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• What do you expect from a package manager for Emacs

  - by tarsius

  Although several hundred Emacs Lisp libraries exist GNU Emacs does not have an (internal) package manager. I guess that most users would agree that it is currently rather inconvenient to find, install and especially keep up-to-date Emacs Lisp libraries. These pages make life a bit easier Emacs Lisp List - Problem: I see dead people (links). Emacswiki - Problem: May contain traces of nuts (malicious code). These are some package managers XEmacs package manager package.el - ELPA pases install.el install-elisp.el plugin.el use-package.el jem-pkg.el epkg/elm - the one I am working. And this are some packages that provide functionality that might be useful in a package manager ell.el - Browse the Emacs Lisp List genauto.el - helps generate autoloads for your elisp packages date-calc.el - date calculation and parsing routines strptime.el - partial implementation of POSIX date and time parsing wikirel.el - Visit relevant pages on the Emacs Wiki loadhist.el, lib-requires.el, elisp-depend.el - Commands to list Emacs Lisp library dependencies. project-root.el - Define a project root and take actions based upon it So I would like to know from you what you consider important/unimportant/supplementary... in a package manager for Emacs. Some ideas Many packages (incorporate the Emacs Lisp List and other lists of libraries). Only packages that have been tested. Support for more than one package archive (so people can choose between many/tested packages). Dependency calculated based on required features only. Dependencies take particular versions into account. Only use versions that have been released upstream. Use versions from version control systems if available. Packages are categorized. Packages can be uninstalled and updated not only installed. Support creating fork of upstream version of packages. Support publishing these forks. Support choosing a fork. After installation packages are activated. Generate autoloads. Integration with Emacswiki (see wikirel.el). Users can tag, comment ... packages and share that information. Only FSF-assigned/GPL/FOSS software or don't care about license. Package manager should be integrated in Emacs. Support contacting author. Lots of metadata. Suggest alternatives before installing a particular package. Some discussions about the subject at hand emacs-devel 20080801 comp.emacs 20021121 RationalElispPackaging I am hoping for these kinds of answers Pointers to more implementations, discussions etc. Lengthy descriptions of a set of features that make up your ideal package manager. Descriptions of one particular disired/undisired feature. This has the advantage that the regular voting mechanism allows us to see what features are most welcomed. Feel free to elaborate on my ideas from above. Surprise me.

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• KISS: Simple C# application which communicates with a RESTful web service.

  - by Workshop Alex

  Following the KISS principle, I suddenly realised the following: In .NET, you can use the Entity Model Framework to wrap around a database. This model can be exposed as a web service through WCF. This web service would have a very standardized definition. A client application could be created which could consume any such RESTful web service. I don't want to re-invent the wheel and it wouldn't surprise me if someone has already done this, so my question is simple: Has anyone already created a simple (desktop, not web) client application that can consume a RESTful service that's based on the Entity Framework and which will allow the user to read and write data directly to this service? Otherwise, I'll just have to "invent" this myself. :-)Problem is, the database layer and RESTful service is already finished. The RESTful service will only stay in the project during it's development phase, since we can use the database-layer assembly directly from the web applications that are build around it. When the web application is deployed, the RESTful services are just kept out of the deployment. But the database has a lot of data to manage over nearly 50 tables. When developing against a local database, we can have straight access to the database so I wouldn't need this tool for this. When it's deployed, the web application would be the only way to access the data so I could not use this tool. But we're also having a test phase where the database is stored on another system outside the local domain and this database is not available for developers. Only administrators have direct access to this database, making tests a bit more complex. However, through the RESTful service, I can still access the data directly. Thus, when some test goes wrong, I can repair the data through this connection or just create a copy of the data for tests on my local system. There's plenty of other functionality and it's even possible to just open the URL to a table service straight in Excel or XMLSpy to see the contents. But when I want to write something back, I have to write special code to do just that. A generic tool that would allow me to access the data and modify it would be easier. Since it's a generic setup around the ADO.NET Data services, this should be reasonable easy too. Thus, I can do it but hoped someone else has already done something similar. But it appears that there's no such tool made yet...

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• SQL Server stored procedures - update column based on variable name..?

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hi, I have a data driven site with many stored procedures. What I want to eventually be able to do is to say something like: For Each @variable in sproc inputs UPDATE @TableName SET @variable.toString = @variable Next I would like it to be able to accept any number of arguments. It will basically loop through all of the inputs and update the column with the name of the variable with the value of the variable - for example column "Name" would be updated with the value of @Name. I would like to basically have one stored procedure for updating and one for creating. However to do this I will need to be able to convert the actual name of a variable, not the value, to a string. Question 1: Is it possible to do this in T-SQL, and if so how? Question 2: Are there any major drawbacks to using something like this (like performance or CPU usage)? I know if a value is not valid then it will only prevent the update involving that variable and any subsequent ones, but all the data is validated in the vb.net code anyway so will always be valid on submitting to the database, and I will ensure that only variables where the column exists are able to be submitted. Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard Clarke Edit: I know about using SQL strings and the risk of SQL injection attacks - I studied this a bit in my dissertation a few weeks ago. Basically the website uses an object oriented architecture. There are many classes - for example Product - which have many "Attributes" (I created my own class called Attribute, which has properties such as DataField, Name and Value where DataField is used to get or update data, Name is displayed on the administration frontend when creating or updating a Product and the Value, which may be displayed on the customer frontend, is set by the administrator. DataField is the field I will be using in the "UPDATE Blah SET @Field = @Value". I know this is probably confusing but its really complicated to explain - I have a really good understanding of the entire system in my head but I cant put it into words easily. Basically the structure is set up such that no user will be able to change the value of DataField or Name, but they can change Value. I think if I were to use dynamic parameterised SQL strings there will therefore be no risk of SQL injection attacks. I mean basically loop through all the attributes so that it ends up like: UPDATE Products SET [Name] = '@Name', Description = '@Description', Display = @Display Then loop through all the attributes again and add the parameter values - this will have the same effect as using stored procedures, right?? I dont mind adding to the page load time since this is mainly going to affect the administration frontend, and will marginly affect the customer frontend.

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• How can I troubleshoot an APPCRASH in Internet Explorer?

  - by Schnapple

  I'm writing an ActiveX control using the firebreath framework (hi taxilian!) and while it technically works, I'm running into a weird issue that appears to be unique to me. I've followed the instructions to create a simple plugin and then I ran it in Internet Explorer 8 on Windows 7 x64 (firebreath sets up a test page for the control). But as soon as I try to test it (clicking on a link that fires off JavaScript to interact with the control), IE crashes. Hard. "Internet Explorer has stopped working" style. If I try the control in Firefox (the resulting registered DLL can also be called as a Firefox plugin using a MIME type), it works fine. If I try it on my XP box, it works fine. I emailed the DLL and the testing page to a coworker in the next cube who is like me also running Windows 7 x64 and it works for him just fine as well, so it's not something unique to Windows 7 or x64. When it crashes I get this message: Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iexplore.exe Application Version: 8.0.7600.16385 Application Timestamp: 4a5bc69e Fault Module Name: RPCRT4.dll Fault Module Version: 6.1.7600.16385 Fault Module Timestamp: 4a5bdb3b Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 000220b1 OS Version: 6.1.7600.2.0.0.256.1 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 0a9e Additional Information 2: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Additional Information 3: 0a9e Additional Information 4: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Which tells me nothing extremely useful. I can have it attach to a debugger but it just tells me a long list of DLL's, none of which are the ActiveX control in question. It's almost like it's not even getting there. I did a sfc /scannow yesterday to see if anything on my system is corrupt and nothing came up as wrong. I tried various different security levels in IE, but nothing seems to have any effect. As this is a development machine there has been all matter of crap installed on it, so I figure it's bound to be something I've installed since October (when Win7 was released) but I cannot figure out what it is. I presume the information it's giving me when I attach to Visual Studio is useful somehow but I don't know how to interpret it. Admittedly I'm mainly a C#/.NET developer who's a bit out of his element with C/C++ and troubleshooting native code, but does anyone have any advice on how to proceed on figuring out why this very simple ActiveX control crashes IE on my machine and nowhere else?

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• Using embedded resources in Silverlight (4) - other cultures not being compiled

  - by Andrei Rinea

  I am having a bit of a hard time providing localized strings for the UI in a small Silverlight 4 application. Basically I've put a folder "Resources" and placed two resource files in it : Statuses.resx Statuses.ro.resx I do have an enum Statuses : public enum Statuses { None, Working } and a convertor : public class StatusToMessage : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (!Enum.IsDefined(typeof(Status), value)) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("value"); } var x = Statuses.None; return Statuses.ResourceManager.GetString(((Status)value).ToString(), Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture); } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } in the view I have a textblock : <TextBlock Grid.Column="3" Text="{Binding Status, Converter={StaticResource StatusToMessage}}" /> Upon view rendering the converter is called but no matter what the Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture is set it always returns the default culture value. Upon further inspection I took apart the XAP resulted file, taken the resulted DLL file to Reflector and inspected the embedded resources. It only contains the default resource!! Going back to the two resource files I am now inspecting their properties : Build action : Embedded Resource Copy to output directory : Do not copy Custom tool : ResXFileCodeGenerator Custom tool namespace : [empty] Both resource (.resx) files have these settings. The .Designer.cs resulted files are as follows : Statuses.Designer.cs : //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ // <auto-generated> // This code was generated by a tool. // Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 // // Changes to this file may cause incorrect behavior and will be lost if // the code is regenerated. // </auto-generated> //------------------------------------------------------------------------------ namespace SilverlightApplication5.Resources { using System; /// <summary> /// A strongly-typed resource class, for looking up localized strings, etc. /// </summary> // This class was auto-generated by the StronglyTypedResourceBuilder // class via a tool like ResGen or Visual Studio. // To add or remove a member, edit your .ResX file then rerun ResGen // with the /str option, or rebuild your VS project. [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Resources.Tools.StronglyTypedResourceBuilder", "4.0.0.0")] [global::System.Diagnostics.DebuggerNonUserCodeAttribute()] [global::System.Runtime.CompilerServices.CompilerGeneratedAttribute()] internal class Statuses { // ... yadda-yadda Statuses.ro.Designer.cs [empty] I've taken both files and put them in a console application and they behave as expected in it, not like in this silverlight application. What is wrong?

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• Getting pixel data from an image using java.

  - by Matt

  I'm trying to get the pixel rgb values from a 64 x 48 bit image. I get some values but nowhere near the 3072 (= 64 x 48) values that I'm expecting. I also get: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException: Coordinate out of bounds! at sun.awt.image.ByteInterleavedRaster.getDataElements(ByteInterleavedRaster.java:301) at java.awt.image.BufferedImage.getRGB(BufferedImage.java:871) at imagetesting.Main.getPixelData(Main.java:45) at imagetesting.Main.main(Main.java:27) I can't find the out of bounds error... Here's the code: package imagetesting; import java.io.IOException; import javax.imageio.ImageIO; import java.io.File; import java.awt.image.BufferedImage; public class Main { public static final String IMG = "matty.jpg"; public static void main(String[] args) { BufferedImage img; try { img = ImageIO.read(new File(IMG)); int[][] pixelData = new int[img.getHeight() * img.getWidth()][3]; int[] rgb; int counter = 0; for(int i = 0; i < img.getHeight(); i++){ for(int j = 0; j < img.getWidth(); j++){ rgb = getPixelData(img, i, j); for(int k = 0; k < rgb.length; k++){ pixelData[counter][k] = rgb[k]; } counter++; } } } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } private static int[] getPixelData(BufferedImage img, int x, int y) { int argb = img.getRGB(x, y); int rgb[] = new int[] { (argb >> 16) & 0xff, //red (argb >> 8) & 0xff, //green (argb ) & 0xff //blue }; System.out.println("rgb: " + rgb[0] + " " + rgb[1] + " " + rgb[2]); return rgb; } }

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• Populating a UL with Jquery

  - by RachelGatlin

  Hi Guys, I'm a little bit stumped with this UL I'm building. I've been able to populate the list no problem but it's all messed up when it comes to formatting. Here's my script: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/shop/assets/xml/tonneau_makes.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { var selectInfo = $("li.selectMake"); $(xml).find('option').each(function(){ var make = $(this).attr('make'); $("li.selectMake").before("<li>"+make+"</li>"); }); } }); It's working beautifully. however when I go to look at it on my page and view the selection source it looks like this: <ul id="MakeList"> <li>CHEVROLET</li> <li>VINTAGE CHEVY</li> <li>DODGE</li> <li>VINTAGE FORD</li> <li>FORD</li> <li>HONDA</li> <li>HUMMER</li> <li>ISUZU</li> <li>LINCOLN</li> <li>MAZDA</li> <li>MITSUBISHI</li> <li>NISSAN</li> <li>SUZUKI</li> <li>TOYOTA</li> <li class="selectMake"></li> So I guess it is working, but it's not formatting the way I want it to. I want it to stop at Honda and form a new list. Right now it's extending beyond my div. My html is set up like this: <ul id="MakeList"> <li class="selectMake"></li> </ul> It's just an empty ul and li (note, all li's are supposed to have that class) So not only do I need to figure out what I'm doing wrong, but I'm not sure how to get it to do what I want. I hope that all made sense! Thanks everybody!

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• Code Golf: Evaluating Mathematical Expressions

  - by Noldorin

  Challenge Here is the challenge (of my own invention, though I wouldn't be surprised if it has previously appeared elsewhere on the web). Write a function that takes a single argument that is a string representation of a simple mathematical expression and evaluates it as a floating point value. A "simple expression" may include any of the following: positive or negative decimal numbers, +, -, *, /, (, ). Expressions use (normal) infix notation. Operators should be evaluated in the order they appear, i.e. not as in BODMAS, though brackets should be correctly observed, of course. The function should return the correct result for any possible expression of this form. However, the function does not have to handle malformed expressions (i.e. ones with bad syntax). Examples of expressions: 1 + 3 / -8 = -0.5 (No BODMAS) 2*3*4*5+99 = 219 4 * (9 - 4) / (2 * 6 - 2) + 8 = 10 1 + ((123 * 3 - 69) / 100) = 4 2.45/8.5*9.27+(5*0.0023) = 2.68... Rules I anticipate some form of "cheating"/craftiness here, so please let me forewarn against it! By cheating, I refer to the use of the eval or equivalent function in dynamic languages such as JavaScript or PHP, or equally compiling and executing code on the fly. (I think my specification of "no BODMAS" has pretty much guaranteed this however.) Apart from that, there are no restrictions. I anticipate a few Regex solutions here, but it would be nice to see more than just that. Now, I'm mainly interested in a C#/.NET solution here, but any other language would be perfectly acceptable too (in particular, F# and Python for the functional/mixed approaches). I haven't yet decided whether I'm going to accept the shortest or most ingenious solution (at least for the language) as the answer, but I would welcome any form of solution in any language, except what I've just prohibited above! My Solution I've now posted my C# solution here (403 chars). Update: My new solution has beaten the old one significantly at 294 chars, with the help of a bit of lovely regex! I suspected that this will get easily beaten by some of the languages out there with lighter syntax (particularly the funcional/dynamic ones), and have been proved right, but I'd be curious if someone could beat this in C# still. Update I've seen some very crafty solutions already. Thanks to everyone who has posted one. Although I haven't tested any of them yet, I'm going to trust people and assume they at least work with all of the given examples. Just for the note, re-entrancy (i.e. thread-safety) is not a requirement for the function, though it is a bonus. Format Please post all answers in the following format for the purpose of easy comparison: Language Number of characters: ??? Fully obfuscated function: (code here) Clear/semi-obfuscated function: (code here) Any notes on the algorithm/clever shortcuts it takes.

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• LinearLayout - How to get text to be on the right of an icon?

  - by RED_

  Hi there, Bit of a newbie when it comes to android, only been working on it properly for a few days but even after all the searching I've done im stumped and nobody seems to know how to help me. I have this so far: http://img263.imageshack.us/i/sellscreen.jpg How can I move the text to be besides each icon rather than underneath it? Hoping the gallery won't be moved either. Here is the code i have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ScrollView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/scroller" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:fillViewport="true" > <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <Gallery xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/gallery" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions." /> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions."/> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions."/> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions."/> <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="The offcial UK driving theory test application. Over 190 questions." /> </LinearLayout> </ScrollView> Top half of my code doesn't seem to be showing for some reason but it's just the opening of the linear layout. I will be forever grateful to anyone that can help, i've been racking my brains for days and getting nowhere. Really getting stressed out by it. Thanks in advance!!

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• Determine the 'Overtype' mode using Javascript

  - by Snorkpete

  We are creating a web app to replace an old-school green-screen application. In the green-screen app, as the user presses the Insert key to switch between overtype and insert modes, the cursor changes to indicate which input mode the user is currently in. In IE (which is the official browser of the company), overtype mode also works, but there's no visual indication as to whether overtype mode is on or not, until the user starts typing and possibly over-writes existing information unexpectedly. I'd like to put some sort of visual indicator on the screen if in overtype mode. How can you determine if the browser is in 'overtype mode' from Javascript? Is there some property or function i can query to determine if the browser is in overtype mode? Even an IE-specific solution would be helpful, since our corporate policy dictates the browser to use as IE7 (pure torture, btw). (I do know that one solution is to do check for key presses of the Insert key. However, it's a solution that I'd prefer to avoid since that method seems a bit flaky & error-prone because I can't guarantee what mode the user would be in BEFORE he/she hits my page. ) The reasoning behind this question: The functionality of this portion of the green-screen app is such that the user can select from a list of 'preformatted bodies of text'. crude eg. The excess for this policy is: $xxxxxx and max limit is:$xxxxxx Date of policy is: xx/xx/xxxx and expires : xx/xx/xxxx Some other irrelevant text After selecting this 'preformatted text', the user would then use overtype to replace the x's with actual values, without disturbing the alignment of the rest of the text. (To be clear, they can still edit any part of the 'preformatted text' if they so wished. It's just that usually, they just wish to replace specific portions of the text. Keeping the alignment is important since these sections of text can end up on printed documents.) Of course, the same effect can be achieved by just selecting the x's to replace first, but it would be helpful (with respect to easing the transition to the web app) to allow old methods of doing things to continue to work, while still allowing 'web methods' to be used by the more tech-savvy users. Essentially, we're trying to make the initial transition from the green-screen app to the web app be as seemless as possible to minimise the resistance from the long-time green-screeners.

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• Problem deploying Rails with Passenger to Mac OS X Leopard Server

  - by Meltemi

  I'm spinning my wheels... Apache is working and serving static html, png, etc. normally. Trying to get Passenger to serve a rails app out of www.mydomain.com/rails/ as it stands when i try to hit my app: www.mydomain.com/rails/myapp/railsclassname I get only an Apache 403 Errors. Nothing in myapp's Production Log. Apache2 access.log: "GET /rails/ HTTP/1.1" 403 1085 Apache2 error.log: [Fri Jun 11 22:44:01 2010] [error] [client 10.0.1.41] File does not exist: /Library/WebServer/wwwroot/rails/railsclassname i've even tried www.mydomain.com/myapp/classname Passenger, obviously, isn't routing requests made into my sub-folder rails/ to my rails app. not sure where i've screwed up. the most obvious thing is "Passenger doesn't seem to be running"... instructions I've followed just say to sudo apachectl graceful, which i've done (as well as stopped/started). new to this so go easy on me! Here's some info that might be helpful. happy to provide more as needed... As per some instruction @ Passenger site i've created a symlink from /Library/WebServer/myapp/rails - /Library/WebServer/rails/myapp/public myhost:myapp joe$ passenger-config --root /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.14 myhost:myapp joe$ passenger-status ERROR: Phusion Passenger doesn't seem to be running. apollo:myapp joe$ cat /etc/httpd/httpd.conf ... <removed for brevity> ... # Copied From Passenger Installer LoadModule passenger_module /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.14/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.14 PassengerRuby /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby # End Passenger Installer NameVirtualHost * <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.mydomain.com DocumentRoot /Library/WebServer/rails/myapp/public # <-- be sure to point to 'public'! RackBaseURI /rails <Directory /Library/WebServer/rails/myapp/public> AllowOverride all # <-- relax Apache security settings Options -MultiViews # <-- MultiViews must be turned off order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> This last bit from NameVirtualHost on is pieced together from a number of online material i've found...as i've been desperately trying to find something/anything that'll show Passenger at least has a pulse!?!

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• Help with OpenSSL request using Python

  - by Ldn

  Hi i'm creating a program that has to make a request and then obtain some info. For doing that the website had done some API that i will use. There is an how-to about these API but every example is made using PHP. But my app is done using Python so i need to convert the code. here is the how-to: The request string is sealed with OpenSSL. The steps for sealing are as follows: • Random 128-bit key is created. • Random key is used to RSA-RC4 symettrically encrypt the request string. • Random key is encrypted with the public key using OpenSSL RSA asymmetrical encryption. • The encrypted request and encrypted key are each base64 encoded and placed in the appropriate fields. In PHP a full request to our API can be accomplished like so: <?php // initial request. $request = array('object' => 'Link', 'action' => 'get', 'args' => array( 'app_id' => 303612602 ) ); // encode the request in JSON $request = json_encode($request); // when you receive your profile, you will be given a public key to seal your request in. $key_pem = "-----BEGIN PUBLIC KEY----- MFwwDQYJKoZIhvcNAQEBBQADSwAwSAJBALdu5C6d2sA1Lu71NNGBEbLD6DjwhFQO VLdFAJf2rOH63rG/L78lrQjwMLZOeHEHqjaiUwCr8NVTcVrebu6ylIECAwEAAQ== -----END PUBLIC KEY-----"; // load the public key $pkey = openssl_pkey_get_public($key_pem); // seal! $newrequest and $enc_keys are passed by reference. openssl_seal($request, $enc_request, $enc_keys, array($pkey)); // then wrap the request $wrapper = array( 'profile' => 'ProfileName', 'format' => 'RSA_RC4_Sealed', 'enc_key' => base64_encode($enc_keys[0]), 'request' => base64_encode($enc_request) ); // json encode the wrapper. urlencode it as well. $wrapper = urlencode(json_encode($wrapper)); // we can send the request wrapper via the cURL extension $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://api.site.com/'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "request=$wrapper"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $data = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); ?> Of all of that, i was able to convert "$request" and i'v also made the JSON encode. This is my code: import urllib import urllib2 import json url = 'http://api.site.com/' array = {'app_id' : "303612602"} values = { "object" : "Link", "action": "get", "args" : array } data = urllib.urlencode(values) json_data = json.dumps(data) What stop me is the sealing with OpenSSL and the publi key (that obviously i have) Using PHP OpenSSL it's so easy, but in Python i don't really know how to use it Please, help me!

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• UpdateProgress with UpdatePanel not showing up in User control when page is loading

  - by Carter

  Is this typical behavior of the UpdateProgress for an ASP.Net UpdatePanel? I have an update panel with the UpdateProgress control inside of a user control window on a page. If I then make the page in the background do some loading and click a button in the user control update panel the UpdateProgress does not show up at all. It's like the UpdatePanels refresh request is not even registered until after the actual page is done doing it's business. It's worth noting that it will show up if nothing is happening in the background. The functionality I want is what you would expect. I want to loader to show up if it has to wait for anything to get it's refresh done when after the button is clicked. I know I can get this functionality if I just use jquery ajax with a static web method, but you can't have static web methods inside of a user control. I could have it in the page but it really doesn't belong there. A full-blown wcf wouldn't really be worth it in this case either. I'm trying to compromise with an UpdatePanel but these things always seem to cause me some kind of trouble. Maybe this is just the way it works? Edit:So I'll clarify a bit what I'm doing. What's happening is I have a page and all it has on it are some tools on the side and a big map. When the page initially loads it takes some time to load the map. Now if while it's loading I open up the tool (a user control) that has the update panel in question in it and click the button on this user control that should refresh the update panel with new data and show the loading sign (in the updateprogress) then the UpdateProgress loading image does not show up. However, the code run by the button click does run after the page is done loading (as expected) and The UpdateProgress will show up if nothing on the page containing the user control is loading. I just want the loader to show up while the page is loading. I thought my problem was that perhaps the map loading is in an update panel and my UpdateProgress was only being associated with the update panel for the user control's update panel. Hence, I would get no loading icon when the map was loading. This is not the case though.

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• iPhone JSON Object

  - by Cosizzle

  Hello, I'm trying to create a application that will retrieve JSON data from an HTTP request, send it to a the application main controller as a JSON object then from there do further processing with it. Where I'm stick is actually creating a class that will serve as a JSON class in which will take a URL, grab the data, and return that object. Alone, im able to make this class work, however I can not get the class to store the object for my main controller to retrieve it. Because im fairly new to Objective-C itself, my thoughts are that im messing up within my init call: -initWithURL:(NSString *) value { responseData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; NSString *theURL = value; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:theURL]]; [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:self]; return self; } The processing of the JSON object takes place here: - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { [connection release]; NSString *responseString = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:responseData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; [responseData release]; NSError *jsonError; SBJSON *json = [[SBJSON new] autorelease]; NSDictionary *parsedJSON = [json objectWithString:responseString error:&jsonError]; // NSArray object. listings = [parsedJSON objectForKey:@"posts"]; NSEnumerator *enumerator = [listings objectEnumerator]; NSDictionary* item; // to prove that it does work. while (item = (NSDictionary*)[enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog(@"posts:id = %@", [item objectForKey:@"id"]); NSLog(@"posts:address = %@", [item objectForKey:@"address"]); NSLog(@"posts:lat = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lat"]); NSLog(@"posts:lng = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lng"]); } [responseString release]; } Now when calling the object within the main controller I have this bit of code in the viewDidLoad method call: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; JSON_model *jsonObj = [[JSON_model alloc] initWithURL:@"http://localhost/json/faith_json.php?user=1&format=json"]; NSEnumerator *enumerator = [[jsonObj listings] objectEnumerator]; NSDictionary* item; // while (item = (NSDictionary*)[enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog(@"posts:id = %@", [item objectForKey:@"id"]); NSLog(@"posts:address = %@", [item objectForKey:@"address"]); NSLog(@"posts:lat = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lat"]); NSLog(@"posts:lng = %@", [item objectForKey:@"lng"]); } }

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• T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

  - by Greg Potter

  I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

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• Lightbox image / link URL

  - by GSTAR

  Basically I have a slightly non-standard implementation of FancyBox. By default you have to include a link to the large version of the image so that the Lightbox can display it. However, in my implementation, the image link URLs point to a script rather than directly to the image file. So for example, instead of: <a href="mysite/images/myimage.jpg" rel="gallery"> I have: <a href="mysite/photos/view/abc123" rel="gallery"> The above URL points to a function: public function actionPhotos($view) { $photo=Photo::model()->find('name=:name', array(':name'=>$view)); if(!empty($photo)) { $this->renderPartial('_photo', array('photo'=>$photo, true)); } } The "$this-renderPartial()" bit simply calls a layout file which includes a standard HTML tag to output. Now when the user clicks on a thumbnail, the above function is called and the large image is displayed in the Lightbox. Now if the user right clicks on the thumbnail and selects "open in new tab/window" then the image is displayed in the browser as per normal, i.e. just the image. I want to change this so that it displays the image within a layout. In the above code I can include the following and put it in an IF statement: $this->render('photos', array('photo'=>$photo)); This will call the layout file "photos" which contains the layout to display the image in. I have a specific limitation for this - the image URL must remain the same, i.e. no additional GET variables in the URL. However if we can pass in a GET variable in the background then that is OK. I will most likely need to change my function above so that it calls a different file for this functionality. EDIT: To demonstrate exactly what I am trying to do, check out the following: http://www.starnow.co.uk/KimberleyMarren Go to the photos tab and hover over a thumbnail - note the URL. Click the thumbnail and it will open up in the Lightbox. Next right click on that same thumbnail and select "open in new tab/new window". You will notice that the image is now displayed in a layout. So that same URL is used for displaying the image in the Lightbox and on its own page. The way StarNow have done this is using some crazy long JavaScript functionality, which I'm not too keen on replicating.

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• Advice on logic circuits and serial communications

  - by Spencer Ruport

  As far as I understand the serial port so far, transferring data is done over pin 3. As shown here: There are two things that make me uncomfortable about this. The first is that it seems to imply that the two connected devices agree on a signal speed and the second is that even if they are configured to run at the same speed you run into possible synchronization issues... right? Such things can be handled I suppose but it seems like there must be a simpler method. What seems like a better approach to me would be to have one of the serial port pins send a pulse that indicates that the next bit is ready to be stored. So if we're hooking these pins up to a shift register we basically have: (some pulse pin)-clk, tx-d Is this a common practice? Is there some reason not to do this? EDIT Mike shouldn't have deleted his answer. This I2C (2 pin serial) approach seems fairly close to what I did. The serial port doesn't have a clock you're right nobugz but that's basically what I've done. See here: private void SendBytes(byte[] data) { int baudRate = 0; int byteToSend = 0; int bitToSend = 0; byte bitmask = 0; byte[] trigger = new byte[1]; trigger[0] = 0; SerialPort p; try { p = new SerialPort(cmbPorts.Text); } catch { return; } if (!int.TryParse(txtBaudRate.Text, out baudRate)) return; if (baudRate < 100) return; p.BaudRate = baudRate; for (int index = 0; index < data.Length * 8; index++) { byteToSend = (int)(index / 8); bitToSend = index - (byteToSend * 8); bitmask = (byte)System.Math.Pow(2, bitToSend); p.Open(); p.Parity = Parity.Space; p.RtsEnable = (byte)(data[byteToSend] & bitmask) > 0; s = p.BaseStream; s.WriteByte(trigger[0]); p.Close(); } } Before anyone tells me how ugly this is or how I'm destroying my transfer speeds my quick answer is I don't care about that. My point is this seems much much simpler than the method you described in your answer nobugz. And it wouldn't be as ugly if the .Net SerialPort class gave me more control over the pin signals. Are there other serial port APIs that do?

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• WinForms Form won't close on pressing X or Close() in C#

  - by MadBoy

  I'm having a bit weird problem with WinForm which seems to refuse to close for some weird reason. I've got very simple gui which sometimes doesn't react for me pressing X or when i use events on buttons it even reaches Close() and does nothing.. private void buttonZapisz_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string plik = textBoxDokumentDoZaladowania.Text; if (File.Exists(plik)) { string extension = Path.GetExtension(plik); string nazwaPliku = Path.GetFileName(plik); SqlMethods.databaseFilePut(plik, comboBoxTypDokumentu.Text, textBoxKomentarz.Text, sKlienciID, sPortfelID, extension, nazwaPliku); Close(); } } There are no events assigned to FormClosed or FormClosing. So how can I find out what's wrong. Sometimes X will work after the GUI is loaded but after i press Button to save some stuff to database it reaches Close() in that button event and it still is visible and does nothing. Can't use X, nor ALT+F4. I can go around GUI and choose other values for ComboBox without problem. I call GUI like this: private void contextMenuDokumentyDodaj_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { var lv = (ListView) contextMenuDokumenty.SourceControl; string varPortfelID = Locale.ustalDaneListViewKolumny(listViewNumeryUmow, 0); string varKlienciID = Locale.ustalDaneListViewKolumny(listViewKlienci, 0); if (lv == listViewDokumentyPerKlient) { if (varKlienciID != "") { var dokumenty = new DocumentsGui(varKlienciID); dokumenty.Show(); dokumenty.FormClosed += varDocumentsGuiKlienci_FormClosed; } } else if (lv == listViewDokumentyPerPortfel) { if (varPortfelID != "" && varKlienciID != "") { var dokumenty = new DocumentsGui(varKlienciID, varPortfelID); dokumenty.Show(); dokumenty.FormClosed += varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed; } } } While I can't close GUI i can work on the main gui without problem too. I can open up same GUI and after opening new GUI i can quickly close it. GUI is very simple with few ComboBoxes,TextBoxes and one EditButton from Devexpress. Edit: varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed code allows me to refresh GUI (reload ListView's depending on where the user is on now). private void varDocumentsGuiPortfele_FormClosed(object sender, FormClosedEventArgs e) { TabControl varTabControl = tabControlKlientPortfele; if (varTabControl.TabPages.IndexOf(tabPageDokumentyPerKlient) == varTabControl.SelectedIndex) { loadTabControlKlientPortfeleBezZmianyUmowy(); } }

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• Event Listener in Google Charts API

  - by DeanGrobler

  I'm busy using Google Charts in one of my projects to display data in a table. Everything is working great. Except that I need to see what line a user selected once they click a button. This would obviously be done with Javascript, but I've been struggling for days now to no avail. Below I've pasted code for a simple example of the table, and the Javascript function that I want to use (that doesn't work). <html> <head> <script type='text/javascript' src='https://www.google.com/jsapi'></script> <script type='text/javascript'> google.load('visualization', '1', {packages:['table']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawTable); var table = ""; function drawTable() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('string', 'Name'); data.addColumn('number', 'Salary'); data.addColumn('boolean', 'Full Time Employee'); data.addRows(4); data.setCell(0, 0, 'Mike'); data.setCell(0, 1, 10000, '$10,000'); data.setCell(0, 2, true); data.setCell(1, 0, 'Jim'); data.setCell(1, 1, 8000, '$8,000'); data.setCell(1, 2, false); data.setCell(2, 0, 'Alice'); data.setCell(2, 1, 12500, '$12,500'); data.setCell(2, 2, true); data.setCell(3, 0, 'Bob'); data.setCell(3, 1, 7000, '$7,000'); data.setCell(3, 2, true); table = new google.visualization.Table(document.getElementById('table_div')); table.draw(data, {showRowNumber: true}); } function selectionHandler() { selectedData = table.getSelection(); row = selectedData[0].row; item = table.getValue(row,0); alert("You selected :" + item); } </script> </head> <body> <div id='table_div'></div> <input type="button" value="Select" onClick="selectionHandler()"> </body> </html> Thanks in advance for anyone taking the time to look at this. I've honestly tried my best with this, hope someone out there can help me out a bit.

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• Synchronized IEnumerator<T>

  - by Dan Bryant

  I'm putting together a custom SynchronizedCollection<T> class so that I can have a synchronized Observable collection for my WPF application. The synchronization is provided via a ReaderWriterLockSlim, which, for the most part, has been easy to apply. The case I'm having trouble with is how to provide thread-safe enumeration of the collection. I've created a custom IEnumerator<T> nested class that looks like this: private class SynchronizedEnumerator : IEnumerator<T> { private SynchronizedCollection<T> _collection; private int _currentIndex; internal SynchronizedEnumerator(SynchronizedCollection<T> collection) { _collection = collection; _collection._lock.EnterReadLock(); _currentIndex = -1; } #region IEnumerator<T> Members public T Current { get; private set;} #endregion #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { var collection = _collection; if (collection != null) collection._lock.ExitReadLock(); _collection = null; } #endregion #region IEnumerator Members object System.Collections.IEnumerator.Current { get { return Current; } } public bool MoveNext() { var collection = _collection; if (collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex++; if (_currentIndex >= collection.Count) { Current = default(T); return false; } Current = collection[_currentIndex]; return true; } public void Reset() { if (_collection == null) throw new ObjectDisposedException("SynchronizedEnumerator"); _currentIndex = -1; Current = default(T); } #endregion } My concern, however, is that if the Enumerator is not Disposed, the lock will never be released. In most use cases, this is not a problem, as foreach should properly call Dispose. It could be a problem, however, if a consumer retrieves an explicit Enumerator instance. Is my only option to document the class with a caveat implementer reminding the consumer to call Dispose if using the Enumerator explicitly or is there a way to safely release the lock during finalization? I'm thinking not, since the finalizer doesn't even run on the same thread, but I was curious if there other ways to improve this. EDIT After thinking about this a bit and reading the responses (particular thanks to Hans), I've decided this is definitely a bad idea. The biggest issue actually isn't forgetting to Dispose, but rather a leisurely consumer creating deadlock while enumerating. I now only read-lock long enough to get a copy and return the enumerator for the copy.

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• How to run an application as root without asking for an admin password?

  - by kvaruni

  I am writing a program in Objective-C (XCode 3.2, on Snow Leopard) that is capable of either selectively blocking certain sites for a duration or only allow certain sites (and thus block all others) for a duration. The reasoning behind this program is rather simple. I tend to get distracted when I have full internet access, but I do need internet access during my working hours to get to a number of work-related websites. Clearly, this is not a permanent block, but only helps me to focus whenever I find myself wandering a bit too much. At the moment, I am using a Unix script that is called via AppleScript to obtain Administrator permissions. It then activates a number of ipfw rules and clears those after a specific duration to restore full internet access. Simple and effective, but since I am running as a standard user, it gets cumbersome to enter my administrator password each and every time I want to go "offline". Furthermore, this is a great opportunity to learn to work with XCode and Objective-C. At the moment, everything works as expected, minus the actual blocking. I can add a number of sites in a list, specify whether or not I want to block or allow these websites and I can "start" the blocking by specifying a time until which I want to stay "offline". However, I find it hard to obtain clear information on how I can run a privileged Unix command from Objective-C. Ideally, I would like to be able to store information with respect to the Administrator account into the Keychain to use these later on, so that I can simply move into "offline" mode with the convenience of clicking a button. Even more ideally, there might be some class in Objective-C with which I can block access to some/all websites for this particular user without needing to rely on privileged Unix commands. A third possibility is in starting this program with root permissions and the reducing the permissions until I need them, but since this is a GUI application that is nested in the menu bar of OS X, the results are rather awkward and getting it to run each and every time with root permission is no easy task. Anyone who can offer me some pointers or advice? Please, no security-warnings, I am fully aware that what I want to do is a potential security threat.

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• Learning Treetop

  - by cmartin

  I'm trying to teach myself Ruby's Treetop grammar generator. I am finding that not only is the documentation woefully sparse for the "best" one out there, but that it doesn't seem to work as intuitively as I'd hoped. On a high level, I'd really love a better tutorial than the on-site docs or the video, if there is one. On a lower level, here's a grammar I cannot get to work at all: grammar SimpleTest rule num (float / integer) end rule float ( (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.' plain_digits) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits ('E' / 'e') plain_digits ) / (( '+' / '-')? plain_digits '.') / (( '+' / '-')? '.' plain_digits) ) { def eval text_value.to_f end } end rule integer (( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits) { def eval text_value.to_i end } end rule plain_digits [0-9] [0-9]* end end When I load it and run some assertions in a very simple test object, I find: assert_equal @parser.parse('3.14').eval,3.14 Works fine, while assert_equal @parser.parse('3').eval,3 raises the error: NoMethodError: private method `eval' called for # If I reverse integer and float on the description, both integers and floats give me this error. I think this may be related to limited lookahead, but I cannot find any information in any of the docs to even cover the idea of evaluating in the "or" context A bit more info that may help. Here's pp information for both those parse() blocks. The float: SyntaxNode+Float4+Float0 offset=0, "3.14" (eval,plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" SyntaxNode offset=1, "." SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=2, "14": SyntaxNode offset=2, "1" SyntaxNode offset=3, "4": SyntaxNode offset=3, "4" The Integer... note that it seems to have been defined to follow the integer rule, but not caught the eval() method: SyntaxNode+Integer0 offset=0, "3" (plain_digits): SyntaxNode offset=0, "" SyntaxNode+PlainDigits0 offset=0, "3": SyntaxNode offset=0, "3" SyntaxNode offset=1, "" Update: I got my particular problem working, but I have no clue why: rule integer ( '+' / '-' )? plain_digits { def eval text_value.to_i end } end This makes no sense with the docs that are present, but just removing the extra parentheses made the match include the Integer1 class as well as Integer0. Integer1 is apparently the class holding the eval() method. I have no idea why this is the case. I'm still looking for more info about treetop.

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• SQL CLR Stored Procedure and Web Service

  - by Nathan

  I am current working on a task in which I am needing to call a method in a web service from a CLR stored procedure. A bit of background: Basically, I have a task that requires ALOT of crunching. If done strictly in SQL, it takes somewhere around 30-45 mins to process. If I pull the same process into code, I can get it complete in seconds due to being able to optimize the processing so much more efficiently. The only problem is that I have to have this process set as an automated task in SQL Server. In that vein, I have exposed the process as a web service (I use it for other things as well) and want the SQL CLR sproc to consume the service and execute the code. This allows me to have my automated task. The problem: I have read quite a few different topics regarding how to consume a web service in a CLR Sproc and have done so effectivly. Here is an example of what I have followed. http://blog.hoegaerden.be/2008/11/11/calling-a-web-service-from-sql-server-2005/ I can get this example working without any issues. However, whenever I pair this process w/ a Web Service method that involves a database call, I get the following exceptions (depending upon whether or not I wrap in a try / catch): Msg 10312, Level 16, State 49, Procedure usp_CLRRunDirectSimulationAndWriteResults, Line 0 .NET Framework execution was aborted. The UDP/UDF/UDT did not revert thread token. or Msg 6522, Level 16, State 1, Procedure MyStoredProc , Line 0 A .NET Framework error occurred during execution of user defined routine or aggregate 'MyStoredProc': System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.EnvironmentPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. System.Security.SecurityException: at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.CredentialCache.get_DefaultCredentials() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebClientProtocol.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean value) at MyStoredProc.localhost.MPWebService.set_UseDefaultCredentials(Boolean Value) at MyStoredProclocalhost.MPWebService..ctor() at MyStoredProc.StoredProcedures.MyStoredProc(String FromPostCode, String ToPostCode) I am sure this is a permission issue, but I can't, for the life of me get it working. I have attempted using impersonation in the CLR sproc and a few other things. Any suggestions? What am I missing?

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• RSpec mocking a nested model in Rails - ActionController problem

  - by emson

  Hi All I am having a problem in RSpec when my mock object is asked for a URL by the ActionController. The URL is a Mock one and not a correct resource URL. I am running RSpec 1.3.0 and Rails 2.3.5 Basically I have two models. Where a subject has many notes. class Subject < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :title belongs_to :subject end My routes.rb file nests these two resources as such: ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| map.resources :subjects, :has_many => :notes end The NotesController.rb file looks like this: class NotesController < ApplicationController # POST /notes # POST /notes.xml def create @subject = Subject.find(params[:subject_id]) @note = @subject.notes.create!(params[:note]) respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(@subject) } end end end Finally this is my RSpec spec which should simply post my mocked objects to the NotesController and be executed... which it does: it "should create note and redirect to subject without javascript" do # usual rails controller test setup here subject = mock(Subject) Subject.stub(:find).and_return(subject) notes_proxy = mock('association proxy', { "create!" => Note.new }) subject.stub(:notes).and_return(notes_proxy) post :create, :subject_id => subject, :note => { :title => 'note title', :body => 'note body' } end The problem is that when the RSpec post method is called. The NotesController correctly handles the Mock Subject object, and create! the new Note object. However when the NoteController#Create method tries to redirect_to I get the following error: NoMethodError in 'NotesController should create note and redirect to subject without javascript' undefined method `spec_mocks_mock_url' for #<NotesController:0x1034495b8> Now this is caused by a bit of Rails trickery that passes an ActiveRecord object (@subject, in our case, which isn't ActiveRecord but a Mock object), eventually to url_for who passes all the options to the Rails' Routing, which then determines the URL. My question is how can I mock Subject so that the correct options are passed so that I my test passes. I've tried passing in :controller = 'subjects' options but no joy. Is there some other way of doing this? Thanks...

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• Getting results in a result set from dynamic SQL in Oracle

  - by msorens

  This question is similar to a couple others I have found on StackOverflow, but the differences are signficant enough to me to warrant a new question, so here it is: I want to obtain a result set from dynamic SQL in Oracle and then display it as a result set in a SqlDeveloper-like tool, just as if I had executed the dynamic SQL statement directly. This is straightforward in SQL Server, so to be concrete, here is an example from SQL Server that returns a result set in SQL Server Management Studio or Query Explorer: EXEC sp_executesql N'select * from countries' Or more properly: DECLARE @stmt nvarchar(100) SET @stmt = N'select * from countries' EXEC sp_executesql @stmt The question "How to return a resultset / cursor from a Oracle PL/SQL anonymous block that executes Dynamic SQL?" addresses the first half of the problem--executing dynamic SQL into a cursor. The question "How to make Oracle procedure return result sets" provides a similar answer. Web search has revealed many variations of the same theme, all addressing just the first half of my question. I found this post explaining how to do it in SqlDeveloper, but that uses a bit of functionality of SqlDeveloper. I am actually using a custom query tool so I need the solution to be self-contained in the SQL code. This custom query tool similarly does not have the capability to show output of print (dbms_output.put_line) statements; it only displays result sets. Here is yet one more possible avenue using 'execute immediate...bulk collect', but this example again renders the results with a loop of dbms_output.put_line statements. This link attempts to address the topic but the question never quite got answered there either. Assuming this is possible, I will add one more condition: I would like to do this without having to define a function or procedure (due to limited DB permissions). That is, I would like to execute a self-contained PL/SQL block containing dynamic SQL and return a result set in SqlDeveloper or a similar tool. So to summarize: I want to execute an arbitrary SQL statement (hence dynamic SQL). The platform is Oracle. The solution must be a PL/SQL block with no procedures or functions. The output must be generated as a canonical result set; no print statements. The output must render as a result set in SqlDeveloper without using any SqlDeveloper special functionality. Any suggestions?

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