class in basic C/C++, and I'm trying to convert to Python. I may be talking nonsense, but it seems to me C, at least at my level, is very for-loop intensive. I solve most problems with these loops. And it seems to me the biggest mistake people do when going from C to Python is trying to implement C logic using Python, which makes things run slowly, and it's just not making the most of the language. I see on this website: http://hyperpolyglot.org/scripting (serach for "c-style for", that Python doesn't have C-style for loops. Might be outdated, but I interpret it to mean Python has its own methods for this. I've tried looking around, I can't find much up to date (Python 3) advice for this. How can I solve a palindrome challenge in Python, without using the for loop? I've done this in C in class, but I want to do it in Python, on a personal basis. The problem is from the Euler Project, great site btw. def isPalindrome(n): lst = [int(n) for n in str(n)] l=len(lst) if l==0 || l==1: return True elif len(lst)%2==0: for k in range (l) ##### else: while (k<=((l-1)/2)): if (list[]): ##### for i in range (999, 100, -1): for j in range (999,100, -1): if isPalindrome(i*j): print(i*j) break I'm missing a lot of code here. The five hashes are just reminders for myself. Concrete questions: 1) In C, I would make a for loop comparing index 0 to index max, and then index 0+1 with max-1, until something something. How to best do this in Python? 2) My for loop (in in range (999, 100, -1), is this a bad way to do it in Python? 3) Does anybody have any good advice, or good websites or resources for people in my position? I'm not a programmer, I don't aspire to be one, I just want to learn enough so that when I write my bachelor's degree thesis (electrical engineering), I don't have to simultaneously LEARN an applicable programming language while trying to obtain good results in the project. "How to go from basic C to great application of Python", that sort of thing. 4) Any specific bits of code to make a great solution to this problem would also be appreciated, I need to learn good algorithms.. I am envisioning 3 situations. If the value is zero or single digit, if it is of odd length, and if it is of even length. I was planning to write for loops... PS: The problem is: Find the highest value product of two 3 digit integers that is also a palindrome.

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• Please help me debug my SQL query.

  - by bob09

  I have a query: Select n_portions, dish_name from food_order, dish where n_portions= (select max (n_portions) FROM food_order); It's meant to return: fish pie 3 steak and chips 1 pasta bake 2 stuffed peppers 1 But i get: Pasta bake 35 Fish pie 35 Steak and chips 35 Stuffed peppers 35 Ham and rice 35 Lamb curry 35 Why is this happing? table data table data Insert into customer_order values ('00001', '03-Apr-09', '07-apr-09','St. Andrew St'); Insert into customer_order values ('00002', '05-Apr-09', '01-May-09', 'St. Andrew St'); Insert into customer_order values ('00003', '12-Apr-09', '27-Apr-09', 'Union St'); Insert into customer_order values ('00004', '12-Apr-09', '17-Apr-09', 'St. Andrew St'); Insert into Dish values ('D0001', 'Pasta bake', 'yes', '6.00'); Insert into Dish values ('D0002', 'Fish pie', 'no', '9.00'); Insert into Dish values ('D0003', 'Steak and chips', 'no', '14.00'); Insert into Dish values ('D0004', 'Stuffed peppers', 'yes', '11.50'); Insert into Dish values ('D0005', 'Ham and rice' , 'no', '7.25'); Insert into Dish values ('D0006', 'Lamb curry' , 'no', '8.50'); Insert into Drink values ('DR0001', 'Water', 'soft', '1.0'); Insert into Drink values ('DR0002', 'Coffee', 'hot', '1.70'); Insert into Drink values ('DR0003', 'Wine' , 'alcoholic', '3.00'); Insert into Drink values ('DR0004', 'Beer' , 'alcoholic', '2.30'); Insert into Drink values ('DR0005', 'Tea' , 'hot' , '1.50'); Insert into food_order values ('F000001', '000001', 'D0003', '6'); Insert into food_order values ('F000002', '000001', 'D0001', '4'); Insert into food_order values ('F000003', '000001', 'D0004', '3'); Insert into food_order values ('F000004', '000002', 'D0001', '10'); Insert into food_order values ('F000005', '000002', 'D0002', '10'); Insert into food_order values ('F000006', '000003', 'D0002', '35'); Insert into food_order values ('F000007', '000004', 'D0002', '23'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000001', '000001', 'DR0001', '13'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000002', '000001', 'DR0002', '13'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000003', '000001', 'DR0004', '13'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000004', '000002', 'DROOO1', '20'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000005', '000002', 'DR0003', '20'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000006', '000002', 'DR0004', '15'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000007', '000003', 'DR0002', '35'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000008', '000004', 'DR0001', '23'); Insert into drink_order values ('D000009', '000004', 'DR0003', '15'); Insert into drink_order values ('D0000010', '000004', 'DR0004', '15');

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• Can I call make runtime decided method calls in Java?

  - by Catalin Marin

  I know there is an invoke function that does the stuff, I am overall interested in the "correctness" of using such a behavior. My issue is this: I have a Service Object witch contains methods which I consider services. What I want to do is alter the behavior of those services without later intrusion. For example: class MyService { public ServiceResponse ServeMeDonuts() { do stuff... return new ServiceResponse(); } after 2 months I find out that I need to offer the same service to a new client app and I also need to do certain extra stuff like setting a flag, or make or updating certain data, or encode the response differently. What I can do is pop it up and throw down some IFs. In my opinion this is not good as it means interaction with tested code and may result in un wanted behaviour for the previous service clients. So I come and add something to my registry telling the system that the "NewClient" has a different behavior. So I'll do something like this: public interface Behavior { public void preExecute(); public void postExecute(); } public class BehaviorOfMyService implements Behavior{ String method; String clientType; public void BehaviorOfMyService(String method,String clientType) { this.method = method; this.clientType = clientType; } public void preExecute() { Method preCall = this.getClass().getMethod("pre" + this.method + this.clientType); if(preCall != null) { return preCall.invoke(); } return false; } ...same for postExecute(); public void preServeMeDonutsNewClient() { do the stuff... } } when the system will do something like this if(registrySaysThereIs different behavior set for this ServiceObject) { Class toBeCalled = Class.forName("BehaviorOf" + usedServiceObjectName); Object instance = toBeCalled.getConstructor().newInstance(method,client); instance.preExecute(); ....call the service... instance.postExecute(); .... } I am not particularly interested in correctness of code as in correctness of thinking and approach. Actually I have to do this in PHP, witch I see as a kind of Pop music of programming which I have to "sing" for commercial reasons, even though I play POP I really want to sing by the book, so putting aside my more or less inspired analogy I really want to know your opinion on this matter for it's practical necessity and technical approach. Thanks

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• What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

  - by RenderIn

  I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

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• Want to show <embed> and <object> tags from YUI editor as a text rather then a video.

  - by user208678

  I am using YUI rich text editor on my website (php/mysql), so that a user may enter textual matter/articles through it. But if a user copies and paste some embed code in the textarea, from any video sites like youtube, it should get saved as a text block and not as a playing video when showing the text content on the browser. Now YUI automatically converts the characters into html entities which ever is needed. Please note that if I put a new line in the yui editor (by pressing "Enter" key), it will be converted into a "<br>" tag in the background and this will not get html entity encoded when passing the value to my backend PHP script. But If I copy and paste any embed tag or for that reason any valid html tags in the textarea, it will be html entity encoded by YUI. Now to support UTF-8 characters, I am using a function (DBVarConv) in my php script before saving it into my database. The code for the function is given below function DBVarConv($var,$isEncoded = false) { if($isEncoded) return addslashes(htmlentities($var, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8', false)); else return htmlentities ($var, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8', false); } $myeditorData = DBVarConv($myeditorData, true); // Save $myeditorData in database. While showing the data in the browser, I am using another function called "smart_html_entity_decode". The code is given below. function smart_html_entity_decode($text, $isAddslashesUsed = false) { if($isAddslashesUsed) $tmp = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($text, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8')); else $tmp = html_entity_decode($text, ENT_QUOTES, 'UTF-8'); if ($tmp == $text) return $tmp; return smart_html_entity_decode($tmp, $isAddslashesUsed); } // Get $myData from database $myData=smart_html_entity_decode($myData, true); echo $myData; The problem is that in doing so, it is also decoding the embed and object tags from their html encoded entities and as a result my obejct tags are shown as a video and not as a simple text. Try using the text editor at tumblr.com. If you paste an embed code in the editor, it will be shown as a text block not as a video. I am trying to build the same functionality on my website with UTF-8 support. Any help will be highly appreciated.

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• Realtime Twitter Replies?

  - by ejunker

  I have created Twitter bots for many geographic locations. I want to allow users to @-reply to the Twitter bot with commands and then have the bot respond with the results. I would like to have the bot reply to the user as quickly as possible (realtime). Apparently, Twitter used to have an XMPP/Jabber interface that would provide this type of realtime feed of replies but it was shut down. As I see it my options are to use one of the following: REST API This would involve polling every X minutes for each bot. The problem with this is that it is not realtime and each Twitter account would have to be polled. Search API The search API does allow specifying a "-to" parameter in the search and replies to all bots could be aggregated in a search such as "-to bot1 OR -to bot2...". Though if you have hundreds of bots then the search string would get very long and probably exceed the maximum length of a GET request. Streaming API The streaming API looks very promising as it provides realtime results. The API allows you to specify a follow and track parameters. follow is not useful as the bot does not know who will be sending it commands. track allows you to specify keywords to track. This could possibly work by creating a daemon process that connects to the Streaming API and tracks all references to the bot's names. Once again since there are lots of bots to track the length and complexity of the query may be an issue. Another idea would be to track a special hashtag such as #botcommand and then a user could send a command using this syntax @bot1 weather #botcommand. Then by using the Streaming API to track all references to #botcommand would give you a realtime stream of all the commands. Further parsing could then be done to determine which bot to send the command to. Third-party service Are there any third-party companies that have access to the Twitter firehouse and offer realtime data? I haven't investigated these, but here are a few that I have found: Gnip Tweet.IM excla.im TwitterSpy - seems to use polling, not realtime I'm leaning towards using the Streaming API. Is there a better way to get near realtime @-replies for many (hundreds) of Twitter accounts?

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• Is it possible to reliably auto-decode user files to Unicode? [C#]

  - by NVRAM

  I have a web application that allows users to upload their content for processing. The processing engine expects UTF8 (and I'm composing XML from multiple users' files), so I need to ensure that I can properly decode the uploaded files. Since I'd be surprised if any of my users knew their files even were encoded, I have very little hope they'd be able to correctly specify the encoding (decoder) to use. And so, my application is left with task of detecting before decoding. This seems like such a universal problem, I'm surprised not to find either a framework capability or general recipe for the solution. Can it be I'm not searching with meaningful search terms? I've implemented BOM-aware detection (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Byte_order_mark) but I'm not sure how often files will be uploaded w/o a BOM to indicate encoding, and this isn't useful for most non-UTF files. My questions boil down to: Is BOM-aware detection sufficient for the vast majority of files? In the case where BOM-detection fails, is it possible to try different decoders and determine if they are "valid"? (My attempts indicate the answer is "no.") Under what circumstances will a "valid" file fail with the C# encoder/decoder framework? Is there a repository anywhere that has a multitude of files with various encodings to use for testing? While I'm specifically asking about C#/.NET, I'd like to know the answer for Java, Python and other languages for the next time I have to do this. So far I've found: A "valid" UTF-16 file with Ctrl-S characters has caused encoding to UTF-8 to throw an exception (Illegal character?) (That was an XML encoding exception.) Decoding a valid UTF-16 file with UTF-8 succeeds but gives text with null characters. Huh? Currently, I only expect UTF-8, UTF-16 and probably ISO-8859-1 files, but I want the solution to be extensible if possible. My existing set of input files isn't nearly broad enough to uncover all the problems that will occur with live files. Although the files I'm trying to decode are "text" I think they are often created w/methods that leave garbage characters in the files. Hence "valid" files may not be "pure". Oh joy. Thanks.

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• iPhone: Problems releasing UIViewController in a multithreaded environment

  - by bart-simpson

  Hi! I have a UIViewController and in that controller, i am fetching an image from a URL source. The image is fetched in a separate thread after which the user-interface is updated on the main thread. This controller is displayed as a page in a UIScrollView parent which is implemented to release controllers that are not in view anymore. When the thread finishes fetching content before the UIViewController is released, everything works fine - but when the user scrolls to another page before the thread finishes, the controller is released and the only handle to the controller is owned by the thread making releaseCount of the controller equals to 1. Now, as soon as the thread drains NSAutoreleasePool, the controller gets releases because the releaseCount becomes 0. At this point, my application crashes and i get the following error message: bool _WebTryThreadLock(bool), 0x4d99c60: Tried to obtain the web lock from a thread other than the main thread or the web thread. This may be a result of calling to UIKit from a secondary thread. Crashing now... The backtrace reveals that the application crashed on the call to [super dealloc] and it makes total sense because the dealloc function must have been triggered by the thread when the pool was drained. My question is, how i can overcome this error and release the controller without leaking memory? One solution that i tried was to call [self retain] before the pool is drained so that retainCount doesn't fall to zero and then using the following code to release controller in the main thread: [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(autorelease) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; Unfortunately, this did not work out. Below is the function that is executed on a thread: - (void)thread_fetchContent { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSURL *imgURL = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://www.domain.com/image.png"]; // UIImage *imgHotspot is declared as private - The image is retained // here and released as soon as it is assigned to UIImageView imgHotspot = [[[UIImage alloc] initWithData: [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL: imgURL]] retain]; if ([self retainCount] == 1) { [self retain]; // increment retain count ~ workaround [pool drain]; // drain pool // this doesn't work - i get the same error [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(autorelease) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; } else { // show fetched image on the main thread - this works fine! [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(showImage) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; [pool drain]; } } Please help! Thank you in advance.

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• ASP.NET- forcing child/container events to fire before parent onload?

  - by Hans Gruber

  I'm working on a questionnaire type application in which questions are stored in a database. Therefore, I create my controls dynamically on every Page.OnLoad. This works like a charm and ViewState is persisted between postbacks because I ensure that my dynamic controls always have the same generated Control.ID. In addition to the user control that dynamically populates the questions, my questionnaire page also contains a 'Status' section (also encapsulated by a user control) which represents the status of the questionnaire (choices are 'Complete', 'Started' or 'In Progress'). If the user changes the status of questionnaire (i.e. from 'In Progress' to 'Complete'), I need to postback to the server because the contents of the dynamic portion of the questionnaire depend on the selected status. Some questions are always present regardless of status, and yet others may not be present at all for the selected status. The point is, when the status changes, I have to postback to the page and render the right set of questions. Additionally, I need to preserve any user entered values for those questions which are 'always available'. However, due to the page life cycle in ASP.NET, the 'Status' user control's OnLoad, which contains the correct status needed to load the right questions from the DB, doesn't get executed until after the 'dynamic questions' user control has already been populated (with the wrong/stale values). To get around this, I raise an event from my 'Status' user control to the main page to indicate that the Status has changed. The main page then raises an event on the 'dynamic questions' user control. Since by the time this event bubbles up, the 'dynamic questions' user control has already loaded the 'wrong' questions from the DB, it first calls Controls.Clear. It then happily uses the new status to query the database for the 'correct' questions and does a Control.Add() on each. FYI, Control.IDs are consistent across postbacks. This solution works...sorta. The correct set of questions for the selected status do get rendered; however ViewState is getting lost for those 'always available' questions. I'm guessing this is because the 'dynamic questions' user control calls Controls.Clear when responding to the status changed event. This must somehow kill the association between ViewState and my dynamic controls, even though the Control.ID are consistent. This seems like such a common requirement, I'm virtually certain there is a better, cleaner and less error prone approach to accomplish this. In case its not plain obvious, I haven't been able to grok the ASP.NET page life-cycle despite working with it for the last year. Any help is much appreciated!

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• Flash AS3 button eventlistener array bug

  - by Tyler Pepper

  Hi there, this is my first time posting a question here. I have an array of 12 buttons on a timeline that when first visiting that part of the timeline, get a CLICK eventlistener added to them using a for loop. All of them work perfectly at that point. When you click one it plays a frame label inside the specific movieClip and reveals a bio on the corresponding person with a close button and removes the CLICK eventlisteners for each button, again using a for loop. The close button plays a closing animation, and then the timeline goes back to the first frame (the one with the 12 buttons on it) and the CLICK eventlisteners are re-added, but now only the first 9 buttons of the array work. There are no output errors and the code to re-add the eventlisteners is exactly the same as the first time that works. I am completely at a loss and am wondering if anyone else has run into this problem. All of my buttons are named correctly, there are absolutely no output errors (I've used the debug module) and I made sure the array with the buttons in it is outputting all 12 at the moment the close button is clicked to add the eventlisteners back. for (var q = 0; q < ackBoDBtnArray.length; q++){ contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc[ackBoDBtnArray[q]].addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, showBio); } private function showBio(eo:MouseEvent):void { trace("show the bio"); bodVar = ackBoDBtnArray.getIndex(eo.target.name); contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc.gotoAndPlay(ackBoDPgArray[bodVar]); contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc.closeBio_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, hideBio); for (var r = 0; r < ackBoDBtnArray.length; r++){ contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc[ackBoDBtnArray[r]].mouseEnabled = false; contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc[ackBoDBtnArray[r]].removeEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, showBio); } } private function hideBio(eo:MouseEvent):void { trace("hide it!"); contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc.closeBio_btn.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, hideBio); contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc.gotoAndPlay(ackBoDClosePgArray[bodVar]); for (var s = 0; s < ackBoDBtnArray.length; s++){ trace(ackBoDBtnArray[s]); contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc[ackBoDBtnArray[s]].mouseEnabled = true; contentArea_mc.acknowledgements_mc.BoD_mc[ackBoDBtnArray[s]].addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, showBio); } Thanks in advance for any help and insight you can provide...I have a slight feeling that its something that may be obvious to another set of eyes...haha.

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• With NHibernate, how can I create an INHibernateProxy?

  - by Eric

  After lots of reading about serialization, I've decided to try to create DTOs. After more reading, I decided to use AutoMapper. What I would like to do is transform the parent (easy enough) and transform the entity properties if they've been initialized, which I've done with ValueResolvers like below (I may try to make it generic once I get it fully working). This part works. public class OrderItemResolver : ValueResolver<Order, OrderItem> { protected override OrderItem ResolveCore(Order source) { // could also use NHibernateUtil.IsInitialized(source.OrderItem) if (source.OrderItem is NHibernate.Proxy.INHibernateProxy) return null; else return source.OrderItem; } } } When I transform the DTO back to an entity, for the entities that weren't initialized, I want to create a proxy so that if the entity wants to access it, it can. However, I can't figure out how to create a proxy. I'm using Castle if that's relevant. I've tried a bunch of things with no luck. The below code is a mess, mainly because I've been trying things at random without knowing what I should be doing. Anybody have any suggestions? public class OrderItemDTOResolver : ValueResolver<OrderDTO, OrderItem> { protected override OrderItem ResolveCore(OrderDTO source) { if (source.OrderItem == null) { //OrderItem OrderItem = new ProxyGenerator().CreateClassProxy<OrderItem>(); // Castle.Core.Interceptor. //OrderItem OrderItem = new ProxyGenerator().CreateClassProxy<OrderItem>(); //OrderItem.Id = source.OrderItemId; //OrderItem OrderItem = new OrderItem(); //var proxy = new OrderItem() as INHibernateProxy; //var proxy = OrderItem as INHibernateProxy; //return (OrderItem)proxy.HibernateLazyInitializer //ILazyInitializer proxy = new LazyInitializer("OrderItem", OrderItem, source.OrderItemId, null, null, null, null); //return (OrderItem)proxy; //return (OrderItem)proxy.HibernateLazyInitializer.GetImplementation(); //return OrderItem; IProxyTargetAccessor proxy = new Castle.Core.Interceptor. var initializer = new LazyInitializer("OrderItem", typeof(OrderItem), source.OrderItemId, null, null, null, null); //var proxyFactory = new SerializableProxyFactory{Interfaces = Interfaces, TargetSource = initializer, ProxyTargetType = IsClassProxy}; //proxyFactory.AddAdvice(initializer); //object proxyInstance = proxyFactory.GetProxy(); //return (INHibernateProxy) proxyInstance; return null; //OrderItem.Id = source.OrderItemId; //return OrderItem; } else return OrderItemDTO.Unmap(source.OrderItem); } } Thanks, Eric

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• Is there any alternative to obfuscation to make it harder to get any string in javascript?

  - by MarceloRamires

  I use DropBox and I've had some trouble reaching to my files from other computers: I not always want to login to anything when I'm in a public computer, but I like being able to reach my stuff from wherever I am. So I've made a simple little application that when put in the public folder, ran and given the right UID, creates (still in your public folder) an HTML of all the content in the folder (including subfolders) as a tree of links. But I didn't risk loading it anywhere, since there are slightly private things in there (yes, I know that the folder's name is "PUBLIC"). So I've came up with the idea to make it a simple login page, given the right password, the rest of the page should load. brilliant!, but how? If I did this by redirecting to other HTML on the same folder, I'd still put the html link in the web history and the "url's accessed" history of the administrator. So I should generate itin the same page. I've done it. And currently the page is a textbox and a button, and only if you type in the right password (asked by the generator) the rest of the page loads. The fault is that everything (password, URL's) is easily reachable through the sourcecode. Now, assuming I only want to avoid silly people to get it all too easily, not make a bulletproof all-content-holding NSA certified website, I though about some ways to make these informations a bit harder to get. As you may have already figured, I use a streamwritter to write a .HTM file (head, loop through links, bottom), then it's extremely configurable, and I can come up with a pretty messy-but-working c# code, though my javascript knowledge is not that good. Public links in DropBox look like this: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/3045472/img.png Summarizing: How do I hide stuff (MAINLY the password, of course) in my source-code so that no bumb-a-joe that can read, use a computer and press CTRL+U can reach to my stuff too easily ? PS.: It's not that personal, if someone REALLY wants it, it could never be 100% protected, and if it was that important, I wouldnt put it in the public folder, also, if the dude really wants to get it that hard, he should deserve it. PS2.: "Use the ultra-3000'tron obfuscator!!11" is not a real answer, since my javascript is GENERATED by my c# program. PS3.: I don't want other solutions as "use a serverside application and host it somewhere to redirect and bla bla" or "compress the links in a .RAR file and put a password in it" since I'm doing this ALSO to learn, and I want the thrill of it =)

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• UINavigation Bar while moving view for writing in a textfield

  - by ObiWanKeNerd

  i'm using this code to move the view when i'm about to type on a textfield, otherwise the keyboard may cover the textfield if it's in the lower side of the screen. I would like to know if there is a way to maintain the UINavigation Bar in it's place, because with this code the bar will move with all the view outside the screen, becoming untouchable until i end editing the textfield (closing the keyboard). CGFloat animatedDistance; static const CGFloat KEYBOARD_ANIMATION_DURATION = 0.3; static const CGFloat MINIMUM_SCROLL_FRACTION = 0.2; static const CGFloat MAXIMUM_SCROLL_FRACTION = 0.8; static const CGFloat PORTRAIT_KEYBOARD_HEIGHT = 216; static const CGFloat LANDSCAPE_KEYBOARD_HEIGHT = 162; - (void)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { CGRect textFieldRect = [self.view.window convertRect:textField.bounds fromView:textField]; CGRect viewRect = [self.view.window convertRect:self.view.bounds fromView:self.view]; CGFloat midline = textFieldRect.origin.y + 0.5 * textFieldRect.size.height; CGFloat numerator = midline - viewRect.origin.y - MINIMUM_SCROLL_FRACTION * viewRect.size.height; CGFloat denominator = (MAXIMUM_SCROLL_FRACTION - MINIMUM_SCROLL_FRACTION) * viewRect.size.height; CGFloat heightFraction = numerator / denominator; if (heightFraction < 0.0) { heightFraction = 0.0; } else if (heightFraction > 1.0) { heightFraction = 1.0; } UIInterfaceOrientation orientation = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] statusBarOrientation]; if (orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait || orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown) { animatedDistance = floor(PORTRAIT_KEYBOARD_HEIGHT * heightFraction); } else { animatedDistance = floor(LANDSCAPE_KEYBOARD_HEIGHT * heightFraction); } CGRect viewFrame = self.view.frame; viewFrame.origin.y -= animatedDistance; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationBeginsFromCurrentState:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:KEYBOARD_ANIMATION_DURATION]; [self.view setFrame:viewFrame]; [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)textFieldDidEndEditing:(UITextField *)textField { CGRect viewFrame = self.view.frame; viewFrame.origin.y += animatedDistance; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationBeginsFromCurrentState:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:KEYBOARD_ANIMATION_DURATION]; [self.view setFrame:viewFrame]; [UIView commitAnimations]; } Thanks in advance!

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• Calling 32 bit unmanaged dlls from C# randomly failing

  - by Bert

  Hi, I'm having an issue when calling 32 bit delphi dll's from c# web site. The code generally runs fine, but occasionally I get an error Unable to load DLL '': The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E). This issue persists until I recycle the app pool for the site, and then it works fine again. On the same server, there is also a web service that is calling the same set of dlls. This web service doesn't seem to have the same issue that the web site has. Both applications are using .net framework 3.5, separate app pools on IIS. Here is the code I'm using to wrap the dlls: public sealed class Mapper { static Mapper instance = null; [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] private static extern bool SetDllDirectory(string lpPathName); private Mapper() { SetDllDirectory(ConfigManager.Path); } public static Mapper Instance { get { if (instance == null) { instance = new Mapper(); } return instance; } } public int Foo(string bar, ref double val) { return Loader.Foo(bar, ref val); } } public static class Loader { [DllImport("some.dll", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint = "foo")] public static extern int Foo(string bar, ref double val); } Then I call it like this: double val = 0.0; Mapper.Instance.Foo("bar", ref val); Any ideas as to why it would "randomly" Unable to load DLL '': The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E). The other problem is that I haven't been able to replicate the issue in the development environment. I thought that due to 2 applications calling the same dlls, that there could be some locks occurring. To replicate this, I created an app that spawned multiple threads and repeatedly called the 32bit dlls, and then used the web site to call these same dlls. I still couldn't replicate the issue. Some possible fixes that I can think of: Wrap the 32 bit dlls in web service (because the webservice doesn't seem to suffer from the same problem). But this may be worthless if it turns out that the web service also fails. Set up state server for the session state and periodically recycle the app pool for the site.This isn't fixing the problem, only avoiding it. Wrap the dll's in exe, and call that exe. Then I shouldn't get the same issue. But this also seems like a hacky solution. Implement the mapper class differently ? But how else should I be doing the call? The other draw back is that other applications are using this mapper, so I'd need to change there code too. Thanks

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• Who calls the Destructor of the class when operator delete is used in multiple inheritance.

  - by dicaprio-leonard

  This question may sound too silly, however , I don't find concrete answer any where else. With little knowledge on how late binding works and virtual keyword used in inheritance. As in the code sample, when in case of inheritance where a base class pointer pointing to a derived class object created on heap and delete operator is used to deallocate the memory , the destructor of the of the derived and base will be called in order only when the base destructor is declared virtual function. Now my question is : 1) When the destructor of base is not virtual, why the problem of not calling derived dtor occur only when in case of using "delete" operator , why not in the case given below: derived drvd; base *bPtr; bPtr = &drvd; //DTOR called in proper order when goes out of scope. 2) When "delete" operator is used, who is reponsible to call the destructor of the class? The operator delete will have an implementation to call the DTOR ? or complier writes some extra stuff ? If the operator has the implementation then how does it looks like , [I need sample code how this would have been implemented]. 3) If virtual keyword is used in this example, how does operator delete now know which DTOR to call? Fundamentaly i want to know who calls the dtor of the class when delete is used. Sample Code class base { public: base() { cout<<"Base CTOR called"<<endl; } virtual ~base() { cout<<"Base DTOR called"<<endl; } }; class derived:public base { public: derived() { cout<<"Derived CTOR called"<<endl; } ~derived() { cout<<"Derived DTOR called"<<endl; } }; I'm not sure if this is a duplicate, I couldn't find in search. int main() { base *bPtr = new derived(); delete bPtr;// only when you explicitly try to delete an object return 0; }

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• What is the best way, if possible, to send information from a Java PrintStream to a JTextPane?

  - by Daniel Reeves

  In Java, I have a package that translates XML metadata from one standard to another. This package is ultimately accessed through a single function and sends all of its output through a PrintStream object. The output sent is just a status of each file and whether or not it was translated. This is pretty fine and dandy if I'm just printing to System.out, but I'm actually wanting to print this to a JTextPane while it translates (kind of like a progress text box). It wouldn't be a big deal to just print the status after it was done translating the XML, but since there may be thousands of XML files, that's just not feasible. One thing that I've tried is to use a thread that takes all of the information from the PrintStream (which is attached to a ByteArrayOutputStream) and let it send any new information to the text pane. Unfortunately, this still sends the information all at once at the end of the translation. This does work correctly for System.out. Here's the code that does the translation and tries to show the output: public class ConverterGUI extends javax.swing.JFrame { boolean printToResultsBox = false; PrintStream printStream = null; ByteArrayOutputStream baos = null; private class ResultsPrinter implements Runnable { public ResultsPrinter() { baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); printStream = new PrintStream(baos); } public void run() { String tempString = ""; while (printToResultsBox) { try { if (!baos.toString().equals(tempString)) { tempString = baos.toString(); resultsBox.setText(tempString); } } catch (Exception ex) { } } } } ... ResultsPrinter rp = new ResultsPrinter(); Thread thread = new Thread(rp); thread.start(); // Do the translation. try { printToResultsBox = true; boolean success = false; TranslationEngine te = new TranslationEngine(); // fileOrFolderToConvert is a text box in the GUI. // linkNeeded and destinationFile are just parameters for the translation process. success = te.translate(fileOrFolderToConvert.getText(), linkNeeded, destinationFile, printStream); if (success) { printStream.println("File/folder translation was a success."); } resultsBox.setText(baos.toString()); } catch (Exception ex) { printStream.println("File translation failed."); } finally { printToResultsBox = false; } ... } Ultimately, this code prints out to the JTextPane just fine after all the translation is done but not during. Any suggestions? Do I need to change the PrintStream to something else?

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• closing MQ connection

  - by OakvilleWork

  Good afternoon, I wrote a project to Get Park Queue Info from the IBM MQ, it has producing an error when attempting to close the connection though. It is written in java. Under application in Event Viewer on the MQ machine it displays two errors. They are: “Channel program ended abnormally. Channel program ‘system.def.surconn’ ended abnormally. Look at previous error messages for channel program ‘system.def.surconn’ in the error files to determine the cause of the failure. The other message states: “Error on receive from host rnanaj (10.10.12.34) An error occurred receiving data from rnanaj (10.10.12.34) over tcp/ip. This may be due to a communications failure. The return code from tcp/ip recv() call was 10054 (X’2746’). Record these values.” This must be something how I try to connect or close the connection, below I have my code to connect and close, any ideas?? Connect: _logger.info("Start"); File outputFile = new File(System.getProperty("PROJECT_HOME"), "run/" + this.getClass().getSimpleName() + "." + System.getProperty("qmgr") + ".txt"); FileUtils.mkdirs(outputFile.getParentFile()); Connection jmsConn = null; Session jmsSession = null; QueueBrowser queueBrowser = null; BufferedWriter commandsBw = null; try { // get queue connection MQConnectionFactory MQConn = new MQConnectionFactory(); MQConn.setHostName(System.getProperty("host")); MQConn.setPort(Integer.valueOf(System.getProperty("port"))); MQConn.setQueueManager(System.getProperty("qmgr")); MQConn.setChannel("SYSTEM.DEF.SVRCONN"); MQConn.setTransportType(JMSC.MQJMS_TP_CLIENT_MQ_TCPIP); jmsConn = (Connection) MQConn.createConnection(); jmsSession = jmsConn.createSession(false, Session.AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE); Queue jmsQueue = jmsSession.createQueue("PARK"); // browse thru messages queueBrowser = jmsSession.createBrowser(jmsQueue); Enumeration msgEnum = queueBrowser.getEnumeration(); commandsBw = new BufferedWriter(new FileWriter(outputFile)); // String line = "DateTime\tMsgID\tOrigMsgID\tCorrelationID\tComputerName\tSubsystem\tDispatcherName\tProcessor\tJobID\tErrorMsg"; commandsBw.write(line); commandsBw.newLine(); while (msgEnum.hasMoreElements()) { Message message = (Message) msgEnum.nextElement(); line = dateFormatter.format(new Date(message.getJMSTimestamp())) + "\t" + message.getJMSMessageID() + "\t" + message.getStringProperty("pkd_orig_jms_msg_id") + "\t" + message.getJMSCorrelationID() + "\t" + message.getStringProperty("pkd_computer_name") + "\t" + message.getStringProperty("pkd_subsystem") + "\t" + message.getStringProperty("pkd_dispatcher_name") + "\t" + message.getStringProperty("pkd_processor") + "\t" + message.getStringProperty("pkd_job_id") + "\t" + message.getStringProperty("pkd_sysex_msg"); _logger.info(line); commandsBw.write(line); commandsBw.newLine(); } } Close: finally { IO.close(commandsBw); if (queueBrowser != null) { try { queueBrowser.close();} catch (Exception ignore) {}} if (jmsSession != null) { try { jmsSession.close();} catch (Exception ignore) {}} if (jmsConn != null) { try { jmsConn.stop();} catch (Exception ignore) {}} }

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