Search Results

Search found 24209 results on 969 pages for 'site'.

Page 873/969 | < Previous Page | 869 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880  | Next Page >

  • How to find an embedded platform?

    - by gmagana
    I am new to the locating hardware side of embedded programming and so after being completely overwhelmed with all the choices out there (pc104, custom boards, a zillion option for each board, volume discounts, devel kits, ahhh!!) I am asking here for some direction. Basically, I must find a new motherboard and (most likely) re-implement the program logic. Rewriting this in C/C++/Java/C#/Pascal/BASIC is not a problem for me. so my real problem is finding the hardware. This motherboard will have several other devices attached to it. Here is a summary of what I need to do: Required: 2 RS232 serial ports (one used all the time for primary UI, the second one not continuous) 1 modem (9600+ baud ok) [Modem will be in simultaneous use with only one of the serial port devices, so interrupt sharing with one serial port is OK, but not both] Minimum permanent/long term storage: Whatever O/S requires + 1 MB (executable) + 512 KB (Data files) RAM: Minimal, whatever the O/S requires plus maybe 1MB for executable. Nice to have: USB port(s) Ethernet network port Wireless network Implementation languages (any O/S I will adapt to): First choice Java/C# (Mono ok) Second choice is C/Pascal Third is BASIC Ok, given all this, I am having a lot of trouble finding hardware that will support this that is low in cost. Every manufacturer site I visit has a lot of options, and it's difficult to see if their offering will even satisfy my must-have requirements (for example they sometimes list 3 "serial ports", but it appears that only one of the three is RS232, for example, and don't mention what the other two are). The #1 constraint is cost, #2 is size. Can anyone help me with this? This little task has left me thinking I should have gone for EE and not CS :-). EDIT: A bit of background: This is a system currently in production, but the original programmer passed away, and the current hardware manufacturer cannot find hardware to run the (currently) DOS system, so I need to reimplement this in a modern platform. I can only change the programming and the motherboard hardware.

    Read the article

  • How to best launch C++ application from web page

    - by JB
    I guess there are two parts to this question, one technical and one best practice for security and doing things "right". I'm working on a little game using C++ / directx but I would like to be able to launch it from a web page by someone clicking on a link on that page. Ideally I would like the first time they clicked for it to launch an installer downloads and installs the game on their machine, and then the next time to launch an application which updates the game from a web site if it's old and then launches it. I have no problems with the expected security popups and questions the first time it runs. I want people to be certain what they are installing and understand what they are doing. But it would be nice if once it is installed they could run it with the minimum of fuss. My question then is what technologies I could use to do this? I'm thinking that it would need a browser plugin and an activex control so that first time you'd install that, and subsequently the control/plugin would be able to launch the game. I'm not sure that under newer browser secuity models that a plugin would have the permissions to be able to run an installer though or silently invoke applications on the client machine even if they are already installed. Is there a more sensible way to achive what I want to achieve? And I'm worried about the security aspects too. I want this to be convenient for users but I of course want to do it "right". I know this can be done as I've seen several mmorpg type games that launch in this way from the browser now but it's not entirely clear to me how they've done it.

    Read the article

  • How can I set the default value for a custom "Number" field in SharePoint?

    - by UnhipGlint
    I created a custom field for a content type I am creating using the XML below. <field ID="{GUID}" Required="False" DisplayName="Likes" Name="Likes" Type="Number" SourceID="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/v3"><default>0</default></field> The field is meant to be used as a counter of sorts, and will be incremented programmatically. But, I can't get the value to default to "0" when a new item is created. However, for some reason, when I create a new column manually using the Site Collection settings page and configure it to default to "0" it works as it should. So far, I've tried the following tactics: I removed the "default" element from the field definition, and set the "DefaultValue" attribute on the content type definition. I exported a definition for the manually-created, working column (using an Imtech STSADM tool). Then, I added it to my field definitions XML and modified the IDs so that I could add it to my content type. When I did this, it still didn't work, even though it was exported from a working column! Any idea why this isn't working for me?

    Read the article

  • PHP Preserve scope when calling a function

    - by Joshua
    I have a function that includes a file based on the string that gets passed to it i.e. the action variable from the query string. I use this for filtering purposes etc so people can't include files they shouldn't be able to and if the file doesn't exist a default file is loaded instead. The problem is that when the function runs and includes the file scope, is lost because the include ran inside a function. This becomes a problem because I use a global configuration file, then I use specific configuration files for each module on the site. The way I'm doing it at the moment is defining the variables I want to be able to use as global and then adding them into the top of the filtering function. Is there any easier way to do this, i.e. by preserving scope when a function call is made or is there such a thing as PHP macros? Edit: Would it be better to use extract($_GLOBALS); inside my function call instead? Edit 2: For anyone that cared. I realised I was over thinking the problem altogether and that instead of using a function I should just use an include, duh! That way I can keep my scope and have my cake too.

    Read the article

  • jQuery & Prototype Conflict

    - by DPereyra
    Hi, I am using the jQuery AutoComplete plugin in an html page where I also have an accordion menu which uses prototype. They both work perfectly separately but when I tried to implement both components in a single page I get an error that I have not been able to understand. uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE) [nsIDOMViewCSS.getComputedStyle]" nsresult: "0x80004005 (NS_ERROR_FAILURE)" location: "JS frame :: file:///C:/Documents and Settings/Administrator/Desktop/website/js/jquery-1.2.6.pack.js :: anonymous :: line 11" data: no] I found out the file conflicting with jQuery is 'effects.js' which is used by the accordion menu. I tried replacing this file with a newer version but newer seems to break the accordion behavior. My guess is that the 'effects.js' file used in the accordion was modified to obtain the accordion demo output. I also tried using the overriding methods jQuery needs to avoid conflict with other libraries and that did not work. I obtained the accordion demo from the following site: http://www.stickmanlabs.com/accordion/ And the jQuery AutoComplete can be obtained from: http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Autocomplete#Setup Has any one else experienced this issue? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Problems updating a textBox ASP.NET

    - by Roger Filipe
    Hello, I'm starting in asp.net and am having some problems that I do not understand. The problem is this, I am building a site for news. Every news has a title and body. I have a page where I can insert news, this page uses a textbox for each of the fields (title and body), after clicking the submit button everything goes ok and saves the values in the database. And o have another page where I can read the news, I use labels for each of the camps, these labels are defined in the Page_Load. Now I'm having problems on the page where I can edit the news. I am loading two textboxes (title and body) in the Page_Load, so far so good, but then when I change the text and I click the submit button, it ignores the changes that I made in the text and saves the text loaded in Page_Load. This code doesn't show any database connection but you can understand what i'm talking about. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { textboxTitle.Text = "This is the title of the news"; textboxBody.Text = "This is the body of the news "; } I load the page, make the changes in the text , and then click submit. protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { String title = textboxTitle.Text; String body = textboxBody.Text; Response.Write("Title: " + title + " || "); Response.Write("Body: " + body ); } Nothing happens, the text in the textboxes is always the one I loaded in the page_load, how do I update the Text in the textboxes?

    Read the article

  • Problem with a NSString that equals to (null)

    - by Guy Dor
    Hi, I have an UIViewController named MainViewController I have another UIViewController named LeftSharingViewController; I would like to get and use the NSString from MainViewController in my LeftSharingViewController I have a problem, I always get (null) instead of the NSString wanted value. Here's my code and how does the NSString get it's value MainViewController: - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { leftWebViewString = [NSString stringWithString:leftWebView.request.URL.absoluteString]; } LeftSharingViewController.h: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "MainViewController.h" #import <MessageUI/MessageUI.h> #import <MessageUI/MFMailComposeViewController.h> @class MainViewController; @interface LeftSharingViewController : UIViewController <MFMailComposeViewControllerDelegate> { MainViewController *mainViewController; NSString *leftWebViewUrl; } @property (nonatomic, retain) MainViewController *mainViewController; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *leftWebViewUrl; @end LeftSharingViewController.m: #import "LeftSharingViewController.h" #import "MainViewController.h" @implementation LeftSharingViewController @synthesize mainViewController; @synthesize leftWebViewUrl; - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.leftWebViewUrl = self.mainViewController.leftWebViewString; } #pragma mark - #pragma mark Compose Mail -(void)displayComposerSheet { MFMailComposeViewController *mailPicker = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; mailPicker.mailComposeDelegate = self; [mailPicker setSubject:@"Check Out This Website!"]; [mailPicker setMessageBody:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Take a look at this site:%@", leftWebViewUrl] isHTML:YES]; mailPicker.modalPresentationStyle = UIModalPresentationFormSheet; [self presentModalViewController:mailPicker animated:YES]; [mailPicker release]; } Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Different users get the same cookie - value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

    Read the article

  • css layout for footer at bottom with dynamic ajax content changing height of page

    - by m42
    [Update] I actually compromised on this problem for now by foregoing the fixed footer design. It seems that there is no problem with dynamic content moving the footer and resizing containers appropriately unless the footer is fixed to the browser bottom initially. I hope others will eventually provide a great solution that encompasses the best of both worlds. I spent all day trying to get the footer to move down the page to accommodate dynamically added (via ajax) content. I really need some pointers or links because I haven't found anything that helps. Basically: My site has some pages that begin with only a text box and a button so that the total height of the content area is only a few inches beneath the header area. I don't have any problem getting the sticky footer working so that the footer appears at the bottom of the browser window even when there is very little content on screen. That same css layout works fine for other pages that have content that extends beneath the browser window. The catch: The content has to be rendered and passed to the browser with the initial load. The Problem: Any content that is added to the page via AJAX after the initial load paints down the page correctly -- but the footer remains in its initial location. Please tell me there is a fix for this. I can't post the css until checking with my boss first - if possible - and if needed, I will later - but it's just a very basic version of the many sticky footer css solutions floating around the web. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Parsing Chunk of Data into Hash of Array With Perl

    - by neversaint
    I have data that looks like this: #info #info2 1:SRX004541 Submitter: UT-MGS, UT-MGS Study: Glossina morsitans transcript sequencing project(SRP000741) Sample: Glossina morsitans(SRS002835) Instrument: Illumina Genome Analyzer Total: 1 run, 8.3M spots, 299.9M bases Run #1: SRR016086, 8330172 spots, 299886192 bases 2:SRX004540 Submitter: UT-MGS Study: Anopheles stephensi transcript sequencing project(SRP000747) Sample: Anopheles stephensi(SRS002864) Instrument: Solexa 1G Genome Analyzer Total: 1 run, 8.4M spots, 401M bases Run #1: SRR017875, 8354743 spots, 401027664 bases 3:SRX002521 Submitter: UT-MGS Study: Massive transcriptional start site mapping of human cells under hypoxic conditions.(SRP000403) Sample: Human DLD-1 tissue culture cell line(SRS001843) Instrument: Solexa 1G Genome Analyzer Total: 6 runs, 27.1M spots, 977M bases Run #1: SRR013356, 4801519 spots, 172854684 bases Run #2: SRR013357, 3603355 spots, 129720780 bases Run #3: SRR013358, 3459692 spots, 124548912 bases Run #4: SRR013360, 5219342 spots, 187896312 bases Run #5: SRR013361, 5140152 spots, 185045472 bases Run #6: SRR013370, 4916054 spots, 176977944 bases What I want to do is to create a hash of array with first line of each chunk as keys and SR## part of lines with "^Run" as its array member: $VAR = { 'SRX004541' => ['SRR016086'], # etc } But why my construct doesn't work. And it must be a better way to do it. use Data::Dumper; my %bighash; my $head = ""; my @temp = (); while ( <> ) { chomp; next if (/^\#/); if ( /^\d{1,2}:(\w+)/ ) { print "$1\n"; $head = $1; } elsif (/^Run \#\d+: (\w+),.*/){ print "\t$1\n"; push @temp, $1; } elsif (/^$/) { push @{$bighash{$head}}, [@temp]; @temp =(); } } print Dumper \%bighash ;

    Read the article

  • Paging not working in my wordpress installation

    - by Bootcamp
    I recently started a blog site and wanted to give it a magazine look. I used Wordpress for my blog and used the Arthemia theme with it. I also changed the permalink structure to point to /%year%/%monthnum%/%day%/%postname%/ structure. Now the problem that i have is that the paging has stopped working on my home page. When i click on the next page link i get a 404 error. My /page/2 url does not show the next page. I check on google and found out that it was due to the redirection that is being performed due to the permalink change. The solution given was that i need to skip the url rewriting for the /page/* urls. This is the link to an article which said this http://www.yoursearchadvisor.com/blog/wordpress-next_posts_link-broken/ . I was not able to follow this article and solve my problem, as i could not find the permanent redirect manager under the settings section as said in this article. Can somebody please guide me how to solve this problem. I am using the latest Wordpress version and Arthemia theme with it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rails redirections with new users and logins

    - by Kenji Crosland
    So I'm trying to get the user to return to the page they were looking at before they click "log in" This is what I got in my user application controller: def redirect_back_or_default(default) redirect_to(session[:return_to] || default) session[:return_to] = nil end And this is what I have in my sessions controller: def new @user_session = UserSession.new session[:return_to] = request.referer end end def create @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" redirect_back_or_default(home_path) else render :action => :new end end This works fine most of the time but if a user logs in right after they register to the site, they will get redirected to a blank page. I imagine this is the "create" action because it was the last action before going to user sessions new. So I tried this: def new @user_session = UserSession.new unless request.referer == join_path session[:return_to] = request.referer end end And this tries to take me back to the login page after I log in. What I'd really like to do is have the user see their profile when they log in for the very first time. This wouldn't give me a user id and raised a routing error def create @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" redirect_back_or_default(user_path(current_user)) else render :action => :new end end Anybody gone through these redirecting acrobatics before? I can't seem to get it to work. I'm using authlogic if that helps.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript cookie value can't be retrieved in Django

    - by Boris Rusev
    I am trying to build a web site in both English and Bulgarian using the Django framework. My idea is the user should click on a button, the page will reload and the language will be changed. This is how I am trying to do it: In my html I hava a the button tag <button id='btn' onclick="changeLanguage();" type="button"> ... </button> An excerpt from cookies.js: function changeLanguage() { if (getCookie('language') == 'EN') { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'BG'); } else { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'EN'); } } function setCookie(sName, sValue, oExpires, sPath, sDomain, bSecure) { var sCookie = sName + "=" + encodeURIComponent(sValue); if (oExpires) { sCookie += "; expires=" + oExpires.toGMTString(); } if (sPath) { sCookie += "; path=" + sPath; } if (sDomain) { sCookie += "; domain=" + sDomain; } if (bSecure) { sCookie += "; secure"; } document.cookie = sCookie; } And in my views.py file this is the situation @base def index(request): if request.session['language'] == 'EN': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "Home" else request.session['language'] == 'BG': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "??????" So I know that my JS changes the value of the language cookie but I think Django doesn't get that. On the other hand when I set and get the cookie in my Python code again the cookie is set. My question is whether there is a way to make JS and Django work together - JavaScript sets the cookie value and Python only reads it when asked and takes adequate actions? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Rails - any fancy ways to handle 404s?

    - by jyoseph
    I have a rails app I built for an old site I converted from another cms (in a non-rails language, hehe). Most of the old pages are mapped to the new pages using routes.rb. But there are still a few 404s. I am a rails newb so I'm asking if there are any advanced ways to handle 404s. For example, if I was programming in my old language I'd do this: Get the URL (script_name) that was being accessed and parse it. Do a lookup in the database for any keywords, ids, etc found in the new URL. If found, redirect to the page (or if multiple records are found, show them all on a results page and let user choose). With rails I'd probably want to do :status = :moved_permanently I'm guessing? If not found, show a 404. Are there any gems/plugins or tutorials you know of that would handle such a thing, if it's even possible. Or can you explain on a high level how that can be done? I don't need a full code sample, just a push in the right direction. PS. It's a simple rails 3 app that uses a single Content model.

    Read the article

  • Is there a simple way to "roll your own forms" for mysql in php, for example in jquery?

    - by talkingnews
    I've been googling around for a really simple way of making what is, in effect, nothing more than an enhanced phpMySql. In a mysql database, I have: Name, address, phone, website etc, plus 2 or 3 custom fields. This data is pulled out to make a website. All I want is to be able to make a freeform form, a bit like Access, but for the web, and the only thing I want to do over and above normal field editing would be to have a list of when I contact them, what was said, and perhaps a reminder when the next action is due. I've looked at so many CRMs my mind is boggling, and they all do WAY more than I need. I don't have leads or accounts, all I have is the need to make sure than when I update the person's details, and for that data to be in the same DB as my site is generate from. I'm happy to learn if I can get pointed in the right direction, and I have a feeling that something like what I want might lie in the direction of jquery. It's just that there's so much good jquery stuff about, I can't see the wood for the trees! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • IIS6, ASP.NET MVC 1 and random slowdowns

    - by Mr Snuffle
    I've recently deployed a MVC application to an IIS6 web server. One strange behaviour I've been having is the load times will randomly blow up to 30sec+ and then return to normal. Our tests have shown this occurring on multiple connections at the same time. Once the wait has passed, the site become responsive again. It's completely random when this will occur, but will probably happen about once every 15 minutes or so. My first thought was the application was being restarted by the web server for some reason, but I determined this wasn't the case because the process recycling is set very infrequently, and I placed some logging in the application startup. It's also nothing to do with the database connection. This slowdown happens simply by moving between static pages too. I've watched the database with a SQL profiler, and nothing is hitting it when these slowdowns occur. Finally, I've placed entry and exit logging on my controller actions, the slowdown always happens outside of the controller. The entry and exit time for a controller action is always appropriately fast. Does anyone have any ideas of what could be causing this? I've tried running it locally on IIS7 and I haven't had the issue. I can only think it's something to do with our hosting provider.

    Read the article

  • (RoR) How to: link multiple apps, multiple URLs, one database

    - by Samson
    Hello. I am currently developing a site using Ruby on Rails. I am still a beginner who just started around a month ago. I use InstantRails on Windows 7. Here's my question. Let's say app A is functional using MYSQL database A_development. The files such as views and controller are under folder 'A'. I now know how to, say for example, link www.app.com to this app by opening port 80 and changing some lines in the mySQL config. In this app, you can register your username, login, and post some messages. I now want to create some pretty identical apps say B and C. The only thing different will be the posts that shows, and the views. You can still log in with the same username, and everything is saved in the same database. I now want the URLs to look something like A.app.com leading to app A, B.app.com leading to app B, etc. Can that be achieved? How? I've been googling for a few days already and I'm still lost. As I'm new to this forum, I'm not quite sure what info do you guys need. Please list and I'll provide them asap. Any help will be appreciated! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • how to merge ecommerce transaction data between two databases

    - by yamspog
    We currently run an ecommerce solution for a leisure and travel company. Everytime we have a release, we must bring the ecommerce site down as we update database schema and the data access code. We are using a custom built ORM where each data entity is responsible for their own CRUD operations. This is accomplished by dynamically generating the SQL based on attributes in the data entity. For example, the data entity for an address would be... [tableName="address"] public class address : dataEntity { [column="address1"] public string address1; [column="city"] public string city; } So, if we add a new column to the database, we must update the schema of the database and also update the data entity. As you can expect, the business people are not too happy about this outage as it puts a crimp in their cash-flow. The operations people are not happy as they have to deal with a high-pressure time when database and applications are upgraded. The programmers are upset as they are constantly getting in trouble for the legacy system that they inherited. Do any of you smart people out there have some suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How do common web frameworks (Django, Rails, Symfony, etc) handle multiple instances of the same plu

    - by Steven Wei
    Do any of the popular web frameworks solve this problem well? Here's an example: suppose you're running one of these web frameworks and you want to install a blog plugin. Except instead of a single blog, you need to run two separate instances of the blog plugin, and you want to keep them segregated. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a user authentication plugin, because you want to segregate your administrative users from your customer user accounts. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a wiki plugin for different parts of your site, or multiple instances of a comments plugin, or whatever else. It seems to me that at the basic level, each instance of plugin would need to be able to configured with a different set of database tables, and would need to be 'installed' at a different URL path. My experience is mostly with Django and Symfony, and I haven't seen a clean solution to this problem in either of them. They both tend to assume that each plugin (or app, in Django's case) is only ever going to be installed once. I'm curious if the Rails folks have figured out a clean solution to this problem, or any other framework authors (in any language). And if you were going to design a solution to this problem, what would it look like?

    Read the article

  • Identify server that made call to web service

    - by sleepybobos
    I am working within an intranet environment. We have both a production and development sharepoint server (WSS 3). We have a 3rd party workflow product which runs on top of sharepoint. It is installed on both the production and development sharepoint servers. The workflow product can call web services I have written which are hosted on our web server. How would I have the web services determine which sharepoint server made the call to the web service, be it the production or development server? I would then use this information to server specific information from web.config or database etc. Currently the site hosting web services is setup to allow anonymous access so code such as System.Web.HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name; returns and empty string. If windows authenticaion is used it returns the identity of the currently logged in user, which is no user in identifying the server the call was made from. I need a push in the right direction to address what I believe is probably a common scenario please.

    Read the article

  • Changing where a resource is pulled during runtime?

    - by Brandon
    I have a website that goes out to multiple clients. Sometimes a client will insist on minor changes. For reasons beyond my control, I have to comply no matter how minor the request. Usually this isn't a problem, I would just create a client specific version of the user control or page and overwrite the default one during build time or make a configuration setting to handle it. Now that I am localizing the site, I'm curious about the best way to go about making minor wording changes. Lets say I have a resource file called Resources.resx that has 300 resources in it. It has a resource called Continue. English value is "Continue", the French value is "Continuez". Now one client, for whatever reason, wants it to say "Next" and "Après" and the others want to keep it the same. What is the best way to accomodate a request like this? (This is just a simple example). The only two ways I can think of is to Create another Resources.resx specific to the client, and replace the .dll during build time. Since I'd be completely replacing the dll, the new resource file would have to contain all 300 strings. The obvious problem being that I now have 2 resource files, each with 300 strings to maintain. Create a custom user control/page and change it to use a custom resource file. e.g. SignIn.ascx would be replaced during the build and it would pull its resources from ClientName.resx instead of Resources.resx. Are there any other things I could try? Is there any way to change it so that the application will always look in a ClientResources.resx file for the overridden values before actually look at the specified resource file?

    Read the article

  • maven repository issue

    - by Pratap Murukutla
    i have created a maven web project using the below site. http://www.mkyong.com/maven/how-to-create-a-web-application-project-with-maven/ i have done all of the steps given there and executed the simple hello world program Now i have to include spring dependencies into my eclipse web project. So <dependency> <groupId>org.springframework</groupId> <artifactId>spring</artifactId> <version>3.1.2</version> </dependency> in the dependencies tag i added the above code. It is saying as below unable to find jars from the repositories (local and as well as remote) it gave suggestion to execute the command mvn install -artifactid=springframework (something like this) but when i mentioned version as 2.5.6 it correctly take. is it the problem with the version 3.1.2 is unavailable at maven repository. how to get the latest versions if maven is not working properly for latest versions. It also gave me the suggestion to go for manually download and put in local repository

    Read the article

  • GWT RPC and GoDaddy Shared Hosting

    - by Mike Apolis
    Hi, I've deployed the sample Stock Watcher app to my GoDaddy Hosting site, and I get the error below. I've tried compiling the Project in Eclipse with JRE 1.5 because my Host is using jre 1.5. I think the issue is the "gwt-servlet.jar" is not compatible with jre 1.5. Can anyone confirm this. The project runs fine on my local machine using JRE 1.6. Unfortunately GoDaddy will not upgrade my shared hosting account jre to 1.6. GoDaddy Server Setup: Tomcat Version 5.0.27 JRE 1.5_22 Error: HTTP Status 500 - type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Error allocating a servlet instance org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) root cause java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError: Bad version number in .class file java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:621) java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java: 124) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java: 1634) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 860) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1307) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java: 1189) java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java: 117) org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java: 535) org.apache.catalina.authenticator.SingleSignOn.invoke(SingleSignOn.java: 417) org.apache.coyote.tomcat5.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java: 160) org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:300) org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:374) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:743) org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java: 675) org.apache.jk.common.SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:866) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool $ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:683) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.0.27 logs. Apache Tomcat/5.0.27

    Read the article

  • Android shared library which is not JNI based

    - by Mondain
    I am developing a library for Android applications which does not use native code (JNI). I have tried suppling the library as an external jar in my Android projects but this method does not include the library contents in the apk and thus throws class not found errors when run in the emulator or device. I have also tried creating the library as an Android project in itself and this does work, but only for public static properties (not methods). With the library and application both being in separate apk's I can see that the VM notices references to the library and can read some properties, but when an attempt to instantiate a class in the library is executed I get class not found even though I can read the public static properties from it (very frustrating!!). I realize that Davlik byte code is not the same as Java byte code but I am having trouble even finding good information about how to solve what would seem to be a very simple issue in Android. I am looking into the old PlatformLibrary stuff right now but I am not convinced this will work either since the sample has been removed from the Android site :( So help me out if you can, if I find the answer before this happens I will share it. viva la Android!

    Read the article

  • Why does instanceof seem to work in a static generic function sometimes?

    - by michael
    Greetings. This is my first post in this site. I thought that because of type erasure, one could not expect the following code to compile, and indeed, it did not compile on an earlier version of Eclipse. My understanding was that instanceof was a run-time operator and could not know about the generic type which would be, by run-time, compiled away: public static <E extends Comparable<? super E>> void SampleForQuestion(E e) { if ( !(e instanceof String) ) System.out.println("I am not a String"); else System.out.println("I am a String"); } However, I was surprised to see that one of your threads actually included some code like this in an answer, and my latest Eclipse (Galileo on Windows with JVM 1.6 rev 20) is perfectly happy with it -- and it works, too. (I did notice that someone said it worked on Eclipse but not in another IDE/JDK in that thread, but don't remember the specifics.) Can someone explain why it works, and more importantly, because I have to guide my students, whether it should be expected to work in the future. Thank you. (I hope the code formatting comes through correctly - it looks indented correctly from my perspective and there are no tabs.)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 869 870 871 872 873 874 875 876 877 878 879 880  | Next Page >