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  • Output array of XML to plain XML

    - by danit
    I have a script which collects 4 URL's (XML) using CURL and returns an array with 4 items each ocntaining the results of the URL's. Here is the array: array(3) { [0]=> string(41772) "<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <statuses type="array"> <status> <created_at>Tue Mar 30 20:58:53 +0000 2010</created_at> <id>11328253513</id> <text>...</text> <source...</source> <truncated>false</truncated> <in_reply_to_status_id></in_reply_to_status_id> <in_reply_to_user_id></in_reply_to_user_id> <favorited>true</favorited> <in_reply_to_screen_name></in_reply_to_screen_name> <user> <id>1...</id> <name>....</name> </status> </statuses> " [1]=> string(20630) "<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <statuses type="array"> <status> <created_at>Sun Feb 28 14:12:30 +0000 2010</created_at> <id>...</id> <text>...</text> <source>&lt;a etc... How can I easily output the XML from the array? I also need to combine the 3 XML structures into one where begins and ends in between each array.

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  • SQL: select rows with the same order as IN clause

    - by Andrea3000
    I know that this question has been asked several times and I've read all the answer but none of them seem to completely solve my problem. I'm switching from a mySQL database to a MS Access database with MS SQL. In both of the case I use a php script to connect to the database and perform SQL queries. I need to find a suitable replacement for a query I used to perform on mySQL. I want to: perform a first query and order records alphabetically based on one of the columns construct a list of IDs which reflects the previous alphabetical order perform a second query with the IN clause applied with the IDs' list and ordered by this list. In mySQL I used to perform the last query this way: SELECT name FROM users WHERE id IN ($name_ids) ORDER BY FIND_IN_SET(id,'$name_ids') Since FIND_IN_SET is available only in mySQL and CHARINDEX and PATINDEX are not available from my php script, how can I achieve this? I know that I could write something like: SELECT name FROM users WHERE id IN ($name_ids) ORDER BY CASE id WHEN ... THEN 1 WHEN ... THEN 2 WHEN ... THEN 3 WHEN ... THEN 4 END but you have to consider that: IDs' list has variable length and elements because it depends on the first query that list can easily contains thousands of elements Have you got any hint on this? Is there a way to programmatically construct the ORDER BY CASE ... WHEN ... statement? Is there a better approach since my list of IDs can be big?

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  • Client calls .asmx, Server exposes WCF endpoint

    - by Lucas B
    We have a client that has been configured to connect to an asmx service. We don't want to ask our customers to update their configuration, but we would like to upgrade our service to use WCF. Does anyone know if WCF supports this? If so, what would the configuration file look like? Our asmx service looks like this: <bindings> <binding name="ATransactionSoap" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://.../atransaction.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="ATransactionSoap" contract="ATransactionSoap" name="ATransactionSoap" />

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  • Cloning input type file and set the value

    - by jribeiro
    I know that it isn't possible to set the value of an input type="file" for security reasons... My problem is: I needed to style an input type="file" so what I did was have a button and hide the file input. like: <a href="#" onclick="$('input[name=&quot;photo1&quot;]').click(); return false;" id="photo1-link"></a> <input type="file" name="photo1" class="fileInput jqtranformdone validate[required]" id="photo1" /> These works great in all browsers except IE which gives me an access denied error on submitting through ajax. I'm using the ajaxSubmit jquery plugin (malsup.com/jquery/form/) So after reading for a while I tried to do: var photo1Val = $('#photo1').val(); var clone1 = $('#photo1').clone().val(photo1Val); $('#photo1').remove(); clone1.appendTo('form'); console.log(photo1Val) //prints the right value C:/fakepath/blablabla.jpg $('form').ajaxSubmit(options); The problem is that after this the value of $('#photo1') is empty... Any ideas how to work around this? Thanks

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  • Unit test project doesn't recognize the classes it was generated from

    - by DougLeary
    I have a fairly simple file-system website consisting of one aspx page and several classes in separate .cs files. Everything is on my own HD. The web app itself builds and runs fine. Out of curiosity I decided to try out Visual Studio's nifty, easy-to-use unit test feature. So I opened each class file and clicked Create Unit Tests. VS generated a test project containing a set of test classes and some other files. Easy! But when I try to build or run the test project it throws a series of build errors, one for every class: The type or namespace name 'class-name' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?). Somebody asked if my test project has a reference to the original project. Well no, because the original project is a file-system website. It has no bin folder and no DLL, so there's nothing to reference as far as I can tell. I would think that since VS generated these unit tests it would generate whatever references it needs, but apparently not. Is generating unit tests for file-system web apps an undocumented no-no, or is there a magic trick to getting it to work?

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  • Advance: Parsing XML into another XML page using only javascript or jquery; Can't use PhP, Java or MySQL

    - by UrBestFriend
    Current site: http://cardwall.tk/ Example of intended outcome: http://www.shockwave.com/downloadWall.jsp I have an embeded flash object that uses XML/RSS (Picasa) to feed itself pictures. Now I created my own XML/RSS feed so that I can add additional XML tags and values. Now here's my big problem: enabling search. Since I'm not relying on Picasa's API anymore to return custom RSS/XML for the user's search, how can I create xml from another xml based on the user's search queries using only JavaScript and Jquery? Here is the current code: <script type="text/javascript"> var flashvars = { feed : "http%3A%2F%2Frssfeed.ucoz.com%2Frssfeed.xml", backgroundColor : "#FFFFFF", metadataFont : "Arial", wmode : "opaque", iFrameScrolling: "no", numRows : "3", }; var params = { allowFullScreen: "true", allowscriptaccess : "always", wmode: "opaque" }; swfobject.embedSWF("http://apps.cooliris.com/embed/cooliris.swf", "gamewall", "810", "410", "9.0.0", "", flashvars, params); $(document).ready(function() { $("#cooliris input").keydown(function(e) { if(e.keyCode == 13) { $("#cooliris a#searchCooliris").click(); return false; } }); doCoolIrisSearch = function() { cooliris.embed.setFeedContents( '** JAVA STRING OF PARSED RSS/XML based on http%3A%2F%2Frssfeed.ucoz.com%2Frssfeed.xml and USER'S SEARCH INPUT** ' ) }); <form id="searchForm" name="searchForm" class="shockwave"> <input type="text" name="coolIrisSearch" id="coolIrisSearch" value="Search..." class="field text short" onfocus="this.value='';" /> <a id="searchCooliris" href="#" onclick="doCoolIrisSearch();return false;" class="clearLink">Search Cooliris</a> </form> <div id="gamewall"></div> So basically, I want to replace cooliris.embed.setFeedContents's value with a Javastring based on the parsed RSS/XML and user search input. Any code or ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • window.open on load page (asp.net) using Method=POST

    - by Raul
    i need open pop up in asp.net using post Method and window.open to rezise te new windows. my code: ---- open the pop up --- function mdpbch(URL) { child = window.open(URL, "passwd","dependent=1,toolbar=0,location=0,directories=0,status=0,menubar=0,scrollbars=1,resizable=1,width=600,height=475"); child.location.href = URL; if (child.opener == null) { child.opener = window; } child.opener.name = "opener"; } -------- URL --- function PagoEnLinea(Banco) { switch(x){ case "BCH": document.frmEnvia.action = SERV + "/llamacom.asp"; url = SERV + "lamacom.asp alert(url); mdpbch(url); document.frmEnvia.submit(); break; } } -------ASPX-------------------- <body> <form id="frmEnvia" runat="server" name="formulario" method="post" target="_blank"> <div style="visibility:hidden;"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtXml" runat="server" Visible="true"></asp:TextBox> </div> ..... </body> on page load (code behind) i create a xml string and put it in the textbox txtXml. i need use post method becose the server validate te method, and window.open becose need customize the pop up thanks

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  • Submit form with POST data in Android app

    - by datguywhowanders
    I've been searching the web for a way to do this for about a week now, and I just can't seem to figure it out. I'm trying to implement an app that my college can use to allow users to log in to various services on the campus with ease. The way it works currently is they go to an online portal, select which service they want, fill in their user name and pwd, and click login. The form data is sent via post (it includes several hidden values as well as just the user name and pwd) to the corresponding login script which then signs them in and loads the service. I've been trying to come at the problem in two ways. I first tried a WebView, but it doesn't seem to want to support all of the html that normally makes this form work. I get all of the elements I need, fields for user and pwd as well as a login button, but clicking the button doesn't do anything. I wondered if I needed to add an onclick handler for it, but I can't see how as the button is implemented in the html of the webview not using a separate android element. The other possibility was using the xml widgets to create the form in a nice relative layout, which seems to load faster and looks better on the android screen. I used EditText fields for the input, a spinner widget for the service select, and the button widget for the login. I know how to make the onclick and item select handlers for the button and spinner, respectively, but I can't figure out how to send that data via POST in an intent that would then launch a browser. I can do an intent with the action url, but can't get the POST data to feed into it. Anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Using a Context Menu to delete from a SQLite database in Android

    - by LordSnoutimus
    Hi, I have created a list view that displays the names and dates of items stored in a SQLite database, now I want to use a Context Menu to modify these items stored in the database such as edit the name, delete, and view. This is the code for the list view: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.listview); SQLiteDatabase myDB = null; myDB = this.openOrCreateDatabase(MY_DB_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE, null); Cursor cur = myDB.rawQuery("SELECT _id, trackname, tracktime" + " FROM " + MY_DB_TABLE, null); ListAdapter adapter = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.listview, cur, new String[] { Constants.TRACK_NAME, Constants.TRACK_TIME}, new int[] { R.id.text1, R.id.text2}); ListView list = (ListView)findViewById(R.id.list); list.setAdapter(adapter); registerForContextMenu(list); } and the Context Menu... public void onCreateContextMenu(ContextMenu menu, View v, ContextMenuInfo menuInfo) { super.onCreateContextMenu(menu, v, menuInfo); menu.setHeaderTitle("Track Options"); menu.add(0, CHANGE_NAME, 0, "Change name"); menu.add(0, VIEW_TRACK, 0, "View track"); menu.add(0, SEND_TRACK, 0, "Send track"); menu.add(0, DELETE_TRACK, 0, "Delete track"); } I have used a Switch statement to control the menu items.. public boolean onContextItemSelected(MenuItem item) { switch (item.getItemId()){ case CHANGE_NAME: changename(); return true; case DELETE_TRACK: deletetrack(); return true; default: return super.onContextItemSelected(item); } So how would I go ahead and map the deletetrack(); method to find the ID of the track stored in the database to the item that has been selected in the list view?

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  • Maven Java Source Code Generation for Hibernate

    - by Adam
    Hi, I´m busy converting an existing project from an Ant build to one using Maven. Part of this build includes using the hibernate hbm2java tool to convert a collection of .hbm.xml files into Java. Here's a snippet of the Ant script used to do this: <target name="dbcodegen" depends="cleangen" description="Generate Java source from Hibernate XML"> <hibernatetool destdir="${src.generated}"> <configuration> <fileset dir="${src.config}"> <include name="**/*.hbm.xml"/> </fileset> </configuration> <hbm2java jdk5="true"/> </hibernatetool> </target> I've had a look around on the internet and some people seem to do this (I think) using Ant within Maven and others with the Maven plugin. I'd prefer to avoid mixing Ant and Maven. Can anyone suggest a way to do this so that all of the .hbm.xml files are picked up and the code generation takes place as part of the Maven code generation build phase? Thanks! Adam.

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  • Is it possible to create a python iterator over pre-defined mutable data?

    - by Wilduck
    I might be doing this wrong, if I am, let me know, but I'm curious if the following is possible: I have a class that holds a number of dictionaries, each of which pairs names to a different set of objects of a given class. For example: items = {"ball" : ItemInstance1, "sword" : ItemInstance2} people = {"Jerry" : PersonInstance1, "Bob" : PersonInstance2, "Jill" : PersonInstance3} My class would then hold the current items and people that are availible, and these would be subject to change as the state changes: Class State: def __init__(self, items, people): self.items = items self.people = people I would like to define a iter() and next() method such that it iterates through all of the values in its attributes. My first question is whether or not this is possible. If it is, will it be able to support a situation as follows: I define items and people as above then: state = State(items, people) for names, thing in state: print name + " is " + thing.color items[cheese] = ItemInstance3 for names, thing in state: print name + " weighs " + thing.weight While I feel like this would be usefull in the code I have, I don't know if it's either possible or the right approach. Everything I've read about user defined iterators has suggested that each instance of them is one use only.

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  • Duplicate C# web service proxy classes generated for Java types

    - by Sergey
    My question is about integration between a Java web service and a C# .NET client. Service: CXF 2.2.3 with Aegis databinding Client: C#, .NET 3.5 SP1 For some reason Visual Studio generates two C# proxy enums for each Java enum. The generated C# classes do not compile. For example, this Java enum: public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE; } Produces this WSDL: <xsd:simpleType name="SqlDialect"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="GENERIC" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SYBASE" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SQL_SERVER" /> <xsd:enumeration value="ORACLE" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> For this WSDL Visual Studio generates two partial C# classes (generated comments removed): [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="SqlDialect", Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect : int { [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] GENERIC = 0, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SYBASE = 1, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SQL_SERVER = 2, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] ORACLE = 3, } [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE, } The resulting C# code does not compile: The namespace 'somenamespace' already contains a definition for 'SqlDialect' I will appreciate any ideas...

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  • Why isn't the Cache invalidated after table update using the SqlCacheDependency?

    - by Jason
    I have been trying to get SqlCacheDependency working. I think I have everything set up correctly, but when I update the table, the item in the Cache isn't invalidated. Can you look at my code and see if I am missing anything? I enabled the Service Broker for the Sandbox database. I have placed the following code in the Global.asax file. I also restart IIS to make sure it is called. void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlDependency.Start(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString); } I have placed this entry in the web.config file: <system.web> <caching> <sqlCacheDependency enabled="true" pollTime="10000"> <databases> <add name="Sandbox" connectionStringName="SandboxConnectionString"/> </databases> </sqlCacheDependency> </caching> </system.web> I call this code to put the item into the cache: protected void CacheDataSetButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand sqlCommand = new SqlCommand("SELECT PetID, Name, Breed, Age, Sex, Fixed, Microchipped FROM dbo.Pets", sqlConnection)) { using (SqlDataAdapter sqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCommand)) { DataSet petsDataSet = new DataSet(); sqlDataAdapter.Fill(petsDataSet, "Pets"); SqlCacheDependency petsSqlCacheDependency = new SqlCacheDependency(sqlCommand); Cache.Insert("Pets", petsDataSet, petsSqlCacheDependency, DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(10), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); } } } } Then I bind the GridView with this code: protected void BindGridViewButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache["Pets"] != null) { GridView1.DataSource = Cache["Pets"] as DataSet; GridView1.DataBind(); } } Between attempts to DataBind the GridView, I change the table's values expecting it to invalidate the Cache["Pets"] item, but it seems to stay in the Cache indefinitely.

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  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • Java getInputStream 400 errors

    - by Bill Szerdy
    When I contact a web service using a Java HttpUrlConnection it just returns a 400 Bad Request (IOException). How do I get the XML information that the server is returning; it does not appear to be in the getErrorStream of the connection nor is it in any of the exception information. When I run the following PHP code against a web service: <?php $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "https://www.myclientaddress.com/here/" ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1 ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST,1 ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,"username=ted&password=scheckler&type=consumer&id=123456789&zip=12345"); $result=curl_exec ($ch); echo $result; ?> it returns the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <response> <status>failure</status> <errors> <error name="RES_ZIP">Zip code is not valid.</error> <error name="ZIP">Invalid zip code for residence address.</error> </errors> </response> so I know the information exists

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  • Removing HttpModule for specific path in ASP.NET / IIS 7 application?

    - by soccerdad
    Most succinctly, my question is whether an ASP.NET 4.0 app running under IIS 7 integrated mode should be able to honor this portion of my Web.config file: <location path="auth/windows"> <system.webServer> <modules> <remove name="FormsAuthentication"/> </modules> </system.webServer> </location> I'm experimenting with mixed mode authentication (Windows and Forms - I know there are other questions on S.O. about the topic). Using IIS Manager, I've disabled Anonymous authentication to auth/windows/winauth.aspx, which is within the location path above. I have Failed Request Tracing set up to trace various HTTP status codes, including 302s. When I request the winauth.aspx page, a 302 HTTP status code is returned. If I look at the request trace, I can see that a 401 (unauthorized) was originally generated by the AnonymousAuthenticationModule. However, the FormsAuthenticationModule converts that to a 302, which is what the browser sees. So it seems as though my attempt to remove that module from the pipeline for pages in that path isn't working. But I'm not seeing any complaints anywhere (event viewer, yellow pages of death, etc.) that would indicate it's an invalid configuration. I want the 401 returned to the browser, which presumably would include an appropriate WWW-Authenticate header. A couple of other points: a) I do have <authentication mode="Forms"> in my Web.config, and that is what the 302 redirects to; b) I got the "name" of the module I'm trying to remove from the inetserv\config\applicationHost.config file. Anyone had any luck removing modules in this fashion? Thanks much, Donnie

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  • regular expression code

    - by Gaia Andreoletti
    Deal all, I need to find match between two tab delimited files files like this: File 1: ID1 1 65383896 65383896 G C PCNXL3 ID1 2 56788990 55678900 T A ACT1 ID1 1 56788990 55678900 T A PRO55 File 2 ID2 34 65383896 65383896 G C MET5 ID2 2 56788990 55678900 T A ACT1 ID2 2 56788990 55678900 T A HLA what I would like to do is to retrive the matching line between the two file. What I would like to match is everyting after the gene ID So far I have written this code but unfortunately perl keeps giving me the error: use of "Use of uninitialized value in pattern match (m//)" Could you please help me figure out where i am doing it wrong? Thank you in advance! use strict; open (INA, $ARGV[0]) || die "cannot to open gene file"; open (INB, $ARGV[1]) || die "cannot to open coding_annotated.var files"; my @sample1 = <INA>; my @sample2 = <INB>; foreach my $line (@sample1) { my @tab = split (/\t/, $line); my $chr = $tab[1]; my $start = $tab[2]; my $end = $tab[3]; my $ref = $tab[4]; my $alt = $tab[5]; my $name = $tab[6]; foreach my $item (@sample2){ my @fields = split (/\t/,$item); if ($fields[1]=~ m/$chr(.*)/ && $fields[2]=~ m/$start(.*)/ && $fields[4]=~ m/$ref(.*)/ && $fields[5]=~ m/$alt(.*)/&& $fields[6]=~ m/$name(.*)/){ print $line,"\n",$item; } } }

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  • Form submit capture into database not working

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I have a form that has two buttons on it, one yes, one no, and at the moment I capture the clicked button into a database, but for some reason, it doesn't always capture the clicked button, I have gone through all my code and everything seems fine, here is the form <div id="mid_prompt"> <form action="refer.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="yes" /></span> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" onsubmit="return submit_form()" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" name="refer" value="no" /></span> </div> </form> </div> I am using sessions to carry the variables all the way to the end of the forms where I then write all the data to a database, I have checked my sessions and they seem to be working fine, the only one that is giving problems is the yes/no. So basically I need it to capture that yes/no everytime. Thanx in advance!

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  • JSP: Refresh ComboBox options

    - by framara
    Hi, There's a class 'Car' with brand and model as properties. I have a list of items of this class List<Car> myCars. I need to represent in a JSP website 2 ComboBox, one for brand and another for model, that when you select the brand, in the model list only appear the ones from that brand. I don't know how to do this in a dynamic way. Any suggestion where to start? Thanks Update Ok, what I do now is send in the request a list with all the brand names, and a list of the items. The JSP code is like: <select name="manufacturer" id="id_manufacturer" onchange="return getManufacturer();"> <option value=""></option> <c:forEach items="${manufacturers}" var="man"> <option value="${man}" >${man}</option> </c:forEach> </select> <select name="model" id="id_model"> <c:forEach items="${mycars}" var="car"> <c:if test="${car.manufacturer eq man_selected}"> <option value="${car.id}">${car.model}</option> </c:if> </c:forEach> </select> <script> function getManufacturer() { man_selected = document.getElementById('id_manufacturer').value; } </script> How do I do to refresh the 'model' select options according to the selected 'man_selected' ?

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  • Sharepoint user details not visible to other users

    - by richardoz
    I am managing a SharePoint site that uses Form Based Authentication. We have several generic lists, document libraries and active task lists that users can create update and delete. Users can use the people pickers to select/search for everyone. But the users cannot see other users names, email addresses etc. in display lists or the people pickers. If I log in as the site collection administrator, I can see everyones details. So I know the data is available. Updated details on this problem (non-administrators) SharePoint users cannot see other users information. Example: User A assigns a task to user B. User A creates a new task and uses the people picker to find user B. User B is only visible by the login name “bname” and any information about user B is not visible or searchable within the people picker. Once user B is assigned the task, user A no longer sees the name in the task list – even though user A created it. No modified by, created by, assigned to or owner field data is visible to non-administrator users. Facts: Extranet site is configured to use Forms Based Authentication. Intranet uses windows based authentication Users of both the intranet and extranet have the same problem All databases are local The site uses SSRS integration SharePoint WSS on Windows 2003 Std -- After activating the verbose logging it looks like SharePoint is definately asking SQL server for only the user info for the currently logged in user: SELECT TOP 6 /lots-of-columns/ FROM UserData INNER MERGE JOIN Docs AS t1 ON ( 1 = 1 AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t1.SiteId = UserData.tp_SiteId AND t1.SiteId = @L2 AND t1.DirName = UserData.tp_DirName AND t1.LeafName = UserData.tp_LeafName AND t1.Level = UserData.tp_Level AND t1.IsCurrentVersion = 1 AND (1 = 1) ) LEFT OUTER JOIN AllUserData AS t2 ON ( UserData.[tp_Author]=t2.[tp_ID] AND UserData.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND t2.[tp_RowOrdinal] = 0 AND ( (t2.tp_IsCurrent = 1) ) AND t2.[tp_CalculatedVersion] = 0 AND t2.[tp_DeleteTransactionId] = 0x AND t2.tp_ListId = @L3 AND UserData.tp_ListId = @L4 AND t2.[tp_Author]=162 /* this is the currently logged in user */ ) WHERE (UserData.tp_IsCurrent = 1) AND UserData.tp_SiteId=@L2 AND (UserData.tp_DirName=@DN) AND UserData.tp_RowOrdinal=0 AND ( ( (UserData.[datetime1] IS NULL ) OR (UserData.[datetime1] = @L5DTP) ) AND t1.SiteId=@L2 AND (t1.DirName=@DN) ) ORDER BY UserData.[tp_Modified] Desc, UserData.[tp_ID] Asc Again, any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • How to pass data from selected rows using checkboxes from JSP to the server

    - by eddy
    Hi, I'd like to know if there's any way to send data to the server for the selected rows using the checkboxes I've put on those rows? I mean , how can I send only the data (in this case mileage ) of those selected rows (selected with the checkboxes) to the server ? see the image Here's the html code I use: <table> <thead> <tr class="tableheader"> <td width="10%"></td> <td width="30%">Vehicle</td> <td width="40%">Driver</td> <td width="10%">Mileage</td> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <c:forEach items="${list}" var="item"> <tr> <td align="center"> <input type="checkbox" name="selectedItems" value="c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/>"/> </td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.numberPlate}"/></td> <td align="left"><c:out value="${item.driver.fullName}" /></td> <td align="left"><input type="text" name="mileage" value="" /></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </tbody> </table> I really hope you can give some guidance on this. Thanks in beforehand.

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  • Lost Array After Validation Error

    - by Georges Kmeid
    I'm working on a CakePHP project and I have User, Post and Location models among others. User hasMany Location and Post belongsTo User so Location is not directly related to Post. This is my code in the Post controller: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('get')) { $this->loadModel('Location'); $this->set('locations', $this->Location->find('all', array('conditions' => array('user_id' => $this->Auth->user('id'))))); } ... } And this is my code in the posts/add view: <?php $i = 0; $j = 0; foreach ($locations as $location): $location_names[$i] = $location['Location']['name']; $i++; endforeach; echo "<select name=\"location\" onchange=\"select(this.value)\">"; echo "<option value=\"\">Select a saved location</option>"; foreach ($locations as $location): echo "<option value=\"" . $location['Location']['latitude'] . "," . $location['Location']['longitude'] . "\">" . $location_names[$j] . "</option>"; $j++; endforeach; ?> </select> If I enter a wrong value in one of the post inputs that has a validation rule in Post model, it redirects to the current add view, shows what is the validation error, but then the $locations array passed from controller to view disappears and can't use it in view and I get this error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: locations [APP\View\Posts\add.ctp, line 68]

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  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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  • How do I create Variables in XSLT that are not document fragments?

    - by chiborg
    Consider the following XSLT template <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="var1"> <elem>1</elem> <elem>2</elem> <elem>3</elem> </xsl:variable> <xsl:text>var1 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var1)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> <xsl:variable name="var2" select="$var1/elem[. != '2']"/> <xsl:text>var2 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var2)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> </xsl:template> The output of this template is var1 has 1 elements var2 has 2 elements The first line outputs 1 (and not, as I first expected 3) because var1 is a document fragment that contains the <elem> elements as childen. Now for my questions: How can I create a variable that does not contain a document fragment? I could do it like I did with var2, only leaving out the predicate. But maybe there is a way without using a second variable. Or, as an alternative: How can I preserve the document fragment in a variable while filtering out some elements?

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  • PHP JQuery: Where to specify uploadify destination folder

    - by Eamonn
    I have an uploadify script running, basic setup. Works fine when I hard code the destination folder for the images into uploadify.php - now I want to make that folder dynamic. How do I do this? I have a PHP variable $uploadify_path which contains the path to the folder I want. I have switched out my hard coded $targetPath = path/to/directory for $targetPath = $uploadify_path in both uploadify.php and check_exists.php, but it does not work. The file upload animation runs, says it is complete, yet the directory remains empty. The file is not hiding out somewhere else either. I see there is an option in the Javascript to specify a folder. I tried this also, but to no avail. If anyone could educate me on how to pass this variable destination to uploadify, I'd be very grateful. I include my current code for checking (basically default): The Javascript <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#file_upload').uploadify({ 'swf' : 'uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'uploader' : 'uploadify/uploadify.php', // Put your options here }); }); </script> uploadify.php $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $uploadify_path; // Relative to the root if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetFile = $targetPath . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // Validate the file type $fileTypes = array('jpg','jpeg','gif','png'); // File extensions $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$fileTypes)) { move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo '1'; } else { echo 'Invalid file type.'; } }

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