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• SVN marking file production ready

  - by dan.codes

  I am kind of new to SVN, I haven't used it in detail basically just checking out trunk and committing then exporting and deploying. I am working on a big project now with several developers and we are looking for the best deployment process. The one thing we are hung up on is the best way to tag, branch and so on. We are used to CVS where all you have to do is commit a file and tag it as production ready and if not that code will not get deployed. I see that SVN handles tagging differently then CVS. I figure I am looking at this and making it overly complex. It seems the only way to work on a project and commit files without it being in the production code is to do it in a branch and then merge those changes when you are ready for it to be deployed. I am assuming you could also be working on other code that should be deployed so you would have to be switching between working copies, because otherwise you are working on a branch that isn't getting mixed in with the trunk or production branch? This process seems overly complex and I was wondering if anyone could give me what you think is the best process for managing this.

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• Using jquery Autocomplete on textbox control in c#

  - by Abid Ali

  When I run this code I get alert saying Error. My Code: <script type="text/javascript"> debugger; $(document).ready(function () { SearchText(); }); function SearchText() { $(".auto").autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "Default.aspx/GetAutoCompleteData", data: "{'fname':'" + document.getElementById('txtCategory').value + "'}", dataType: "json", success: function (data) { response(data.d); }, error: function (result) { alert("Error"); } }); } }); } </script> [WebMethod] public static List<string> GetAutoCompleteData(string CategoryName) { List<string> result = new List<string>(); using (SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DbConnection"].ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("select fname from tblreg where fname LIKE '%'+@CategoryText+'%'", con)) { con.Open(); cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CategoryText", CategoryName); SqlDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); while (dr.Read()) { result.Add(dr["fname"].ToString()); } return result; } } } I want to debug my function GetAutoCompleteData but breakpoint is not fired at all. What's wrong in this code? Please guide. I have attached screen shot above.

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• Compare system date with a date field in SQL

  - by JeT_BluE

  I am trying to compare a date record in SQL Server with the system date. In my example the user first register with his name and date of birth which are then stored in the database. The user than logs into the web application using his name only. After logging in, his name is shown on the side where it says "Welcome "player name" using Sessions. What I am trying to show in addition to his name is a message saying "happy birthday" if his date of birth matches the system date. I have tried working with System.DateTime.Now, but what I think is that it is also comparing the year, and what I really want is the day and the month only. I would really appreciate any suggestion or help. CODE In Login page: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String name = TextBox1.Text; String date = System.DateTime.Today.ToShortDateString(); SqlConnection myconn2 = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["User"].ToString()); SqlCommand cmd2 = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataReader reader; myconn2.Open(); cmd2 = new SqlCommand("Select D_O_B from User WHERE Username = @username", myconn2); cmd2.Parameters.Add("@username", SqlDbType.NVarChar).Value = name; cmd2.Connection = myconn2 cmd2.ExecuteNonQuery(); reader = cmd2.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read().ToString() == date) { Session["Birthday"] = "Happy Birthday"; } } Note: I using the same reader in the code above this one, but the reader here is with a different connection. Also, reader.Read() is different than reader.HasRows? Code in Web app Page: string date = (string)(Session["Birthday"]); // Retrieving the session Label6.Text = date;

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• Java getInputStream 400 errors

  - by Bill Szerdy

  When I contact a web service using a Java HttpUrlConnection it just returns a 400 Bad Request (IOException). How do I get the XML information that the server is returning; it does not appear to be in the getErrorStream of the connection nor is it in any of the exception information. When I run the following PHP code against a web service: <?php $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "https://www.myclientaddress.com/here/" ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1 ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST,1 ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,"username=ted&password=scheckler&type=consumer&id=123456789&zip=12345"); $result=curl_exec ($ch); echo $result; ?> it returns the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <response> <status>failure</status> <errors> <error name="RES_ZIP">Zip code is not valid.</error> <error name="ZIP">Invalid zip code for residence address.</error> </errors> </response> so I know the information exists

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• Recursion in prepared statements

  - by Rob

  I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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• Should not a tail-recursive function also be faster?

  - by Balint Erdi

  I have the following Clojure code to calculate a number with a certain "factorable" property. (what exactly the code does is secondary). (defn factor-9 ([] (let [digits (take 9 (iterate #(inc %) 1)) nums (map (fn [x] ,(Integer. (apply str x))) (permutations digits))] (some (fn [x] (and (factor-9 x) x)) nums))) ([n] (or (= 1 (count (str n))) (and (divisible-by-length n) (factor-9 (quot n 10)))))) Now, I'm into TCO and realize that Clojure can only provide tail-recursion if explicitly told so using the recur keyword. So I've rewritten the code to do that (replacing factor-9 with recur being the only difference): (defn factor-9 ([] (let [digits (take 9 (iterate #(inc %) 1)) nums (map (fn [x] ,(Integer. (apply str x))) (permutations digits))] (some (fn [x] (and (factor-9 x) x)) nums))) ([n] (or (= 1 (count (str n))) (and (divisible-by-length n) (recur (quot n 10)))))) To my knowledge, TCO has a double benefit. The first one is that it does not use the stack as heavily as a non tail-recursive call and thus does not blow it on larger recursions. The second, I think is that consequently it's faster since it can be converted to a loop. Now, I've made a very rough benchmark and have not seen any difference between the two implementations although. Am I wrong in my second assumption or does this have something to do with running on the JVM (which does not have automatic TCO) and recur using a trick to achieve it? Thank you.

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• How to map a Dictionary<string, string> spanning several tables

  - by Kim Johansson

  I have four tables: CREATE TABLE [Languages] ( [Id] INTEGER IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Code] NVARCHAR(10) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ([Id]), UNIQUE INDEX ([Code]) ); CREATE TABLE [Words] ( [Id] INTEGER IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ([Id]) ); CREATE TABLE [WordTranslations] ( [Id] INTEGER IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Value] NVARCHAR(100) NOT NULL, [Word] INTEGER NOT NULL, [Language] INTEGER NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ([Id]), FOREIGN KEY ([Word]) REFERENCES [Words] ([Id]), FOREIGN KEY ([Language]) REFERENCES [Languages] ([Id]) ); CREATE TABLE [Categories] ( [Id] INTEGER IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Word] INTEGER NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY ([Id]), FOREIGN KEY ([Word]) REFERENCES [Words] ([Id]) ); So you get the name of a Category via the Word - WordTranslation - Language relations. Like this: SELECT TOP 1 wt.Value FROM [Categories] AS c LEFT JOIN [WordTranslations] AS wt ON c.Word = wt.Word WHERE wt.Language = ( SELECT TOP 1 l.Id FROM [Languages] WHERE l.[Code] = N'en-US' ) AND c.Id = 1; That would return the en-US translation of the Category with Id = 1. My question is how to map this using the following class: public class Category { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IDictionary<string, string> Translations { get; set; } } Getting the same as the SQL query above would be: Category category = session.Get<Category>(1); string name = category.Translations["en-US"]; And "name" would now contain the Category's name in en-US. Category is mapped against the Categories table. How would you do this and is it even possible?

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• Is there a standard pattern for scanning a job table executing some actions?

  - by Howiecamp

  (I realize that my title is poor. If after reading the question you have an improvement in mind, please either edit it or tell me and I'll change it.) I have the relatively common scenario of a job table which has 1 row for some thing that needs to be done. For example, it could be a list of emails to be sent. The table looks something like this: ID Completed TimeCompleted anything else... ---- --------- ------------- ---------------- 1 No blabla 2 No blabla 3 Yes 01:04:22 ... I'm looking either for a standard practice/pattern (or code - C#/SQL Server preferred) for periodically "scanning" (I use the term "scanning" very loosely) this table, finding the not-completed items, doing the action and then marking them completed once done successfully. In addition to the basic process for accomplishing the above, I'm considering the following requirements: I'd like some means of "scaling linearly", e.g. running multiple "worker processes" simultaneously or threading or whatever. (Just a specific technical thought - I'm assuming that as a result of this requirement, I need some method of marking an item as "in progress" to avoid attempting the action multiple times.) Each item in the table should only be executed once. Some other thoughts: I'm not particularly concerned with the implementation being done in the database (e.g. in T-SQL or PL/SQL code) vs. some external program code (e.g. a standalone executable or some action triggered by a web page) which is executed against the database Whether the "doing the action" part is done synchronously or asynchronously is not something I'm considering as part of this question.

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• wpf: capturing mouse does not work

  - by amethyste

  hello I am developing an kind of outlook calendar application where I need to make the appointment resizable from mouse. My first try with a thumb did not work properly so I tried another way. What I did is that: 1) on the botton of the appointmennt panel I added a rectangle to figure out the resize zone (the thumb). The appointment panel is put on a grid panel. 2) I intercept down event on the rectangle and send event to this code: private Point startPoint; private void OnResizeElementMouseDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { e.Handled = true; this.MouseMove += new MouseEventHandler(ResizeEndElement_MouseMove); this.MouseLeftButtonUp += new MouseButtonEventHandler(OnResizeElementMouseUp); // some code to perform new height computation Mouse.Capture(this); } where this is the appointment panel that own the thumb. Decreasing height works well. But increasing is more difficult. If I move the mouse very very slowly it's OK, if I speed it up a little bit it tends to leave out the appointment panel and then all MouseMove event are lost. I thought Mouse.Capture() was propose to solve this kind of problem, but in fact not. Does anybody know what is wrong in my code?

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• Lan Chatting system [closed]

  - by jay prakash singh

  Possible Duplicate: LAN chating system or LAN chat server displaying list of user to all the user window my code is i m use RMI so this is the interface declaration public void sendPublicMessage(String keyword, String username, String message) throws RemoteException; public void sendPrivateMessage(String keyword, String username, String message) throws RemoteException; public ArrayList getClientList() throws RemoteException; public void connect(String username) throws RemoteException; public void disconnect(String username) throws RemoteException; } chat Server here connectedUser is the HasMap object we use the follo0wing code for connection here ChatImpl is the stub try { InetAddress Address = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); ChatImpl csi = new ChatImpl(this); Naming.rebind("rmi://"+Address.getHostAddress()+":1099/ChatService", csi); } public ArrayList getClientList() { ArrayList myUser = new ArrayList(); Iterator i = connectedUser.keySet().iterator(); String user = null; while(i.hasNext()) { user = i.next().toString(); myUser.add(user); } return myUser; } public void addClient(Socket clientSocket) throws RemoteException { connectedUser.put(getUsername(), clientSocket); sendPublicMessage(ONLINE, getUsername(), "CLIENT"); } this is the client side code for array list public void updateClient(ArrayList allClientList) throws RemoteException { listClient.clear(); int i = 0; String username; for(i=0; i<allClientList.size(); i++) { username = allClientList.get(i).toString(); listClient.addElement(username); } }

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• Intermittent bug - IE6 showing file as text in browser, rather than as file download

  - by Richard Ev

  In an ASP.NET WebForms 2.0 site we are encountering an intermittent bug in IE6 whereby a file download attempt results in the contents of the being shown directly in the browser as text, rather than the file save dialog being displayed. Our application allows the user to download both PDF and CSV files. The code we're using is: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.Clear(); response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.End(); This is called from the code-behind click event handler of a button server control. Where are we going wrong with this approach? Edit Following James' answer to this posting, the code I'm using now looks like this: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.ClearHeaders(); // Setting cache to NoCache was recommended, but doing so results in a security // warning in IE6 //response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); response.AppendHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.Flush(); response.End(); However, I don't believe that any of the changes made will fix the issue.

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• Build a Visual Studio Project without access to referenced dlls

  - by David Reis

  I have a project which has a set of binary dependencies (assembly dlls for which I do no have the source code). At runtime those dependencies are required pre-installed on the machine and at compile time they are required in the source tree, e,g in a lib folder. As I'm also making source code available for this program I would like to enable a simple download and build experience for it. Unfortunately I cannot redistribute the dlls, and that complicates things, since VS wont link the project without access to the referenced dlls. Is there anyway to enable this project to be built and linked in absence of the real referenced dlls? Maybe theres a way to tell VS to link against an auto generated stub of the dll, so that it can rebuild without the original? Maybe there's a third party tool that will do this? Any clues or best practices at all in this area? I realize the person must have access to the dlls to run the code, so it makes sense that he could add them to the build process, but I'm just trying to save them the pain of collecting all the dlls and placing them in the lib folder manually.

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• Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

  - by AMissico

  While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

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• Multi-threaded library calls in ASP.NET page request.

  - by ProfK

  I have an ASP.NET app, very basic, but right now too much code to post if we're lucky and I don't have to. We have a class called ReportGenerator. On a button click, method GenerateReports is called. It makes an async call to InternalGenerateReports using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem and returns, ending the ASP.NET response. It doesn't provide any completion callback or anything. InternalGenerateReports creates and maintains five threads in the threadpool, one report per thread, also using QueueUserWorkItem, by 'creating' five threads, also with and waiting until calls on all of them complete, in a loop. Each thread uses an ASP.NET ReportViewer control to render a report to HTML. That is, for 200 reports, InternalGenerateReports should create 5 threads 40 times. As threads complete, report data is queued, and when all five have completed, report data is flushed to disk. My biggest problems are that after running for just one report, the aspnet process is 'hung', and also that at around 200 reports, the app just hangs. I just simplified this code to run in a single thread, and this works fine. Before we get into details like my code, is there anything obvious in the above scendario that might be wrong?

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• Magento config XML for adding a controller action to a core admin controller

  - by N. B.

  I'm trying to add a custom action to a core controller by extending it in a local module. Below I have the class definition which resides in magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/controllers/Catalog/ProductController.php class MyCompany_MyModule_Catalog_ProductController extends Mage_Adminhtml_Catalog_ProductController { public function massAttributeSetAction(){ ... } } Here is my config file at magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/etc/config.xml: ... <global> <rewrite> <mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> <from><![CDATA[#^/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/#]]></from> <to>/mymodule/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/</to> </mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> </rewrite> <admin> <routers> <MyCompany_MyModule> <use>admin</use> <args> <module>MyCompany_MyModule</module> <frontName>MyModule</frontName> </args> </MyCompany_MyModule> </routers> </admin> </global> ... However, https://example.com/index.php/admin/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/ simply yields a admin 404 page. I know that the module is active - other code is executing fine. I feel it's simply a problem with my xml syntax. Am I going about this the write way? I'm hesitant because I'm not actually rewriting a controller method... I'm adding one entirely. However it does make sense in that, the original admin url won't respond to that action name and it will need to be redirected. I'm using Magento 1.3.2.2 Thanks for any guidance.

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• SystemStackError in Rails::ActiveSupport::Callbacks

  - by coreyward

  I'm building a Rails app that connects to Dropbox and syncs with a folder to update a personal site. I'm using Rails 3.0.3, Ruby 1.9.2, and the Dropbox gem. Right now I have a DropboxAccounts Controller, and two models: DropboxSession, which wraps calls to the gem with application-specific functionality, and DropboxAccount, which stores the session and settings in the database. After the user authorizes their account with Dropbox they're redirected back over and the DropboxAccount is saved with the authorized session. That all works just fine. My problem is that when I try to call Dropbox::API#create_folder(any path) I end up with a SystemStackError in lib/activesupport/callbacks.rb:421 which refers to the code below. If I remove the call to create the folder, it works. If I call create folder from another request, it works. I doubled the stack size to 16K to no avail. # This is called the first time a callback is called with a particular # key. It creates a new callback method for the key, calculating # which callbacks can be omitted because of per_key conditions. # def __create_keyed_callback(name, kind, object, &blk) #:nodoc: @_keyed_callbacks ||= {} @_keyed_callbacks[name] ||= begin str = send("_#{kind}_callbacks").compile(name, object) class_eval <<-RUBY_EVAL, __FILE__, __LINE__ + 1 def #{name}() #{str} end # THIS IS LINE 421 protected :#{name} RUBY_EVAL true end end I'm not very familiar with Rails yet, and I'm not sure what the intention of the code above is or why it would cause a stack overflow. I'm not using any method_missing/ghost method magic in my code. I suspected it was something with a callback serialize :files but commenting it out did nothing. My DropboxAccount model contains only a call to belongs_to :user, and DropboxSession is just a handful of methods, none of which contain callbacks. Bypassing them and using the Dropbox::Session methods directly doesn't help. I hope someone on StackOverflow can help me with this stack overflow. ;)

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• What's the most DRY-appropriate way to execute an SQL command?

  - by Sean U

  I'm looking to figure out the best way to execute a database query using the least amount of boilerplate code. The method suggested in the SqlCommand documentation: private static void ReadOrderData(string connectionString) { string queryString = "SELECT OrderID, CustomerID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString)) { SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(queryString, connection); connection.Open(); SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader(); try { while (reader.Read()) { Console.WriteLine(String.Format("{0}, {1}", reader[0], reader[1])); } } finally { reader.Close(); } } } mostly consists of code that would have to be repeated in every method that interacts with the database. I'm already in the habit of factoring out the establishment of a connection, which would yield code more like the following. (I'm also modifying it so that it returns data, in order to make the example a bit less trivial.) private SQLConnection CreateConnection() { var connection = new SqlConnection(_connectionString); connection.Open(); return connection; } private List<int> ReadOrderData() { using(var connection = CreateConnection()) using(var command = connection.CreateCommand()) { command.CommandText = "SELECT OrderID FROM dbo.Orders;"; using(var reader = command.ExecuteReader()) { var results = new List<int>(); while(reader.Read()) results.Add(reader.GetInt32(0)); return results; } } } That's an improvement, but there's still enough boilerplate to nag at me. Can this be reduced further? In particular, I'd like to do something about the first two lines of the procedure. I don't feel like the method should be in charge of creating the SqlCommand. It's a tiny piece of repetition as it is in the example, but it seems to grow if transactions are being managed manually or timeouts are being altered or anything like that.

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• Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

  - by Wondering

  Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

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• Adding an ASP.NET Web User Control to a Control Dynamically

  - by RandomBen

  I have a simple ASP.NET Web User Control. It looks like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="NewsArticle.ascx.cs" Inherits="Website.Controls.NewsArticle" %> <div> <asp:Literal ID="ltlBody" runat="server" /> </div> My code behind looks like this: namespace Website.Controls { public partial class NewsArticle : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public String bodyText { //get { return ltlBody.Text; } set { ltlBody.Text = value; } } } } On a .aspx page I have <asp:Panel ID="pNews" runat="server" /> In the code behind I have: foreach (vwNews news in newsQuery) { NewsArticle article = new NewsArticle(); aticle.bodyText = news.Body; pNews.Controls.Add(article); } Every time I run this code the newsQuery is populated correctly and I get to the line aticle.bodyText = news.Body; and then I received the error article.bodyText threw an exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' I am not sure what is causing this error message or how to fix it. I would think that there should not be an issue. I tried creating a constructor for my Web User Control so that it would give default values to my properties but that didn't work. Any idea how to make this work? It doesn't seem like it should be that

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• Javascript array of dates - not iterating properly (jquery ui datepicker)

  - by PaulB

  Hi I have some code which builds an array of date ranges. I then call a function, passing it a date, and compare that date with dates in the array. I'm doing it this way because the dates are stored in a cms, and I'm manipulating the JqueryUI datepicker. Unfortunately my code only checks the first date range in the array - and I can't figure out why! I think it's probably something simple (/stupid!) - if anyone can shed some light on it I'd be extremely grateful! The code is below - the june-september range works fine, the december to jan is totally ignored... <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> var ps1 = new Date(2010, 06-1, 18); var pe1 = new Date(2010, 09-1, 03); var ps2 = new Date(2010, 12-1, 20); var pe2 = new Date(2011, 01-1, 02); var peakStart = new Array(ps1,ps2); var peakEnd = new Array(pe1,pe2); function checkDay(date) { var day = date.getDay(); for (var i=0; i<peakStart.length; i++) { if ((date > peakStart[i]) && (date < peakEnd[i])) { return [(day == 5), '']; } else { return [(day == 1 || day == 5), '']; } } } </script>

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• How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

  - by sperling

  How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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• Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

  - by Adrian Grigore

  Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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• Sql Server Compact Edition version error.

  - by Tim

  I am working on .NET ClickOnce project that uses Sql Server 2005 Compact Edition to synchronize remote data through the use of a Merge replication. This application has been live for nearly a year now, and while we encounter occasional synchronization errors, things run quite smoothly for the most part. Yesterday a user reported an error that I have never seen before and have yet to find any information for online. Many users synchronize every night, and I haven't received error reports from anyone else, so this issue must be isolated to this particular user / client machine. Here are the full details of the error: -Error Code : 80004005 -Message : The message contains an unexpected replication operation code. The version of SQL Server Compact Edition Client Agent and SQL Server Compact Edition Server Agent should match. [ replication operation code = 31 ] -Minor Error : 28526 -Source : Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition -Numeric Parameters : 31 One interesting thing that I've found is that his data does get synchronized to the server, so this error must occur after the upload completes. I have yet to determine whether or not changes at the server are still being downloaded to his subscription. Thinking that maybe there was some kind of version conflict going on, I had a remote desktop session with this user last night and uninstalled both the application and the SQL Server Compact Edition prerequisite, then reinstalled both from our ClickOnce publication site. I also removed his existing local database file so that upon synchronization, an entirely new subscription would be issued to him. Still his errors continue. I suppose the error may be somewhat general, and the text in the error message stating that the versions should match may not necessarily reflect the problem at hand. This site contains the only official reference to this error that I've been able to find, and it offers no more detail than the error message itself. Has anyone else encountered this error? Or at least know more about SQL Compact to have a better guess as to what is going on here? Any help / suggestions will be greatly appreciated!

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• How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

  - by jasondavis

  About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

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• Declaration, allocation and assignment of an array of pointers to function pointers

  - by manneorama

  Hello Stack Overflow! This is my first post, so please be gentle. I've been playing around with C from time to time in the past. Now I've gotten to the point where I've started a real project (a 2D graphics engine using SDL, but that's irrelevant for the question), to be able to say that I have some real C experience. Yesterday, while working on the event system, I ran into a problem which I couldn't solve. There's this typedef, //the void parameter is really an SDL_Event*. //but that is irrelevant for this question. typedef void (*event_callback)(void); which specifies the signature of a function to be called on engine events. I want to be able to support multiple event_callbacks, so an array of these callbacks would be an idea, but do not want to limit the amount of callbacks, so I need some sort of dynamic allocation. This is where the problem arose. My first attempt went like this: //initial size of callback vector static const int initial_vecsize = 32; //our event callback vector static event_callback* vec = 0; //size static unsigned int vecsize = 0; void register_event_callback(event_callback func) { if (!vec) __engine_allocate_vec(vec); vec[vecsize++] = func; //error here! } static void __engine_allocate_vec(engine_callback* vec) { vec = (engine_callback*) malloc(sizeof(engine_callback*) * initial_vecsize); } First of all, I have omitted some error checking as well as the code that reallocates the callback vector when the number of callbacks exceed the vector size. However, when I run this code, the program crashes as described in the code. I'm guessing segmentation fault but I can't be sure since no output is given. I'm also guessing that the error comes from a somewhat flawed understanding on how to declare and allocate an array of pointers to function pointers. Please Stack Overflow, guide me.

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