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  • linked list elements gone?

    - by Hristo
    I create a linked list dynamically and initialize the first node in main(), and I add to the list every time I spawn a worker process. Before the worker process exits, I print the list. Also, I print the list inside my sigchld signal handler. in main(): head = NULL; tail = NULL; // linked list to keep track of worker process dll_node_t *node; node = (dll_node_t *) malloc(sizeof(dll_node_t)); // initialize list, allocate memory append_node(node); node->pid = mainPID; // the first node is the MAIN process node->type = MAIN; in a fork()'d process: // add to list dll_node_t *node; node = (dll_node_t *) malloc(sizeof(dll_node_t)); append_node(node); node->pid = mmapFileWorkerStats->childPID; node->workerFileName = mmapFileWorkerStats->workerFileName; node->type = WORK; functions: void append_node(dll_node_t *nodeToAppend) { /* * append param node to end of list */ // if the list is empty if (head == NULL) { // create the first/head node head = nodeToAppend; nodeToAppend->prev = NULL; } else { tail->next = nodeToAppend; nodeToAppend->prev = tail; } // fix the tail to point to the new node tail = nodeToAppend; nodeToAppend->next = NULL; } finally... the signal handler: void chld_signalHandler() { dll_node_t *temp1 = head; while (temp1 != NULL) { printf("2. node's pid: %d\n", temp1->pid); temp1 = temp1->next; } int termChildPID = waitpid(-1, NULL, WNOHANG); dll_node_t *temp = head; while (temp != NULL) { if (temp->pid == termChildPID) { printf("found process: %d\n", temp->pid); } temp = temp->next; } return; } Is it true that upon the worker process exiting, the SIGCHLD signal handler is triggered? If so, that would mean that after I print the tree before exiting, the next thing I do is in the signal handler which is print the tree... which would mean i would print the tree twice? But the tree isn't the same. The node I add in the worker process doesn't exist when I print in the signal handler or at the very end of main(). Any idea why? Thanks, Hristo

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  • What's the best way to return stuff from a PHP function, and simultaneously trigger a jQuery action?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    So the title is a tad ambiguous, but I'll try and give an example. Basically, I have an 'awards' system (similar to that of StackOverflow's badges) in my PHP/CodeIgniter site, and I want, as soon as an award is earned, a notification to appear to the user. Now I'm happy to have this appear on the next page load, but, ideally I'd like it to appear as soon as the award is transactioned since my site is mostly Ajax-powered and there may not be page reloads very often. The way the system works currently, is: 1) If the user does something to trigger the earning of an award, CodeIgniter does this: $params['user_id'] = $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(); $params['award_id'] = 1; // (I have a database table with different awards in) $this->awards->award($params); 2) My custom library, $this->awards, runs the award function: function award($params) { $sql = $this->ci->db->query("INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('".$params['user_id']."','".$params['award_id']."') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1"); $awardinfo = $this->ci->db->query("SELECT * FROM awards WHERE id = ".$params['award_id']); // If it's the 'first time' the user has gotten the award (e.g. they've earnt it) if ($awardinfo->row('duplicate') == 0) { $params['title'] = $awardinfo->row('title'); $params['description'] = $awardinfo->row('description'); $params['iconpath'] = $awardinfo->row('iconpath'); $params['percentage'] = $awardinfo->row('percentage'); return $params; } } So, it awards the user (and if they've earnt it twice, updates a useless duplicate field by one), then checks if it's the first time they've earnt it (so it can alert them of the award). If so, it gets the variables (title of the award, the award description, the path to an icon to display for the award, and finally the percentage of users who have also got this award) and returns them as an array. So... that's that. Now I'd like to know, what's the best way to do this? Currently my Award-giving bit is called from a controller, but I guess if I want this to trigger via Ajax, then the code should be placed in a View file...? To sum it up: I need the returned award data to appear without a page refresh. What's the best way of doing this? (I'm already using jQuery on my page). Thanks very much everybody! Jack

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  • Yet another Ant + JUnit classpath problem

    - by user337591
    Hi, I'm developing an Eclipse SWT application using Eclipse. There are also some JUnit 4 tests, which test some DAO's. But when I try to run the tests via an ant build, all of the tests fail, because the test classes aren't found. Google brought up about a million of people who all have the same problem, but none of their solutions seem to work for me -.- . These are the contents of my build.xml file: <property name="test.reports" value="./test/reports" /> <property name="classes" value="build" /> <path id="project.classpath"> <pathelement location="${classes}" /> </path> <target name="testreport"> <mkdir dir="${test.reports}" /> <junit fork="yes" printsummary="no" haltonfailure="no"> <batchtest fork="yes" todir="${test.reports}" > <fileset dir="${classes}"> <include name="**/Test*.class" /> </fileset> </batchtest> <formatter type="xml" /> <classpath refid="project.classpath" /> </junit> <junitreport todir="${test.reports}"> <fileset dir="${test.reports}"> <include name="TEST-*.xml" /> </fileset> <report todir="${test.reports}" /> </junitreport> </target> The test classes are in the build-directory together with the application classes, although they are in some subfolders according to their packages. Maybe this is important too: At first Ant complained that JUnit wasn't in its classpath, but since I put it there (with the eclipse configuration editor) it complains about JUnit being in its classpath twice. WARNING: multiple versions of ant detected in path for junit [junit] jar:file:C:/Users/as df/Documents/eclipse/plugins/org.apache.ant_1.7.1.v20090120-1145/lib/ant.jar!/org/apache/tools/ant/Project.class [junit] and jar:file:/C:/Users/as%20df/Documents/eclipse/plugins/org.apache.ant_1.7.1.v20090120-1145/lib/ant.jar!/org/apache/tools/ant/Project.class I've tried specifying each and every subdirectory, each and every class file, I've tried filesets and filelists, nothing seems to work. Thanks for your help, I've been sitting for hours on this thing now...

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  • Timer in a Windows service - not really working?

    - by marc_s
    I have a Windows NT Service in C# which basically wakes up every x seconds, checks to see if any mail notifications need to be sent out, and then goes back to sleep. It looks something like this (the Timer class is from the System.Threading namespace): public partial class MyService : ServiceBase { private Timer _timer; private int _timeIntervalBetweenRuns = 10000; public MyService() { InitializeComponent(); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { // when NT Service starts - create timer to wake up every 10 seconds _timer = new Timer(OnTimer, null, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns, Timeout.Infinite); } protected override void OnStop() { // on stop - stop timer by freeing it _timer = null; } private void OnTimer(object state) { // when the timer fires, e.g. when 10 seconds are over // stop the timer from firing again by freeing it _timer = null; // check for mail and sent out notifications, if required - works just fine MailHandler handler = new MailHandler(); handler.CheckAndSendMail(); // once done, re-enable the timer by creating it from scratch _timer = new Timer(OnTimer, null, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns, _timeIntervalBetweenRuns); } } Sending the mail and all works just fine, and the service also wakes up every 10 seconds (in reality, this is a setting from a config file - simplified for this example). However, at times, the service seems to wake up too quickly.... 2010-04-09 22:50:16.390 2010-04-09 22:50:26.460 2010-04-09 22:50:36.483 2010-04-09 22:50:46.500 2010-04-09 22:50:46.537 ** why again after just 37 milliseconds...... ?? 2010-04-09 22:50:56.507 Works fine to 22:50:45.500 - why does it log another entry just 37 milliseconds later?? Here, it seems it's totally out of whack.... seems to wake up twice or even three times every time 10 seconds are over.... 2010-04-09 22:51:16.527 2010-04-09 22:51:26.537 2010-04-09 22:51:26.537 2010-04-09 22:51:36.543 2010-04-09 22:51:36.543 2010-04-09 22:51:46.553 2010-04-09 22:51:46.553 2010-04-09 22:51:56.577 2010-04-09 22:51:56.577 2010-04-09 22:52:06.590 2010-04-09 22:52:06.590 2010-04-09 22:52:06.600 2010-04-09 22:52:06.600 Any ideas why?? It's not a huge problem, but I'm concerned it might start to put too much load on the server, if the interval I configure (10 seconds, 30 seconds - whatever) seems to be ignored more and more, the longer the service runs. Have I missed something very fundamental in my service code?? Am I ending up with multiple timers, or something?? I can't seem to really figure it out..... have I picked the wrong timer (System.Threading.Timer) ? There's at least 3 Timer classes in .NET - why?? :-)

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  • Can GPU capabilities impact virtual machine performance?

    - by Dave White
    While this many not seem like a programming question directly, it impacts my development activities and so it seems like it belongs here. It seems that more and more developers are turning to virtual environments for development activities on their computers, SharePoint development being a prime example. Also, as a trainer, I have virtual training environments for all of the classes that I teach. I recently purchased a new Dell E6510 to travel around with. It has the i7 620M (Dual core, HyperThreaded cpu running at 2.66GHz) and 8 GB of memory. Reading the spec sheet, it sounded like it would be a great laptop to carry around and run virtual machines on. Getting the laptop though, I've been pretty disappointed with the user experience of developing in a virtual machine. Giving the Virtual Machine 4 GB of memory, it was slow and I could type complete sentences and watch the VM "catchup". My company has training laptops that we provide for our classes. They are Dell Precision M6400 Intel Core 2 Duo P8700 running at 2.54Ghz with 8 GB of memory and the experience on this laptops is night and day compared to the E6510. They are crisp and you barely aware that you are running in a virtual environment. Since the E6510 should be faster in all categories than the M6400, I couldn't understand why the new laptop was slower, so I did a component by component comparison and the only place where the E6510 is less performant than the M6400 is the graphics department. The M6400 is running a nVidia FX 2700m GPU and the E6510 is running a nVidia 3100M GPU. Looking at benchmarks of the two GPUs suggest that the FX 2700M is twice as fast as the 3100M. http://www.notebookcheck.net/Mobile-Graphics-Cards-Benchmark-List.844.0.html 3100M = 111th (E6510) FX 2700m = 47th (Precision M6400) Radeon HD 5870 = 8th (Alienware) The host OS is Windows 7 64bit as is the guest OS, running in Virtual Box 3.1.8 with Guest Additions installed on the guest. The IDE being used in the virtual environment is VS 2010 Premium. So after that long setup, my question is: Is the GPU significantly impacting the virtual machine's performance or are there other factors that I'm not looking at that I can use to boost the vm's performance? Do we now have to consider GPU performance when purchasing laptops where we expect to use virtualized development environments? Thanks in advance. Cheers, Dave

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  • Advanced SQL query with lots of joins

    - by lund.mikkel
    Hey fellow programmers Okay, first let me say that this is a hard one. I know the presentation may be a little long. But I how you'll bare with me and help me through anyway :D So I'm developing on an advanced search for bicycles. I've got a lot of tables I need to join to find all, let's say, red and brown bikes. One bike may come in more then one color! I've made this query for now: SELECT DISTINCT p.products_id, #simple product id products_name, #product name products_attributes_id, #color id pov.products_options_values_name #color name FROM products p LEFT JOIN products_description pd ON p.products_id = pd.products_id INNER JOIN products_attributes pa ON pa.products_id = p.products_id LEFT JOIN products_options_values pov ON pov.products_options_values_id = pa.options_values_id LEFT JOIN products_options_search pos ON pov.products_options_values_id = pos.products_options_values_id WHERE pos.products_options_search_id = 4 #code for red OR pos.products_options_search_id = 5 #code for brown My first concern is the many joins. The Products table mainly holds product id and it's image and the Products Description table holds more descriptive info such as name (and product ID of course). I then have the Products Options Values table which holds all the colors and their IDs. Products Options Search is containing the color IDs along with a color group ID (products_options_search_id). Red has the color group code 4 (brown is 5). The products and colors have a many-to-many relationship managed inside Products Attributes. So my question is first of all: Is it okay to make so many joins? Is i hurting the performance? Second: If a bike comes in both red and brown, it'll show up twice even though I use SELECT DISTINCT. Think this is because of the INNER JOIN. Is this possible to avoid and do I have to remove the doubles in my PHP code? Third: Bikes can be double colored (i.e. black and blue). This means that there are two rows for that bike. One where it says the color is black and one where is says its blue. (See second question). But if I replace the OR in the WHERE clause it removes both rows, because none of them fulfill the conditions - only the product. What is the workaround for that? I really hope you will and can help me. I'm a little desperate right now :D Regards Mikkel Lund

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  • How do I use ViewScripts on Zend_Form File Elements?

    - by Sonny
    I am using this ViewScript for my standard form elements: <div class="field" id="field_<?php echo $this->element->getId(); ?>"> <?php if (0 < strlen($this->element->getLabel())) : ?> <?php echo $this->formLabel($this->element->getName(), $this->element->getLabel());?> <?php endif; ?> <span class="value"><?php echo $this->{$this->element->helper}( $this->element->getName(), $this->element->getValue(), $this->element->getAttribs() ) ?></span> <?php if (0 < $this->element->getMessages()->length) : ?> <?php echo $this->formErrors($this->element->getMessages()); ?> <?php endif; ?> <?php if (0 < strlen($this->element->getDescription())) : ?> <span class="hint"><?php echo $this->element->getDescription(); ?></span> <?php endif; ?> </div> Trying to use that ViewScript alone results in an error: Exception caught by form: No file decorator found... unable to render file element Looking at this FAQ revealed part of my problem, and I updated my form element decorators like this: 'decorators' => array( array('File'), array('ViewScript', array('viewScript' => 'form/field.phtml')) ) Now it's rendering the file element twice, once within my view script, and extra elements with the file element outside my view script: <input type="hidden" name="MAX_FILE_SIZE" value="8388608" id="MAX_FILE_SIZE" /> <input type="hidden" name="UPLOAD_IDENTIFIER" value="4b5f7335a55ee" id="progress_key" /> <input type="file" name="upload_file" id="upload_file" /> <div class="field" id="field_upload_file"> <label for="upload_file">Upload File</label> <span class="value"><input type="file" name="upload_file" id="upload_file" /></span> </div> Any ideas on how to handle this properly with a ViewScript?

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  • Same data being returned by linq for 2 different executions of a stored procedure?

    - by Paul
    Hello I have a stored procedure that I am calling through Entity Framework. The stored procedure has 2 date parameters. I supply different argument in the 2 times I call the stored procedure. I have verified using SQL Profiler that the stored procedure is being called correctly and returning the correct results. When I call my method the second time with different arguments, even though the stored procedure is bringing back the correct results, the table created contains the same data as the first time I called it. dtStart = 01/08/2009 dtEnd = 31/08/2009 public List<dataRecord> GetData(DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd) { var tbl = from t in db.SP(dtStart, dtEnd) select t; return tbl.ToList(); } GetData((new DateTime(2009, 8, 1), new DateTime(2009, 8, 31)) // tbl.field1 value = 45450 - CORRECT GetData(new DateTime(2009, 7, 1), new DateTime(2009, 7, 31)) // tbl.field1 value = 45450 - WRONG 27456 expected Is this a case of Entity Framework being clever and caching? I can't see why it would cache this though as it has executed the stored procedure twice. Do I have to do something to close tbl? using Visual Studio 2008 + Entity Framework. I also get the message "query cannot be enumerated more than once" a few times every now and then, am not sure if that is relevant? FULL CODE LISTING namespace ProfileDataService { public partial class DataService { public static List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd, EUtilityGroup ug, int nMeterSelectionType, int nCustomerID, int nUserID, string strSelection, bool bClosedLocations, bool bDisposedLocations) { dbChildDataContext db = DBManager.ChildDataConext(nCustomerID); var tbl = from t in db.GetTotalConsumptionByMeter(dtStart, dtEnd, (int) ug, nMeterSelectionType, nCustomerID, nUserID, strSelection, bClosedLocations, bDisposedLocations, 1) select t; return tbl.ToList(); } } } /// CALLER List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> _P1Totals; List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> _P2Totals; public void LoadData(int nUserID, int nCustomerID, ELocationSelectionMethod locationSelectionMethod, string strLocations, bool bIncludeClosedLocations, bool bIncludeDisposedLocations, DateTime dtStart, DateTime dtEnd, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EPeriodType durMainPeriodType, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EPeriodType durCompareToPeriodType, ReportsBusinessLogic.Lists.EIncreaseReportType rptType, bool bIncludeDecreases) { ///Code for setting properties using parameters.. _P2Totals = ProfileDataService.DataService.GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(_P2StartDate, _P2EndDate, EUtilityGroup.Electricity, 1, nCustomerID, nUserID, strLocations, bIncludeClosedLocations, bIncludeDisposedLocations); _P1Totals = ProfileDataService.DataService.GetTotalAllTimesConsumption(_StartDate, _EndDate, EUtilityGroup.Electricity, 1, nCustomerID, nUserID, strLocations, bIncludeClosedLocations, bIncludeDisposedLocations); PopulateLines() //This fills up a list of objects with information for my report ready for the totals to be added PopulateTotals(_P1Totals, 1); PopulateTotals(_P2Totals, 2); } void PopulateTotals(List<MeterTotalConsumpRecord> objTotals, int nPeriod) { MeterTotalConsumpRecord objMeterConsumption = null; foreach (IncreaseReportDataRecord objLine in _Lines) { objMeterConsumption = objTotals.Find(delegate(MeterTotalConsumpRecord t) { return t.MeterID == objLine.MeterID; }); if (objMeterConsumption != null) { if (nPeriod == 1) { objLine.P1Consumption = (double)objMeterConsumption.Consumption; } else { objLine.P2Consumption = (double)objMeterConsumption.Consumption; } objMeterConsumption = null; } } } }

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  • When to call glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB)?

    - by Steven Lu
    I have a rendering system where I draw to an FBO with a multisampled renderbuffer, then blit it to another FBO with a texture in order to resolve the samples in order to read off the texture to perform post-processing shading while drawing to the backbuffer (FBO index 0). Now I'd like to get some correct sRGB output... The problem is the behavior of the program is rather inconsistent between when I run it on OS X and Windows and this also changes depending on the machine: On Windows with the Intel HD 3000 it will not apply the sRGB nonlinearity but on my other machine with a Nvidia GTX 670 it does. On the Intel HD 3000 in OS X it will also apply it. So this probably means that I'm not setting my GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB enable state at the right points in the program. However I can't seem to find any tutorials that actually tell me when I ought to enable it, they only ever mention that it's dead easy and comes at no performance cost. I am currently not loading in any textures so I haven't had a need to deal with linearizing their colors yet. To force the program to not simply spit back out the linear color values, what I have tried is simply comment out my glDisable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) line, which effectively means this setting is enabled for the entire pipeline, and I actually redundantly force it back on every frame. I don't know if this is correct or not. It certainly does apply a nonlinearization to the colors but I can't tell if this is getting applied twice (which would be bad). It could apply the gamma as I render to my first FBO. It could do it when I blit the first FBO to the second FBO. Why not? I've gone so far as to take screen shots of my final frame and compare raw pixel color values to the colors I set them to in the program: I set the input color to RGB(1,2,3) and the output is RGB(13,22,28). That seems like quite a lot of color compression at the low end and leads me to question if the gamma is getting applied multiple times. I have just now gone through the sRGB equation and I can verify that the conversion seems to be only applied once as linear 1/255, 2/255, and 3/255 do indeed map to sRGB 13/255, 22/255, and 28/255 using the equation 1.055*C^(1/2.4)+0.055. Given that the expansion is so large for these low color values it really should be obvious if the sRGB color transform is getting applied more than once. So, I still haven't determined what the right thing to do is. does glEnable(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_SRGB) only apply to the final framebuffer values, in which case I can just set this during my GL init routine and forget about it hereafter?

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  • I have to select the checkbox two times to check/uncheck in jTable

    - by 117526709403775781607
    I have a jTable code i intend to use, but the problem with it is that when i click on the checkbox once it doesn't select/deselect it, instead i have to click twice. But if i select any other cell in the row except the one containing the checkbox the purpose is solved. HERE IS MY CODE : public class TableSelectionTest extends JFrame implements ListSelectionListener { private final int COLUMN_COUNT = 5; private TblModel model; public TableSelectionTest() { initialize(); setDefaultCloseOperation(EXIT_ON_CLOSE); pack(); } private void initialize() { List data = new ArrayList(); for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { Object record[] = new Object[COLUMN_COUNT]; record[0] = Boolean.FALSE; for (int j = 1; j < COLUMN_COUNT; j++) { record[j] = new Integer(j); } data.add(record); } model = new TblModel(data); JTable table = new JTable(model); table.getSelectionModel().setSelectionMode(ListSelectionModel.SINGLE_SELECTION); table.getSelectionModel().addListSelectionListener (this); JScrollPane scroll = new JScrollPane(table); getContentPane().add(scroll, BorderLayout.CENTER); } public static void main(String[] args) { TableSelectionTest f = new TableSelectionTest(); f.show(); } class TblModel extends AbstractTableModel { private List data; public TblModel(List data) { this.data = data; } public int getColumnCount() { return COLUMN_COUNT; } public int getRowCount() { return data == null ? 0 : data.size(); } public void setValueAt(Object value, int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { getRecord(rowIndex)[columnIndex] = value; super.fireTableCellUpdated(rowIndex, columnIndex); } public Object getValueAt(int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { return getRecord(rowIndex)[columnIndex]; } public boolean isCellEditable(int rowIndex, int columnIndex) { if(columnIndex == 0) return true; else return false; } public Class getColumnClass(int columnIndex) { if (data == null || data.size() == 0) { return Object.class; } Object o = getValueAt(0, columnIndex); return o == null ? Object.class : o.getClass(); } private Object[] getRecord(int rowIndex) { return (Object[]) data.get(rowIndex); } } public void valueChanged(ListSelectionEvent e) { if (!e.getValueIsAdjusting()) { ListSelectionModel lsm = (ListSelectionModel) e.getSource(); int index = lsm.getMinSelectionIndex(); if(model.getRecord(index)[0] == Boolean.FALSE) model.setValueAt(Boolean.TRUE, index, 0); else if(model.getRecord(index)[0] == Boolean.TRUE) model.setValueAt(Boolean.FALSE, index, 0); } } } Please reply soon as it is bugging me a lot Thank you in advance :)

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  • Why sockets does not die when server dies? Why socket dies when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • Doing some stuff right before the user exits the page

    - by Mike
    I have seen some questions here regarding what I want to achieve and have based what I have so far on those answer. But there is a slight misbehavior that is still irritating me. What I have is sort of a recovery feature. Whenever you are typing text, the client sends a sync request to the server every 45 seconds. It does 2 things. First, it extends the lease the client has on the record (only one person may edit at one time) for another 60 seconds. Second, it sends the text typed so far to the server in case the server crashes, internet connection fails, etc. In that case, the next time the user enters our application, the user is notified that something has gone wrong and that some text was recovered. Think of Microsoft or OpenOffice recovery whenever they crash! Of course, if the user leaves the page willingly, the user does not need to be notified and as a result, the recovery is deleted. I do that final request via a beforeunload event. Everything went fine until I was asked to make a final adjustment... The same behavior you have here at stack overflow when you exit the editor... a confirm dialogue. This works so far, BUT, the confirm dialogue is shown twice. Here is the code. The event if (local.sync.autosave_textelement) { window.onbeforeunload = exitConfirm; } The function function exitConfirm() { var local = Core; if (confirm('blub?')) { local.sync.autosave_destroy = true; sync(false); return true; } else { return false; } }; Some problem irrelevant clarifications: Core is a global Object that contains a lot of variables that are used everywhere. sync makes an ajax request. The values are based on the values that the Core.sync object contains. The parameter determines if the call should be async (default) or sync. Edit 1 I did try to separate both things (recovery deletion and user confirmation that is) into beforeunload and unload. The problem there was that unload is a bit too late. The user gets informed that there is a recovery even though it is scheduled to be deleted. If you refresh the page 1 second later, the dialogue disappears as the file was deleted by then.

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  • Best of both worlds: browser and desktop game?

    - by Ricket
    When considering a platform for a game, I've decided on multi-platform (Win/Lin/Mac) but can't make up my mind as far as browser vs. desktop. As I'm not all too far in development, and now having second thoughts, I'd like your opinion! Browser-based games using Java applets: market penetration is reasonably high (for version 6, it's somewhere around 60% I believe?) using JOGL, 3D performance/quality is decent; certainly good enough to render the crappy 3D graphics that I make there's the (small?) possibility of porting something to Android great for an audience of gamers who switch computers often; can sit down at any computer, load a webpage and play it also great for casual gamers or less knowledgeable gamers who are quite happy with playing games in a browser but don't want to install more things to their computer written in a high-level language which I am more familiar with than C++ - but at the same time, I would like to improve my skills with C++ as it is probably where I am headed in the game industry once I get out of school... easier update process: reload the page. Desktop games using good ol' C++ and OpenGL 100% market penetration, assuming complete cross-platform; however, that number reduces when you consider how many people will go through downloading and installing an executable compared to just browsing to a webpage and hitting "yes" to a security warning. more trouble to maintain the cross-platform; but again, for learning purposes I would embrace the challenge and the knowledge I would gain better performance all around true full screen, whereas browser games often struggle with smooth full screen graphics (especially on Linux, in my experience) can take advantage of distribution platforms such as Steam more likely to be considered a "real" game, whereas browser and Java games are often dismissed as not being real games and therefore not played by "hardcore gamers" installer can be large; don't have to worry so much about download times Is there a way to have the best of both worlds? I love Java applets, but I also really like the reasons to write a desktop game. I don't want to constantly port everything between a Java applet project and a C++ project; that would be twice the work! Unity chose to write their own web player plugin. I don't like this, because I am one of the people that will not install their web player for anything, and I don't see myself being able to convince my audience to install a browser plugin. What are my options? Are there other examples out there besides Unity, of games that have browser and desktop versions? Did I leave out anything in the pro/con lists above?

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  • How can I embed a conditional comment for IE with innerHTML?

    - by Samuel Charpentier
    Ok so I want to conditionally add this line of code; <!--[if ! IE]> <embed src="logo.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> <![endif]--> Using: document.getElementById("logo") .innerHTML='...'; In a if()/else() statement and it don't write it! If i get rid of the selective comment ( <!--[if ! IE]><![endif]-->) and only put the SVG ( <embed src="logo.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> ) it work! what should I do? I found a way around but i think in the Android browser the thing will pop up twice. here's what I've done ( and its Validated stuff!); <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <META CHARSET="UTF-8"> <title>SVG Test</title> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ onload=function() { var ua = navigator.userAgent.toLowerCase(); var isAndroid = ua.indexOf("android") > -1; //&& ua.indexOf("mobile"); if(isAndroid) { document.getElementById("logo").innerHTML='<img src="fin_palais.png"/>'; } } //]]> </script> </head> <body> <div id="logo"> <!--[if lt IE 9]> <img src="fin_palais.png"/> <![endif]--> <!--[if gte IE 9]><!--> <embed src="fin_palais.svg" type="image/svg+xml" /> <!--<![endif]--> </div> </body>

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  • iPhone: Create a single UIView from multiple clicks

    - by Cuzog
    I'm making a partial overlay modal in my app with the code from “Semi-Modal (Transparent) Dialogs on the iPhone” at ramin.firoozye.com. In doing so, the button that calls the modal is still visible and clickable. I will hide this button when the modal spawns, but I want to be sure if the user clicks very quickly twice, a new modal doesn't come up for each click. What is the best way to check that the modal doesn't already exist when calling it from the button click? You can download the test project here. For those that don't have xcode, the relevant functions are below: I call forth the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)displayModal:(id)sender { ModalViewController *modalController = [[ModalViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ModalViewController" bundle:nil]; modalController.view.frame = CGRectOffset(modalController.view.frame, 0, 230); [self showModal:modalController.view]; } Then use this function to animate the custom modal over the current view: - (void)showModal:(UIView*) modalView { UIWindow* mainWindow = (((TestAppDelegate*) [UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate).window); CGPoint middleCenter = modalView.center; CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); modalView.center = offScreenCenter; // we start off-screen [mainWindow addSubview:modalView]; // Show it with a transition effect [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; // animation duration in seconds modalView.center = middleCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } Then I dismiss the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)dismissModal:(id)sender { [self hideModal:self.view]; } And then use these functions to animate the modal offscreen and clean itself up: - (void)hideModal:(UIView*) modalView { CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:modalView]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.7]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(hideModalEnded:finished:context:)]; modalView.center = offScreenCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)hideModalEnded:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context { UIView* modalView = (UIView *)context; [modalView removeFromSuperview]; [self release]; } Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Recursion problem; completely lost

    - by timeNomad
    So I've been trying to solve this assignment whole day, just can't get it. The following function accepts 2 strings, the 2nd (not 1st) possibly containing *'s (asterisks). An * is a replacement for a string (empty, 1 char or more), it can appear appear (only in s2) once, twice, more or not at all, it cannot be adjacent to another * (ab**c), no need to check that. public static boolean samePattern(String s1, String s2) It returns true if strings are of the same pattern. It must be recursive, not use any loops, static & global variables. Can use local variables & method overloading. Can use only these methods: charAt(i), substring(i), substring(i, j), length(). Examples: 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "The*xamIs*y" --- true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "Th*mIsEasy*" --- true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "*" --- true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "TheExamIsEasy" --- true 1: TheExamIsEasy; 2: "The*IsHard" --- FALSE I tried comparing the the chars one by one using charAt until an asterisk is encountered, then check if the asterisk is an empty one by comparing is successive char (i+1) with the char of s1 at position i, if true -- continue recursion with i+1 as counter for s2 & i as counter for s1; if false -- continue recursion with i+1 as counters for both. Continue this until another asterisk is found or end of string. I dunno, my brain loses track of things, can't concentrate, any pointers / hints? Am I in the right direction? Also, it's been told that a backtracking technique is to be used to solve this. My code so far (doesn't do the job, even theoretically): public static boolean samePattern(String s1, String s2) { if (s1.equals(s2) || s2 == "*") { return true; } return samePattern(s1, s2, 1); } public static boolean samePattern(String s1, String s2, int i) { if (s1.equals(s2)) return true; if (i == s2.length() - 1) // No *'s found -- not same pattern. return false; if (s1.substring(0, i).equals(s2.substring(0, i))) samePattern(s1, s2, i+1); else if (s2.charAt(i-1) == '*') samePattern(s1.substring(0, i-1), s2.substring(0, i), 1); // new smaller strings. else samePattern(s1.substring(1), s2, i); }

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  • markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

    - by spirytus
    For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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  • DRY-ing very similar specs for ASP.NET MVC controller action with MSpec (BDD guidelines)

    - by spapaseit
    Hi all, I have two very similar specs for two very similar controller actions: VoteUp(int id) and VoteDown(int id). These methods allow a user to vote a post up or down; kinda like the vote up/down functionality for StackOverflow questions. The specs are: VoteDown: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 10; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteDown(1); It should_decrement_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(9); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } VoteUp: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 0; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteUp(1); It should_increment_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(1); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } So I have two questions: How should I go about DRY-ing these two specs? Is it even advisable or should I actually have one spec per controller action? I know I Normally should, but this feels like repeating myself a lot. Is there any way to implement the second It within the same spec? Note that the It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; requires me the spec to call controller.VoteDown(1) twice. I know the easiest would be to create a separate spec for it too, but it'd be copying and pasting the same code yet again... I'm still getting the hang of BDD (and MSpec) and many times it is not clear which way I should go, or what the best practices or guidelines for BDD are. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Reading three words and sorting them in lexicographic order

    - by Derrick
    I am trying to create a program that asks the User to type three words and sort them in lexicographic order. EXAMPLE; Enter three words separated by spaces: Pear Orange Apple Apple Orange Pear The program is working fine (if I attempt the above example) except for one type of combination example that I will show below. EXAMPLE; Enter three words separated by spaces: Orange Apple Pear Apple Pear Pear The program is skipping the first word (Orange) if it is supposed to appear in the middle of the three words. I believe that this line of code is affecting the program because it says that "this assigned value is never used" but I'm not sure how to fix it since I'm still an entry Java learner. middle = firstWord; Because of that line being unused, it's why Pear appeared twice. import java.util.*; public static void main(String[] args) { Scanner wordInput = new Scanner(System.in); String firstWord; String secondWord; String thirdWord; System.out.println("Enter three words separated by spaces: "); firstWord = wordInput.next(); secondWord = wordInput.next(); thirdWord = wordInput.next(); String top = firstWord; String bottom = firstWord; if( top.compareTo(secondWord) > 0) { top = secondWord; } if( top.compareTo(thirdWord) > 0) { top = thirdWord; } if( bottom.compareTo(secondWord) < 0) { bottom = secondWord; } if( bottom.compareTo(thirdWord) < 0) { bottom = thirdWord; } String middle; if( !firstWord.equals(bottom) && !firstWord.equals(top) ) { middle = firstWord; } if( !secondWord.equals(bottom) && !secondWord.equals(top) ) { middle = secondWord; } else { middle = thirdWord; } System.out.println( top ); System.out.println( middle ); System.out.println( bottom ); } } Does anyone what I am missing or doing wrong? :( Please and thank you for any help!

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  • Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

    - by Doug Chamberlain
    Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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  • Opinions on collision detection objects with a moving scene

    - by Evan Teran
    So my question is simple, and I guess it boils down to how anal you want to be about collision detection. To keep things simple, lets assume we're talking about 2D sprites defined by a bounding box. In addition, let's assume that my sprite object has a function to detect collisions like this: S.collidesWith(other); Finally the scene is moving and "walls" in the scene can move, an object may not touch a wall. So a simple implementation might look like this (psuedo code): moveWalls(); moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } The problem with this is that if the sprite and wall move towards each other, depending on the circumstances (such as diagonal moment). They may pass though each other (unlikely but could happen). So I may do this instead. moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } This takes care of the passing through each other issue, but another rare issue comes up. If they are adjacent to each other (literally the next pixel) and both the wall and the sprite are moving left, then I will get an invalid collision since the wall moves, checks for collision (hit) then the sprite is moved. Which seems unfair. In addition, to that, the redundant collision detection feels very inefficient. I could give the player movement priority alleviating the first issue but it is still checking twice. moveSprite(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } moveWalls(); foreach(wall as w) { if(s.collidesWith(w)) { gameover(); } } Am I simply over thinking this issue, should this just be chalked up to "it'll happen rare enough that no one will care"? Certainly looking at old sprite based games, I often find situations where the collision detection has subtle flaws, but I figure by now we can do better :-P. What are people's thoughts?

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  • Modify values on-the-fly during SqlAdapter.Fill( )

    - by Timothy
    What would the proper way be to modify values on the fly as they are loaded into a DataTable by SqlAdapter.Fill()? I have globalized my application's log messages. An integer indicating the event type and serialized data relevant to the event is stored in the database as show below. When I display the logged events through a DataGridView control to the user, I interpolate the data to a formatting string. event_type event_timestamp event_details ============================================ 3 2010-05-04 20:49:58 jsmith 1 2010-05-04 20:50:42 jsmith ... I am currently iterating through the DataTable's rows to format the messages. public class LogDataTable : DataTable { public LogDataTable() { Locale = CultureInfo.CurrentCulture; Columns.AddRange(new DataColumn[] { new DataColumn("event_type", typeof(Int32)), new DataColumn("event_timestamp", typeof(DateTime)), new DataColumn("event_details", typeof(String))}); } } ... using (SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(...)) { adapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.AddRange(new Object[] { ... }); adapter.Fill(table); } foreach (DataRow row in table.Rows) { switch ((LogEventType)row["event_type"]) { case LogEventType.Create: row["event_details"] = String.Format(Resources.Strings.LogEventCreateMsg, row["event_details"]; break; case LogEventType.Create: row["event_details"] = String.Format(Resources.Strings.LogEventCreateMsg, row["event_details"]; break; ... The end result as displayed would resemble: Type Date and Time Details ==================================================================== [icon] 2010-05-04 20:49:58 Failed login attempt with username jsmith [icon] 2010-05-04 20:50:42 Successful login with username jsmith ... It seems wasteful to iterate the result set twice-- once as the table is filled by the adapter, and again to perform the replacements. I would really like to do the replacement on-the-fly in my LogDataTable class as it is being populated. I have tried overriding an OnRowChanging method in LogDataTable, which throws an InRowChangingEventException. protected override void OnRowChanging(DataRowChangeEventArgs e) { base.OnRowChanging(e); switch ((LogEventType)row["event_type"]) ... I have tried overriding an OnRowChanged method, which throws a StackOverflowException (I assume changing it re-triggers the method ad infinitum?). I have tried overriding an OnTableNewRow method, which does not throw an exception but appears not to be invoked (I assume only when a user adds a row in the view, which I've prevented). I'd greatly appreciate any assistance anyone can give me.

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  • Why do sockets not die when server dies? Why does a socket die when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • User has many computers, computers have many attributes in different tables, best way to JOIN?

    - by krismeld
    I have a table for users: USERS: ID | NAME | ---------------- 1 | JOHN | 2 | STEVE | a table for computers: COMPUTERS: ID | USER_ID | ------------------ 13 | 1 | 14 | 1 | a table for processors: PROCESSORS: ID | NAME | --------------------------- 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | and a table for harddrives: HARDDRIVES: ID | NAME | ---------------------------| 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 36 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 90 | Each computer can have many attributes from the different attributes tables (processors, harddrives etc), so I have intersection tables like this, to link the attributes to the computers: COMPUTER_PROCESSORS: C_ID | P_ID | --------------| 13 | 27 | 13 | 28 | 14 | 27 | COMPUTER_HARDDRIVES: C_ID | H_ID | --------------| 13 | 35 | So user JOHN, with id 1 owns computer 13 and 14. Computer 13 has processor 27 and 28, and computer 13 has harddrive 35. Computer 14 has processor 27 and no harddrive. Given a user's id, I would like to retrieve a list of that user's computers with each computers attributes. I have figured out a query that gives me a somewhat of a result: SELECT computers.id, processors.id AS p_id, processors.name AS p_name, harddrives.id AS h_id, harddrives.name AS h_name, FROM computers JOIN computer_processors ON (computer_processors.c_id = computers.id) JOIN processors ON (processors.id = computer_processors.p_id) JOIN computer_harddrives ON (computer_harddrives.c_id = computers.id) JOIN harddrives ON (harddrives.id = computer_harddrives.h_id) WHERE computers.user_id = 1 Result: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | But this has several problems... Computer 14 doesnt show up, because it has no harddrive. Can I somehow make an OUTER JOIN to make sure that all computers show up, even if there a some attributes they don't have? Computer 13 shows up twice, with the same harddrive listet for both. When more attributes are added to a computer (like 3 blocks of ram), the number of rows returned for that computer gets pretty big, and it makes it had to sort the result out in application code. Can I somehow make a query, that groups the two returned rows together? Or a query that returns NULL in the h_name column in the second row, so that all values returned are unique? EDIT: What I would like to return is something like this: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | NULL | 14 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | NULL | NULL | Or whatever result that make it easy to turn it into an array like this [13] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1 [1] => PROCESSOR TYPE 2 [H_NAME] => [0] => HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 [14] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1

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  • Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

    - by steve.tse
    I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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