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  • C macro issue: redefinition of functions / structure

    - by Andrei Ciobanu
    Given the following code (it's a macro that generates code for a list data structure, based on the contained type). list.h #ifndef _LIST_H #define _LIST_H #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif #define LIST_TEMPLATE_INIT(type) \ typedef struct __list_s_##type { \ struct __list_s_##type *next; \ type value; \ } __list_##type; \ \ __list_##type * __list_##type##_malloc(type value){ \ __list_##type * list = NULL; \ list = malloc(sizeof(*list)); \ list->value = value; \ return list; \ }\ \ void __list_##type##_free(__list_##type *list){\ __list_##type * back = list;\ while(list=list->next){\ free(back);\ back = list;\ }\ } #define LIST_TYPE(type) __list_##type #define LIST_MALLOC(type,value) __list_##type##_malloc(value) #define LIST_FREE(type,list) __list_##type##_free(list) #define LIST_DATA(list) (list->value) #ifdef __cplusplus } #endif #endif /* _LIST_H */ And here is how the above code works: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include "list.h" /* * */ LIST_TEMPLATE_INIT(int) int main(int argc, char** argv) { LIST_TYPE(int)* list = NULL; list = LIST_MALLOC(int, 5); printf("%d",LIST_DATA(list)); LIST_FREE(int,list); return (0); } My question, is it possible to somehow be able to call : LIST_TEMPLATE_INIT(int), as many times as I want, in a decentralized fashion ? The current issue with this right now is that calling LIST_TEMPLATE_INIT(int) in another file raise compilation errors (because of function redefinition): Example of error: error: redefinition of ‘struct __list_s_int’

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  • accessing values in two dimensional arrays

    - by BrainLikeADullPencil
    In some code I'm trying to learn from, the Maze string below is turned into an array (code not shown for that) and saved in the instance variable @maze. The starting point of the Maze is represented by the letter 'A' in that Maze, which can be accessed at @maze[1][13]---row 1, column 13. However, the code I'm looking at uses @maze[1][13,1] to get the A, which you can see returns the same result in my console. If I do @maze[1][13,2], it returns the letter "A " with two blank spaces next to it, and so on. [13,3] returns "A " with three blank spaces. Does the 2 in [13,2] mean, "return two values starting at [1][13]? If so, why? Is this some feature of arrays or two dimensional arrays that I don't get? [20] pry(#<Maze>):1> @maze[1][13] => "A" [17] pry(#<Maze>):1> @maze[1][13,1] => "A" [18] pry(#<Maze>):1> @maze[1][13,2] => "A " [19] pry(#<Maze>):1> @maze[1][13,3] => "A " Maze String MAZE1 = %{##################################### # # # #A # # # # # # # # # ####### # ### # ####### # # # # # # # # # # # ##### # ################# # ####### # # # # # # # # # ##### ##### ### ### # ### # # # # # # # # # # # # B# # # # # # # # ##### ##### # # ### # # ####### # # # # # # # # # # # # # # ### ### # # # # ##### # # # ##### # # # # # # # # #####################################}

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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • if a JAR is placed on app servers's classpath how do we reference it from JSP

    - by Omnipresent
    On our application we are getting an error saying: PWC6117: File "/struts-tags" not found code in the file thats giving error is: <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> This file is in struts2-core.jar which is placed on the classpath of the app server (Sun 9.1). The code will work fine and not complain when the jar is actually in WEB-INF/lib of the application, compared to being on classpath of the appserver. But we can not change that. it has to be on appservers classpath. But how should we change our code so that this error goes away? I can create mapping in my web.xml so that tag uri's are change. but what should taglib-location be changed to? so that it references to app servers classpath? <taglib> <taglib-uri>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-uri> <taglib-location>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-location> </taglib>

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  • Executing sc.exe from .NET Process unable to start and stop service.

    - by Jason
    I'm trying to restart the service from a remote machine. Here is my code. The problem is that I need to enter startinfo.filename = "sc.exe" since I'm putting "start /wait sc" this is causing an error. Here is my code, any thoughts. Also if anyone has any idea how to keep the cmd window open after this is ran so I could see the code that was ran that would be awesome. string strCommandStop1; string strCommandStop2; string strCommandStart1; string strCommandStart2; string strServer = "\\" + txtServerName.Text; string strDb1 = "SqlAgent$" + txtInsName.Text; string strDb2 = "MSSQL$" + txtInsName.Text; strCommandStop1 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Stop " + strDb1; strCommandStop2 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Stop " + strDb2; strCommandStart1 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Start " + strDb2; strCommandStart2 = @"start /wait sc " + strServer + " Start " + strDb1; try { ProcessStartInfo startInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); startInfo.CreateNoWindow = true; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStop1; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStop2; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStart1; startInfo.Arguments = strCommandStart2; startInfo .FileName = "sc.exe"; Process.Start(startInfo); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.Message); }

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  • Why won't the following PDO transaction won't work in PHP?

    - by jfizz
    I am using PHP version 5.4.4, and a MySQL database using InnoDB. I had been using PDO for awhile without utilizing transactions, and everything was working flawlessly. Then, I decided to try to implement transactions, and I keep getting Internal Server Error 500. The following code worked for me (doesn't contain transactions). try { $DB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=database', 'root', 'root'); $DB->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); $dbh = $DB->prepare("SELECT * FROM user WHERE username = :test"); $dbh->bindValue(':test', $test, PDO::PARAM_STR); $dbh->execute(); } catch(Exception $e){ $dbh->rollback(); echo "an error has occured"; } Then I attempted to utilize transactions with the following code (which doesn't work). try { $DB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=database', 'root', 'root'); $DB->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); $dbh = $DB->beginTransaction(); $dbh->prepare("SELECT * FROM user WHERE username = :test"); $dbh->bindValue(':test', $test, PDO::PARAM_STR); $dbh->execute(); $dbh->commit(); } catch(Exception $e){ $dbh->rollback(); echo "an error has occured"; } When I run the previous code, I get an Internal Server Error 500. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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  • Why is my view controllers view not quadratic?

    - by mystify
    I created an UIViewController subclass, and figured out that the default implementation of -loadView in UIViewController will ignore my frame size settings in a strange way. To simplify it and to make sure it's really not the fault of my code, I did a clean test with a plain instance of UIViewController directly, rather than making a subclass. The result is the same. I try to make an exactly quadratic view of 320 x 320, but the view appears like 320 x 200. iPhone OS 3.0, please check this out: UIViewController *ts = [[UIViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; ts.view.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f); ts.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; [self.view addSubview:ts.view]; like you can see, I do this: 1) Create a UIViewController instance 2) Set the frame of the view to a quadratic dimension of 320 x 320 3) Give it a color, so I can see it 4) Added it as a subview. Now the part, that's even more strange: When I make my own implementation of -loadView, i.e. if I put this code in there like this: - (void)loadView { UIView *v = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f)]; v.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; self.view = v; [v release]; } then it looks right. Now lets think about that: In the first example, I do pretty much exactly the same, just that I let UIViewController create the view on it's own, and then take it over in order to change it's frame. Right? So why do I get this strange error? Right now I see no other way of messing around like that to correct this wrong behavior. I did not activate anything like clipsToBounds and there's no other code touching this.

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  • "Address of" (&) an array / address of being ignored be gcc?

    - by dbarbosa
    Hi, I am a teaching assistant of a introductory programming course, and some students made this type of error: char name[20]; scanf("%s",&name); which is not surprising as they are learning... What is surprising is that, besides gcc warning, the code works (at least this part). I have been trying to understand and I wrote the following code: void foo(int *str1, int *str2) { if (str1 == str2) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } int main() { int test[50]; foo(&test, test); if (&test == test) printf("Both pointers are the same\n"); else printf("They are not the same\n"); } Compiling and executing: $ gcc test.c -g test.c: In function ‘main’: test.c:12: warning: passing argument 1 of ‘foo’ from incompatible pointer type test.c:13: warning: comparison of distinct pointer types lacks a cast $ ./a.out Both pointers are the same Both pointers are the same Can anyone explain why they are not different? I suspect it is because I cannot get the address of an array (as I cannot have & &x), but in this case the code should not compile.

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  • PHP & MySQL Pagination Update Help

    - by TaG
    Its been a while since I updated my pagination on my web page and I'm trying to add First and Last Links to my pagination as well as the ... when the search results are to long. For example I'm trying to achieve the following in the example below. Can some one help me fix my code so I can update my site. Thanks Previous First 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 ... 199 200 Last Next I currently have the following displayed using my code. Previous 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Next Here is the part of my pagination code that displays the links. if ($pages > 1) { echo '<br /><p>'; $current_page = ($start/$display) + 1; if ($current_page != 1) { echo '<a href="index.php?s=' . ($start - $display) . '&p=' . $pages . '">Previous</a> '; } for ($i = 1; $i <= $pages; $i++) { if ($i != $current_page) { echo '<a href="index.php?s=' . (($display * ($i - 1))) . '&p=' . $pages . '">' . $i . '</a> '; } else { echo '<span>' . $i . '</span> '; } } if ($current_page != $pages) { echo '<a href="index.php?s=' . ($start + $display) . '&p=' . $pages . '">Next</a>'; } echo '</p>'; }

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  • Java Equivalent of C++ .dll?

    - by Matt D
    So, I've been programming for a while now, but since I haven't worked on many larger, modular projects, I haven't come across this issue before. I know what a .dll is in C++, and how they are used. But every time I've seen similar things in Java, they've always been packaged with source code. For instance, what would I do if I wanted to give a Java library to someone else, but not expose the source code? Instead of the source, I would just give a library as well as a Javadoc, or something along those lines, with the public methods/functions, to another programmer who could then implement them in their own Java code. For instance, if I wanted to create a SAX parser that could be "borrowed" by another programmer, but (for some reason--can't think of one in this specific example lol) I don't want to expose my source. Maybe there's a login involved that I don't want exploited--I don't know. But what would be the Java way of doing this? With C++, .dll files make it much easier, but I have never run into a Java equivalent so far. (I'm pretty new to Java, and a pretty new "real-world" programmer, in general as well)

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  • WCF - Return object without serializing?

    - by Mayo
    One of my WCF functions returns an object that has a member variable of a type from another library that is beyond my control. I cannot decorate that library's classes. In fact, I cannot even use DataContractSurrogate because the library's classes have private member variables that are essential to operation (i.e. if I return the object without those private member variables, the public properties throw exceptions). If I say that interoperability for this particular method is not needed (at least until the owners of this library can revise to make their objects serializable), is it possible for me to use WCF to return this object such that it can at least be consumed by a .NET client? How do I go about doing that? Update: I am adding pseudo code below... // My code, I have control [DataContract] public class MyObject { private TheirObject theirObject; [DataMember] public int SomeNumber { get { return theirObject.SomeNumber; } // public property exposed private set { } } } // Their code, I have no control public class TheirObject { private TheirOtherObject theirOtherObject; public int SomeNumber { get { return theirOtherObject.SomeOtherProperty; } set { // ... } } } I've tried adding DataMember to my instance of their object, making it public, using a DataContractSurrogate, and even manually streaming the object. In all cases, I get some error that eventually leads back to their object not being explicitly serializable.

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  • Persistent Objects in ASP.NET

    - by user204588
    Hello, I'm trying to find the best way to persist an object or in use the same object at a later point in the code. So, I create an object, then you're redirected to another page(a form) that needs to use variables from that object. That form is submitted to a third party and there is stuff done on their end and then they request a page on my application that runs some more code and needs the objects variables again. I thought about Database but this is all done at once. This is done during a user checkout process and after it's over, there's no reason to retrieve this object again. So adding and retrieving from a database seems like it would be overkill and I think it would make the process slower. Right now I'm using Session but I keep hearing not to use that but no one is really saying why I shouldn't except it is bad practice. I can't really use post back values because the pages don't work that way. The checkout process starts off in a dll code that redirects to the form that is submitted to the third party and the a page is requested by the third party. So, I'm not really sure of the best way. What are all the options and what does everyone recommend as the best way?

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  • Java giving incorrect year values

    - by whistler
    Something very, very strange is occurring in my program, and I'm wondering if anyone out there has seen this occur before. And, if so, how to fix it. Basically, I am parsing an csv file...no problem there. One column contains a date and I am taking it in as a String and changing to a Date object. Again, no problem there. The code is as follows: SimpleDateFormat dateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yy hh:mm"); Date initialDate = new Date(); try { initialDate = dateFormat.parse(rows.get(0)[8]); System.out.println(initialDate); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Of course, I'm parsing other columns as well (and those are working fine). So, when I run my program for a small csv file (2.8 MB), the dates come out (i.e. are parsed) perfectly. However, when I run the program for a large csv file (25 MB), the dates are a hot mess. For example, take a look at the year values I am getting (the following is just a tiny portion of the println output from the code above): 1000264 at Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 1000320 at Sat Mar 04 17:30:00 EST 2169 1000347 at Sat Apr 01 09:45:00 EDT 2169 1000413 at Tue Jul 09 13:00:00 EDT 2182 1000638 at Fri Dec 11 13:45:00 EST 2167 1000667 at Wed Dec 10 10:00:00 EST 2188 1000690 at Mon Jan 02 13:00:00 EST 2169 1000843 at Thu Feb 11 13:30:00 EST 2196 In actuality, the years are in the realm of 1990-2006 or so. Again, this does not happen with the small csv file. Does anyone know what's going on here and how I can fix it? I need to process the large csv file (the small one was just for testing purposes). By request, here are the actual dates in the csv file and after that the value given by the code above: 5/20/03 15:30 5/20/03 15:30 8/30/04 9:00 8/30/04 9:00 12/20/04 10:30 12/20/04 10:30 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Sun Nov 05 15:30:00 EST 2186 Thu Dec 08 09:00:00 EST 2196 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186 Tue Dec 12 10:30:00 EST 2186

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  • JSONP not firing on IPad

    - by Gemtag
    After trying everything possible I've come to the conclusion this is an issue with IPad Safari. This works in FF, IE, Chrome, and Safari on MacBook. Below is my dumbed-down code. I have 2 separate JSONP calls, This first one works in all browsers including IPad. This simply calls a function based on a blur event $('#gender').blur(function() { reTarget(); }); function reTarget() { $.getJSON("http://host.com/Jsonpgm?jsoncallback=?", function() { } ); } Below is where things break. On the same page as the above code is the following, which calls a function based on a submit button click. $(':submit').bind('click', function(event) { if (checkThis() == false) { return false; }; }); $('form').bind('submit', function(event) { if (checkThis() == false) { return false; }; }); function checkThis() { $.getJSON("http://host.com/Jsonpgm.aspx?jsoncallback=?", function() { } ); } This code will not fire. I've put alerts right before it and they fire. I look at the web logs and there is no entry for this json call. I would take any suggestions on this. At this point I fear it's a problem with firing jsonp from a submit event.

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  • Adobe Air, packaged install fails with my trace routine... how come?

    - by artie scie
    I cobbled together some code from here and there for a trace I like... it generates an error to get a stack trace and picks out the traced routine name, I like that detail in the trace log. Problem: it fails in an installed AIR file. I wonder why? I don't expect it to do anything as is... just, I'd prefer it not cause the program to fail! tx artie enter code here static public function XTRACE( ... traceArgs ):void { try { throw new Error(); // make a stack } catch (e:Error) { var stack:String = e.getStackTrace(); var frames:Array = stack.split("\n"); var myFrame:String = String(frames[2]); myFrame = myFrame.replace("\t", ""); // "at " can be followed by some part of the package // you don't want to see. E.g., if your code is all in // com.foo.bar, you can put "at com.foo.bar." so as not // to crowd the display myFrame = myFrame.substr("at ".length); myFrame = myFrame.substring(0, myFrame.indexOf("[")); var now:Date = new Date(); trace(new Date().toLocaleTimeString() + ":" + myFrame + ": " + traceArgs.join(" ")); } }

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  • Runtime Error: "Out of Memory" From Excel Macro

    - by user356180
    I have one macro, which is called when a cell change occurs. This macro selects images, deletes them, and inserts another image depending on a cell value using the following code. I have the same code for two sheets. Private Sub Worksheet_SelectionChange(ByVal Target As Range) ActiveSheet.Shapes.SelectAll Selection.Delete 'insert image code here. End Sub In one sheet, it's working perfectly fine and deletes all images, while in the other sheet, it gives me the runtime error "Out of Memory" and highlights the following line: ActiveSheet.Shapes.SelectAll Can anyone tell me why this is happening? It works perfectly fine in one and not in the other. One other thing I want to tell you is it was working fine when I gave this Excel macro to my client; both sheets were working fine. Suddenly after 2 days, he started getting the error on one sheet on which he was working a lot. I don't know why this is happening. Can anyone tell me what's the reason for this and how I can solve it?

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  • TDD approach for complex function

    - by jamie
    I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

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  • C++, overloading std::swap, compiler error, VS 2010

    - by Ian
    I would like to overload std::swap in my template class. In the following code (simplified) #ifndef Point2D_H #define Point2D_H template <class T> class Point2D { protected: T x; T y; public: Point2D () : x ( 0 ), y ( 0 ) {} Point2D( const T &x_, const T &y_ ) : x ( x_ ), y ( y_ ) {} .... public: void swap ( Point2D <T> &p ); }; template <class T> inline void swap ( Point2D <T> &p1, Point2D <T> &p2 ) { p1.swap ( p2 ); } namespace std { template <class T> inline void swap ( Point2D <T> &p1, Point2D <T> &p2 ) { p1.swap ( p2 ); } } template <class T> void Point2D <T>::swap ( Point2D <T> &p ) { using (std::swap); swap ( x, p.x ); swap ( y, p.y ); } #endif there is a compiler error (only in VS 2010): error C2668: 'std::swap' : ambiguous call to overloaded I do not know why, std::swap should be overoaded... Using g ++ code works perfectly. Without templates (i.e. Point2D is not a template class) this code also works.. Thanks for your help.

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  • Where to turn upon realizing I can't program my way out of a paper bag?

    - by luminarious
    I have no job and just enough money to get by until April or so. While looking for work, I figured I might as well go through with a pet project, a browser based card game. Make it nice and free, collect donations and maybe earn enough for a movie ticket to escape reality for a while. I have dabbled in web development a bit. I can make simple stuff happen with JS/PHP if I follow tutorials. I designed my own art blog's template - http://luminarious.tumblr.com. I can visualise the game working in my head, flowcharts and everything. But then I tried to go deeper with Javascript and almost had an aneurysm before understanding what a closure is. Wether I suck at learning, have ADD or fail epically at productivity, I have not got much done. Coming up with ideas, screen mock-ups and so forth was very enjoyable, but actual implementation.. not so much. In fact, I cry a bit every time I think about the time someone competent could have finished this in. I'd like to excuse myself with my ENTP personality type, but that hardly solves anything. Rather, I'd like to know to get from A (bunch of ideas with little semblance to a web app) to B (something to proudly show others) while being unable to pay anyone? Are there any secret techniques for learning? Is there any way to get mentoring or code review? Is there anyone with too much free time willing to code for me? How to trust someone to not steal my code when I ask for assistance? Is there anything I should have asked instead of any of those?

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  • jQuery plugin design pattern for using `this` in private methods?

    - by thebossman
    I'm creating jQuery plugins using the pattern from the Plugins Authoring page: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { // element-specific code here }); return this; }; })(jQuery); My code calls for several private methods that manipulate this. I am calling these private methods using the apply(this, arguments) pattern. Is there a way of designing my plugin such that I don't have to call apply to pass this from method to method? My modified plugin code looks roughly like this: (function($) { $.fn.myPlugin = function(settings) { var config = {'foo': 'bar'}; if (settings) $.extend(config, settings); this.each(function() { method1.apply(this); }); return this; }; function method1() { // do stuff with $(this) method2.apply(this); } function method2() { // do stuff with $(this), etc... } })(jQuery);

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  • Moving Computer Player in Xcode

    - by user1631497
    I am working on a 2d game using xcode and objective-c. I am trying to make my enemy player move left if I am left of him, until he is touching my character. The same will go when I am right of him. Basically just trying to get him to move towards me. But my code to do so is not working. So I have my code that says the following -(void)moveTowardsCharacter { enemyLeftTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.05 target:self selector:@selector(goEnemyLeft) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; if (enemyLeftTimer == nil){ enemyLeftTimer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.05 target:self selector:@selector(goEnemyLeft) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; } } -(IBAction)enemyStopLeft { if (CGRectIntersectsRect(bluebox.frame, redbox.frame)) { [enemyLeftTimer invalidate]; enemyLeftTimer = nil; } } -(void)goEnemyLeft { if (redbox.center.x + [self getRedboxWidthLeft] > bluebox.center.x + [self getBlueboxWidthRight]) { redbox.center = CGPointMake(redbox.center.x -5, redbox.center.y); } } So the first bit is saying for it to set up a timer to continue moving left. The next will stop the timer if my player(bluebox) and the Computer player(redbox) collide. Finally, the thing that actually tells it to go left, but only if the bluebox is left of the redbox. The getRedBoxWidth Left and getBlueBoxWidthRight are just voids that get, well, the left and right edges. If you could, please help try and solve this code. Thank You.

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  • How can I remove all users in an Active Directory group?

    - by Beavis
    I'm trying to remove all users from an AD group with the following code: private void RemoveStudents() { foreach (DirectoryEntry childDir in rootRefreshDir.Children) { DirectoryEntry groupDE = new DirectoryEntry(childDir.Path); for (int counter = 0; counter < groupDE.Properties["member"].Count; counter++) { groupDE.Properties["member"].Remove(groupDE.Properties["member"][counter]); groupDE.CommitChanges(); groupDE.Close(); } } } The rootRefreshDir is the directory that contains all the AD groups (childDir). What I'm finding here is that this code does not behave correctly. It removes users, but it doesn't do it after the first run. It does "some". Then I run it again, and again, and again - depending on how many users need to be deleted in a group. I'm not sure why it's functioning this way. Can someone help fix this code or provide an alternative method to delete all users in a group? Thanks!

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  • Coding the R-ight way - avoiding the for loop

    - by mropa
    I am going through one of my .R files and by cleaning it up a little bit I am trying to get more familiar with writing the code the r-ight way. As a beginner, one of my favorite starting points is to get rid of the for() loops and try to transform the expression into a functional programming form. So here is the scenario: I am assembling a bunch of data.frames into a list for later usage. dataList <- list (dataA, dataB, dataC, dataD, dataE ) Now I like to take a look at each data.frame's column names and substitute certain character strings. Eg I like to substitute each "foo" and "bar" with "baz". At the moment I am getting the job done with a for() loop which looks a bit awkward. colnames(dataList[[1]]) [1] "foo" "code" "lp15" "bar" "lh15" colnames(dataList[[2]]) [1] "a" "code" "lp50" "ls50" "foo" matchVec <- c("foo", "bar") for (i in seq(dataList)) { for (j in seq(matchVec)) { colnames (dataList[[i]])[grep(pattern=matchVec[j], x=colnames (dataList[[i]]))] <- c("baz") } } Since I am working here with a list I thought about the lapply function. My attempts handling the job with the lapply function all seem to look alright but only at first sight. If I write f <- function(i, xList) { gsub(pattern=c("foo"), replacement=c("baz"), x=colnames(xList[[i]])) } lapply(seq(dataList), f, xList=dataList) the last line prints out almost what I am looking for. However, if i take another look at the actual names of the data.frames in dataList: lapply (dataList, colnames) I see that no changes have been made to the initial character strings. So how can I rewrite the for() loop and transform it into a functional programming form? And how do I substitute both strings, "foo" and "bar", in an efficient way? Since the gsub() function takes as its pattern argument only a character vector of length one.

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  • image transistion

    - by Jeff Main
    Hi all. I've gotten stuck again. I've got an image (album cover) that I'll be changing in code behind, and wish to basicaly do the following. When a new album cover image is determine and aquired, I want the current image in the image control to fade out, get updated with the new cover, and then fade back in. I'm not seeing very many good examples on how to accomplish this in code behind. The following was my latest failed attempt... if (currentTrack != previousTrack) { BitmapImage image = new BitmapImage(); image.BeginInit(); image.CacheOption = BitmapCacheOption.OnLoad; image.CreateOptions = BitmapCreateOptions.IgnoreImageCache; image.UriSource = new Uri(Address, UriKind.Absolute); image.EndInit(); Storyboard MyStoryboard = new Storyboard(); DoubleAnimation FadeOut = new DoubleAnimation(); FadeOut.From = 1.0; FadeOut.To = 0.0; FadeOut.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(.5)); MyStoryboard.Children.Add(FadeOut); Storyboard.SetTargetName(FadeOut, CoverArt.Name); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(FadeOut, new PropertyPath(Rectangle.OpacityProperty)); CoverArt.Source = image; DoubleAnimation Fadein = new DoubleAnimation(); Fadein.From = 0.0; Fadein.To = 1.0; Fadein.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(.5)); MyStoryboard.Children.Add(Fadein); Storyboard.SetTargetName(Fadein, CoverArt.Name); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(Fadein, new PropertyPath(Rectangle.OpacityProperty)); MyStoryboard.Begin(this); } I'd prefer to do this in code behind simply because that is where I'm aquiring the image. Otherwise, I'm not sure how I'd trigger it. An example would be greatly appriciated. Thanks.

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