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  • Using XMLDecoder to cast Encoded XML to List<>

    - by Ender
    I am writing an application that reads in a large number of basic user details in the following format; once read in it then allows the user to search for a user's details using their email: NAME ROLE EMAIL --------------------------------------------------- Joe Bloggs Manager [email protected] John Smith Consultant [email protected] Alan Wright Tester [email protected] ... The problem I am suffering is that I need to store a large number of details of all people that have worked at the company. The file containing these details will be written on a yearly basis simply for reporting purposes, but the program will need to be able to access these details quickly. The way I aim to access these files is to have a program that asks the user for the name of the unique email of the member of staff and for the program to then return the name and the role from that line of the file. I've played around with text files, but am struggling with how I would handle multiple columns of data when it comes to searching this large file. What is the best format to store such data in? A text file? XML? The size doesn't bother me, but I'd like to be able to search it as quickly as possible. The file will need to contain a lot of entries, probably over the 10K mark over time. EDIT: I've decided to go with the XML serialisation method. I've managed to get the code for Encoding working perfectly, but the Decoding code below does not work. XMLDecoder d = new XMLDecoder( new BufferedInputStream(new FileInputStream("data.xml"))); List<Employee> list = (List<Employee>) d.readObject(); d.close(); for(Employee x : list) { if(x.getEmail().equals(userInput)) { // do stuff } } When the program hits List<Employee> list = (List<Employee>) d.readObject(); an exception is thrown claiming that "Employee cannot be cast to java.util.List". I've added a bounty to this and anyone that can help me solve this problem once and for all will get lots of lovely points. EDIT 2: I've looked a bit more into the problem and have come across Serialization as a potential answer. If anyone can look into this for me as I've no experience with Serialization or Deserialization I'd be very grateful. It can provide an Object with no problems whatsoever, but I really need to return it in the same format as it went in (List). EDIT 3: Ugh, this problem is really starting to drive me crazy and to be honest I'm starting to think that it's an unsolvable problem. If possible, could someone take a look at the code and help provide a solution for me?

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  • C# - Coding a nested stateflow diagram

    - by weberc2
    I have the following state diagram. I know how to make a simple state machine that transitions between non-nested states; however, I don't know how to transition between nested states. Could someone explain how to do this at an appropriately high level (i.e., you don't need to write the code for me--unless you're feeling particularly generous :P). State Diagram [EDIT: The bottom "A", "C", and "E" should be "B", "D", and "F" respectively; sorry!] What I know how to do public class MyState : State // State enumeration { public static MyState A = new MyState("State A"); public static MyState B = new MyState("State B"); public static MyState C = new MyState("State C"); public static MyState D = new MyState("State D"); public static MyState E = new MyState("State E"); public static MyState F = new MyState("State F"); public static MyState NEUT = new MyState("Neutral"); public static MyState P = new MyState("P"); protected MyState(string name) : base(name) { } } public class MyEvent : Event // Event enumeration { public static MyEvent X_POS = new MyEvent("X+"); public static MyEvent X_NEG = new MyEvent("X-"); public static MyEvent Y_POS = new MyEvent("Y+"); public static MyEvent Y_NEG = new MyEvent("Y-"); protected MyEvent(string name) : base(name) { } } public class MyStateMachine : StateMachine<MyState, MyEvent> // State Machine implementation { public MyStateMachine() : base(MyState.P) // MyState.P = initial state { // Set up the transition table // P this.addTransition(MYState.P, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_NEG); // NEUTRAL this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.P, MyEvent.Y_POS); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.A, MyEvent.Y_NEG); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.B, MyEvent.Y_POS); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.C, MyEvent.Y_NEG); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.D, MyEvent.Y_POS); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.E, MyEvent.Y_NEG); this.addTransition(MyState.NEUT, MyState.F, MyEvent.Y_POS); // A this.addTransition(MyState.A, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_POS); // B this.addTransition(MyState.B, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_NEG); // C this.addTransition(MyState.C, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_POS); // D this.addTransition(MyState.D, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_NEG); // E this.addTransition(MyState.E, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_POS); // F this.addTransition(MyState.F, MyState.NEUT, MyEvent.Y_NEG); } public void move(MyEvent eevent) { try { this.moveNext(eevent); } catch (Exception e) { } } }

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  • Linq-to-sql Compiled Query returning object NOT belonging to submitted DataContext

    - by Vladimir Kojic
    Compiled query: public static class Machines { public static readonly Func<OperationalDataContext, short, Machine> QueryMachineById = CompiledQuery.Compile((OperationalDataContext db, short machineID) => db.Machines.Where(m => m.MachineID == machineID).SingleOrDefault() ); public static Machine GetMachineById(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, short id) { Machine machine; // Old code (working) //var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); //machine = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == id).SingleOrDefault(); // New code (making problems) machine = QueryMachineById(unitOfWork.DataContext, id); return machine; } It looks like compiled query is caching Machine object and returning the same object even if query is called from new DataContext (I’m disposing DataContext in the service but I’m getting Machine from previous DataContext). I use POCOs and XML mapping. Revised: It looks like compiled query is returning result from new data context and it is not using the one that I passed in compiled-query. Therefore I can not reuse returned object and link it to another object obtained from datacontext thru non compiled queries. [TestMethod] public void GetMachinesTest() { // Test Preparation (not important) using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // GET ALL List<Machine> list = machineRepository.FindAll().ToList<Machine>(); VerifyIntegratedMachine(list[2], 3, "Machine 3", "333333", "G300PET", "MachineIconC.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, "10.0.97.3", "10.0.97.3", 0); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); Assert.AreSame(list[2], machine); // PASS !!!! } using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // GET ALL List<Machine> list = machineRepository.FindAll().ToList<Machine>(); VerifyIntegratedMachine(list[2], 3, "Machine 3", "333333", "G300PET", "MachineIconC.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, "10.0.97.3", "10.0.97.3", 0); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); Assert.AreSame(list[2], machine); // FAIL !!!! } } If I run other (complex) unit tests I'm getting as expected: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext.

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  • python RSA implemention with PKCS1

    - by user307016
    I got the following code in javascript for RSA implementionhttp://www-cs-students.stanford.edu/~tjw/jsbn/: // Return the PKCS#1 RSA encryption of "text" as an even-length hex string function RSAEncrypt(text) { var m = pkcs1pad2(text,(this.n.bitLength()+7)>>3); if(m == null) return null; var c = this.doPublic(m); if(c == null) return null; var h = c.toString(16); if((h.length & 1) == 0) return h; else return "0" + h; } // PKCS#1 (type 2, random) pad input string s to n bytes, and return a bigint function pkcs1pad2(s,n) { if(n < s.length + 11) { // TODO: fix for utf-8 alert("Message too long for RSA"); return null; } var ba = new Array(); var i = s.length - 1; while(i >= 0 && n > 0) { var c = s.charCodeAt(i--); if(c < 128) { // encode using utf-8 ba[--n] = c; } else if((c > 127) && (c < 2048)) { ba[--n] = (c & 63) | 128; ba[--n] = (c >> 6) | 192; } else { ba[--n] = (c & 63) | 128; ba[--n] = ((c >> 6) & 63) | 128; ba[--n] = (c >> 12) | 224; } } ba[--n] = 0; var rng = new SecureRandom(); var x = new Array(); while(n > 2) { // random non-zero pad x[0] = 0; while(x[0] == 0) rng.nextBytes(x); ba[--n] = x[0]; } ba[--n] = 2; ba[--n] = 0; return new BigInteger(ba); } In the snippets above, it seems that the pkcs1pad2 function is used for padding the message with some random bytes(maybe sth like 0|2|random|0 ) in front of the message. I'm using the python rsa package (http://stuvel.eu/rsa) for imitating the javascript result, i'm a newbie to python world and have no idea to traslate javascript algorithm code to the python code. Any help would be appreciated. Jiee

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  • sql: Group by x,y,z; return grouped by x,y with lowest f(z)

    - by Sai Emrys
    This is for http://cssfingerprint.com I collect timing stats about how fast the different methods I use perform on different browsers, etc., so that I can optimize the scraping speed. Separately, I have a report about what each method returns for a handful of URLs with known-correct values, so that I can tell which methods are bogus on which browsers. (Each is different, alas.) The related tables look like this: CREATE TABLE `browser_tests` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `bogus` tinyint(1) DEFAULT NULL, `result` tinyint(1) DEFAULT NULL, `method` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `url` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `os` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `browser` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `version` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `user_agent` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=33784 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 CREATE TABLE `method_timings` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `method` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `batch_size` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `timing` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `os` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `browser` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `version` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `user_agent` varchar(255) DEFAULT NULL, `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=28849 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 (user_agent is broken down pre-insert into browser, version, and os from a small list of recognized values using regex; I keep the original user-agent string just in case.) I have a query like this that tells me the average timing for every non-bogus browser / version / method tuple: select c, avg(bogus) as bog, timing, method, browser, version from browser_tests as b inner join ( select count(*) as c, round(avg(timing)) as timing, method, browser, version from method_timings group by browser, version, method having c > 10 order by browser, version, timing ) as t using (browser, version, method) group by browser, version, method having bog < 1 order by browser, version, timing; Which returns something like: c bog tim method browser version 88 0.8333 184 reuse_insert Chrome 4.0.249.89 18 0.0000 238 mass_insert_width Chrome 4.0.249.89 70 0.0400 246 mass_insert Chrome 4.0.249.89 70 0.0400 327 mass_noinsert Chrome 4.0.249.89 88 0.0556 367 reuse_reinsert Chrome 4.0.249.89 88 0.0556 383 jquery Chrome 4.0.249.89 88 0.0556 863 full_reinsert Chrome 4.0.249.89 187 0.0000 105 jquery Chrome 5.0.307.11 187 0.8806 109 reuse_insert Chrome 5.0.307.11 123 0.0000 110 mass_insert_width Chrome 5.0.307.11 176 0.0000 231 mass_noinsert Chrome 5.0.307.11 176 0.0000 237 mass_insert Chrome 5.0.307.11 187 0.0000 314 reuse_reinsert Chrome 5.0.307.11 187 0.0000 372 full_reinsert Chrome 5.0.307.11 12 0.7500 82 reuse_insert Chrome 5.0.335.0 12 0.2500 102 jquery Chrome 5.0.335.0 [...] I want to modify this query to return only the browser/version/method with the lowest timing - i.e. something like: 88 0.8333 184 reuse_insert Chrome 4.0.249.89 187 0.0000 105 jquery Chrome 5.0.307.11 12 0.7500 82 reuse_insert Chrome 5.0.335.0 [...] How can I do this, while still returning the method that goes with that lowest timing? I could filter it app-side, but I'd rather do this in mysql since it'd work better with my caching.

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  • How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

    - by FreshCode
    I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

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  • read user Input of custom dialogs

    - by urobo
    I built a custom dialog starting from an AlertDialog to obtain login information from a user. So the dialog contains two EditText fields, using the layoutinflater service I obtain the layout and I'm saving a reference to the fields. LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) Home.this.getSystemService(LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); layoutLogin = inflater.inflate(R.layout.login,(ViewGroup) findViewById(R.id.rl)); usernameInput =((EditText)findViewById(R.id.getNewUsername)); passwordInput = ((EditText)findViewById(R.id.getNewPassword)); Then I have my overridden onCreateDialog(...) : { AlertDialog d = null; AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); switch(id){ ... case Home.DIALOG_LOGIN: builder.setView(layoutLogin); builder.setMessage("Sign in to your DyCaPo Account").setCancelable(false); d=builder.create(); d.setTitle("Login"); Message msg = new Message(); msg.setTarget(Home.this.handleLogin); Bundle data = new Bundle(); data.putString("username", usernameInput.getText().toString());// <---null pointer Exception data.putString("password", passwordInput.getText().toString()); msg.setData(data); d.setButton(Dialog.BUTTON_NEUTRAL,"Sign in",msg); break; ... return d; } and the handler set in the Message: private Handler handleLogin= new Handler(){ /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.os.Handler#handleMessage(android.os.Message) */ @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Log.d("Message Received", msg.getData().getString("username")+ msg.getData().getString("password")); } }; which for now works as a debugging tool. That's all. The Question is: what am I doing wrong? Because when I reach the line highlighted in the code ( the line in which I read the fields in the dialog ) I always get a null pointer exception. Could somebody please tell me the reason why it is so? And give some guidelines to work with dialogs. Thanks in advance!

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  • spring jboss ehcache

    - by boyd4715
    I am trying to configure my application to make use of ehCache. I am using Spring 2.5.6, Jboss 5.1.0 GA and its embedded version of Hibernate along with ehCache-core V2.3.1. I have done the following configuration: <property name="hibernateProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect</prop> <prop key="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</prop> <prop key="hibernate.show_sql">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.jdbc.batch_size">20</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</prop> <prop key="net.sf.ehcache.configurationResourceName">ehcache.xml</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.use_structured_entries">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.generate_statistics">true</prop> <!-- prop key="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.region.factory_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheRegionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">true</prop> <prop key="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</prop--> </props> </property> This is my ehcache.xml <defaultCache eternal="false" overflowToDisk="false" maxElementsInMemory="50000" timeToIdleSeconds="30" timeToLiveSeconds="6000" memoryStoreEvictionPolicy="LRU" /> <cache name="com.model.SystemProperty" maxElementsInMemory="5000" eternal="true" overflowToDisk="false" memoryStoreEvictionPolicy="LFU" /> This file is located in my class path. I have added the following to my domain object: @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE, region="vsg.ecotrak.admin.store.domain.Store", include="non-lazy") When I start up the server, it gets stuck. Here is the output: 13:17:09,000 INFO [SettingsFactory] Second-level cache: enabled 13:17:09,000 INFO [SettingsFactory] Query cache: enabled 13:17:09,016 INFO [SettingsFactory] Cache region factory : org.hibernate.cache.impl.bridge.RegionFactoryCacheProviderBridge 13:17:09,017 INFO [RegionFactoryCacheProviderBridge] Cache provider: net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider Any Ideal as to why this is happening? I am running on a Windows 7 64 bit if that matters. I downgraded the ehcache jar to V 1.2.3 and the server now starts.

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  • How does the Twitter rate limit API work with multiple accounts?

    - by dfrankow
    I know there's a Rest API to check the Twitter rate limit. To summarize policy: 150 for an IP, and 150 per non-whitelisted account except for searches (which are IP only). However, my app is using Twython, authenticated, but the limit seems to decrease for both my accounts as I use it. Example: No authentication: $ wget http://api.twitter.com/1/account/rate_limit_status.xml -O - <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <hash> <hourly-limit type="integer">150</hourly-limit> <reset-time-in-seconds type="integer">1266968961</reset-time-in-seconds> <reset-time type="datetime">2010-02-23T23:49:21+00:00</reset-time> <remaining-hits type="integer">134</remaining-hits> </hash> Authentication with account #1: $ wget --user b... --password=youwish http://api.twitter.com/1/account/rate_limit_status.xml -O - <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <hash> <reset-time-in-seconds type="integer">1266968961</reset-time-in-seconds> <reset-time type="datetime">2010-02-23T23:49:21+00:00</reset-time> <remaining-hits type="integer">134</remaining-hits> <hourly-limit type="integer">150</hourly-limit> </hash> Authentication with account #2: $ wget --user d... --password=youwish http://api.twitter.com/1/account/rate_limit_status.xml -O - <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <hash> <reset-time type="datetime">2010-02-23T23:49:21+00:00</reset-time> <remaining-hits type="integer">134</remaining-hits> <hourly-limit type="integer">150</hourly-limit> <reset-time-in-seconds type="integer">1266968961</reset-time-in-seconds> </hash> You see how both accounts seem to have exactly the same rate limit info (134/150)? I only used one account in my app, so why do both accounts show decrease?

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  • CakePHP Help with Blog Tutorial

    - by Cameron
    I've just been following the tutorial on the CakePHP website to create a simple Blog as a way to learn a bit about Cake. However I have run into an error and not sure why as I have followed exactly what the tutorial says. The errors: Notice (8): Undefined property: View::$Html [APP/views/posts/index.ctp, line 17] Fatal error: Call to a member function link() on a non-object in /Users/cameron/Sites/dentist/app/views/posts/index.ctp on line 17 Here is my posts_controller <?php class PostsController extends AppController { var $helpers = array('Html', 'Form'); var $name = 'Posts'; function index() { $this->set('posts', $this->Post->find('all')); } function view($id = null) { $this->Post->id = $id; $this->set('post', $this->Post->read()); } } ?> and here is my model <?php class Post extends AppModel { var $name = 'Post'; } ?> and here are my views <!-- File: /app/views/posts/index.ctp --> <h1>Blog posts</h1> <table> <tr> <th>Id</th> <th>Title</th> <th>Created</th> </tr> <!-- Here is where we loop through our $posts array, printing out post info --> <?php foreach ($posts as $post): ?> <tr> <td><?php echo $post['Post']['id']; ?></td> <td> <?php echo $this->Html->link($post['Post']['title'], array('controller' => 'posts', 'action' => 'view', $post['Post']['id'])); ?> </td> <td><?php echo $post['Post']['created']; ?></td> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> </table>

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  • SSH login with expect(1). How to exit expect and remain in SSH?

    - by Koroviev
    So I wanted to automate my SSH logins. The host I'm with doesn't allow key authentication on this server, so I had to be more inventive. I don't know much about shell scripting, but some research showed me the command 'expect' and some scripts using it for exactly this purpose. I set up a script and ran it, it worked perfectly to login. #!/usr/bin/env expect -f set password "my_password" match_max 1000 spawn ssh -p 2222 "my_username"@11.22.11.22 expect "*?assword:*" send -- "$password\r" send -- "\r" expect eof Initially, it runs as it should. Last login: Wed May 12 21:07:52 on ttys002 esther:~ user$ expect expect-test.exp spawn ssh -p 2222 [email protected] [email protected]'s password: Last login: Wed May 12 15:44:43 2010 from 20.10.20.10 -jailshell-3.2$ But that's where the success ends. Commands do not work, but hitting enter just makes a new line. Arrow keys and other non-alphanumeric keys produce symbols like '^[[C', '^[[A', '^[OQ' etc.[1] No other prompt appears except the two initially created by the expect script. Any ignored commands will be executed by my local shell once expect times out. An example: -jailshell-3.2$ whoami ls pwd hostname (...time passes, expect times out...) esther:~ user$ whoami user esther:~ ciaran$ ls Books Documents Movies Public Code Downloads Music Sites Desktop Library Pictures expect-test.exp esther:~ ciaran$ pwd /Users/ciaran esther:~ ciaran$ hostname esther.local As I said, I have no shell scripting experience, but I think it's being caused because I'm still "inside of" expect, but not "inside of" SSH. Is there any way to terminate expect once I've logged in, and have it hand over the SSH session to me? I've tried commands like 'close' and 'exit', after " send -- "\r" ". Yeah, they do what I want and expect dies, but it vindictively takes the SSH session down with it, leaving me back where I started. What I really need is for expect to do its job and terminate, leaving the SSH session back in my hands as if I did it manually. All help is appreciated, thanks. [1] I know there's a name for this, but I don't know what it is. And this is one of those frightening things which can't be googled, because the punctuation characters are ignored. As a side question, what's the story here?

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  • Colorbox class don't work with ajax/dom object

    - by almal
    i usually use colorbox tool for open "popup windows" in my page and all are fine. In my new project the situation is little different because i use js/ajax/dom for create dinamically my objects in handleRequestStateChange() function. After import js,jquery and css for colorbox, in the head of my js page i write: $(document).ready(function () { $(window).scroll(function () { //oP1 = document.createTextNode(posizione_menu.offsetTop); //divIpt.appendChild(oMtx1); $(".divHcss").css("position", "fixed").css("top", "0px").css("z-index", "999"); }); //Examples of how to assign the Colorbox event to elements $(".group1").colorbox({rel:'group1'}); $(".group2").colorbox({rel:'group2', transition:"fade"}); $(".group3").colorbox({rel:'group3', transition:"none", width:"75%", height:"75%"}); $(".group4").colorbox({rel:'group4', slideshow:true}); $(".ajax").colorbox(); $(".youtube").colorbox({iframe:true, innerWidth:640, innerHeight:390}); $(".vimeo").colorbox({iframe:true, innerWidth:500, innerHeight:409}); $(".iframe").colorbox({iframe:true, width:"80%", height:"80%"}); $(".inline").colorbox({inline:true, width:"50%"}); $(".callbacks").colorbox({ onOpen:function(){ alert('onOpen: colorbox is about to open'); }, onLoad:function(){ alert('onLoad: colorbox has started to load the targeted content'); }, onComplete:function(){ alert('onComplete: colorbox has displayed the loaded content'); }, onCleanup:function(){ alert('onCleanup: colorbox has begun the close process'); }, onClosed:function(){ alert('onClosed: colorbox has completely closed'); } }); $('.non-retina').colorbox({rel:'group5', transition:'none'}) $('.retina').colorbox({rel:'group5', transition:'none', retinaImage:true, retinaUrl:true}); //Example of preserving a JavaScript event for inline calls. $("#click").click(function(){ $('#click').css({"background-color":"#f00", "color":"#fff", "cursor":"inherit"}).text("Open this window again and this message will still be here."); return false; }); }); and after in handleRequestStateChange() i create my a element and assign to a div: var a = createElement('a'); //a.style.display = "block"; a.setAttribute('class','iframe'); a.setAttribute('href',"php/whois.php?P1="+oStxt.value); var divIp3 = createElement('div', 'divIp3', 'divIp3css'); var divIp31 = createElement('div', 'divIp31', 'divIp31css'); divIp3.appendChild(divIp31); divIp3.appendChild(a); a.appendChild(divIp31); The divIp31 become linkable but the href open page in a normal browser tab and not using attribute class for colorbox. Someone have an idea about? Thanks in advance AM

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  • Is One Tool or a Suite of Tools Better for Scrum?

    - by Rob Wells
    G'day, Edit: We've been using Scrum very successfully for several years on several projects of varying sizes. In fact, our team developed the successful iPlayer project for the BBC using a classical Scrum approach. After using various combinations of tools, some high-tech, some low-tech, across these projects we now wish to try adopting a suitable tool suite. Our manager is to some extent attempting to force the adoption of a single suite of tools for Scrum. I've looked at the SO question "Best Scrum tools" and most people seem to recommend either: a suite of low-tech solutions, e.g. whiteboards, post-its, index cards, etc., or a monolithic tool that tries to satisfy as much as possible of the process, e.g. Agilo, Mingle, ScrumWorks, Target Process, etc. Our team is currently evaluating several different Scrum tools. However, we are looking at selecting a single, monolithic tool, e.g. Agilo. All of the "one-stop" solutions have their strengths and weaknesses with the serious enterprise type solutions being the best sort of fit. But all have some short comings. After reading the paper "Peer Code Review: An Agile Process" over at SmartBear I started wondering if we were trying to force adoption of a tool on a "best fit" basis. I think you can take a couple of reference artefacts of the Scrum development process, say user stories, epics and themes, and the code base which must use a well-known SCM, e.g. SVN, Hg, etc. Then if we take that as the common reference points for the tools employed then we would be able to use a group of tools to handle the different aspects of the Scrum process rather than try forcing a fit of a single tool would is a bit like forcing a square peg into the round hole. In this way, providing you've agreed your common reference points, you can use several tools, each performing their role better than a could be done by a single component in a monolithic tool suite. Is this a more sensible approach? Are the two reference points I mentioned above suitable, or is their a better choice of points where the tools would meet? cheers,

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  • How can I take the first 100 characters of html content ( without stripping the TAGS! )

    - by Atomiton
    There are lots of questions on how to strip html tags, but not many on functions/methods to close them. Here's the situation. I have a 500 character Message summary ( which includes html tags ), but I only want the first 100 characters. Problem is if I truncate the message, it could be in the middle of an html tag... which messes up stuff. Assuming the html is something like this: <div class="bd">"Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. <br/> <br/>Some Dates: April 30 - May 2, 2010 <br/> <p>Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. <em>Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit</em> in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum. <br/> </p> For more information about Lorem Ipsum doemdloe, visit: <br/> <a href="http://www.somesite.com" title="Some Conference">Some text link</a><br/> </div> How would I take the first ~100 characters or so? ( Although, ideally that would be the first approximately 100 characters of "CONTENT" ( in between the html tags ) I'm assuming the best way to do this would be a recursive algorithm that keeps track of the html tags and appends any tags that would be truncated, but that may not be the best approach. My first thoughts are using recursion to count nested tags, and when we reach 100 characters, look for the next "<" and then use recursion to write the closing html tags needed from there. The reason for doing this is to make a short summary of existing articles without requiring the user to go back and provide summaries for all the articles. I want to keep the html formatting, if possible. NOTE: Please ignore that the html isn't totally semantic. This is what I have to deal with from my WYSIWYG. EDIT: I added a potential solution ( that seems to work ) I figure others will run into this problem as well. I'm not sure it's the best... and it's probably not totally robust ( in fact, I know it isn't ), but I'd appreciate any feedback

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  • How to use Broadcast Receiver in different Applications in Android?

    - by Sebi
    Hi I have here two applications in two different projects in eclipse. One application (A) defines an activity (A1) which is started first. Then i start from this activity the second activity (B1) in the second project (B). This works fine. I start it the following way: Intent intent = new Intent("pacman.intent.action.Launch"); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_SINGLE_TOP); startActivity(intent); Now i want to send intents bewtween the two activities by using broadcast receivers. In activity A1 i send the intents the following way: Intent intent = new Intent("pacman.intent.action.BROADCAST"); intent.putExtra("message","Wake up."); sendBroadcast(intent); The part of the manifest file in activity A1 that is responsible for this broadcast is the following: <activity android:name="ch.ifi.csg.games4blue.games.pacman.controller.PacmanGame" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.BROADCAST" /> </intent-filter> </activity> In the receiving activity, I define the receiver the following way in the manifest file: <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".PacmanGame" android:label="@string/app_name" android:screenOrientation="portrait"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="pacman.intent.action.Launch" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> <receiver android:name="ch.ifi.csg.games4blue.games.pacman.controller.MsgListener" /> </activity> </application> The class message listener is implemented this way: public class MsgListener extends BroadcastReceiver { /* (non-Javadoc) * @see android.content.BroadcastReceiver#onReceive(android.content.Context, android.content.Intent) */ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { System.out.println("Message at Pacman received!"); } } Unfortunately, the message is never received. Although the method in activity A1 is called, i never receive an intent in B1. Any hints how to solve this? Thanks a lot!

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  • Windows forms application blocks after station lock

    - by Silviu
    We're having a serious issue at work. We've discovered that after the station where the client was running is locked/unlocked the client is blocked. No repaint. So the UI thread is blocked with something. Looking at the callstack of the UI thread (thread 0) using windbg we see that a UserPreferenceChanged event gets raised. It is marshalled through a WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext using it's controlToSend field to the UI. It gets blocked by a call to the marshalling control. The method called is MarshaledInvoke it builds a ThreadMethodEntry entry = new ThreadMethodEntry(caller, method, args, synchronous, executionContext); This entry is supposed to do the magic. The call is a synchronous call and because of that (still in the MarshaledInvoke of the Control class) the wait call is reached: if (!entry.IsCompleted) { this.WaitForWaitHandle(entry.AsyncWaitHandle); } The last thing that i can see on the stack is the WaitOne called on the previously mentioned AsyncWaitHandle. This is very annoying because having just the callstack of the runtime and not one of our methods being invoked we cannot really point to a bug in our code. I might be wrong, but I'm guessing that the marshaling control is not "marshaling" to the ui thread. But another one...i don't really know which one because the other threads are being used by us and are blocked...maybe this is the issue. But none of the other threads are running a message loop. This is very annoying. We had some issues in the past with marshaling controls to the right ui thread. That is because the first form that is constructed is a splash form. Which is not the main form. We used to use the main form to marshal call to the ui thread. But from time to time some calls would go to a non ui thread and some grids would broke with a big red X on them. I fixed this by creating a specific class: public class WindowsFormsSynchronizer { private static readonly WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext = new WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext(); //Methods are following that would build the same interface of the synchronization context. } This class gets build as one of the first objects in the first form being constructed. We've noticed some other strange thing. Looking at the heap there are 7 WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext objects. 6 of these have the same instance of controlToSend, and the other one has some different instance of controlToSend. This last one is the one that should marshal the calls to the UI. I don't have any other idea...maybe some of you guys had this same issue?

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  • JFace ApplicationWindow: createContents isn't working

    - by jasonh
    I'm attempting to create a window that is divided into three parts. A non-resizable header and footer and then a content area that expands to fill the remaining area in the window. To get started, I created the following class: public class MyWindow extends ApplicationWindow { Color white; Font mainFont; Font headerFont; public MyWindow() { super(null); } protected Control createContents(Composite parent) { Display currentDisplay = Display.getCurrent(); white = new Color(currentDisplay, 255, 255, 255); mainFont = new Font(currentDisplay, "Tahoma", 8, 0); headerFont = new Font(currentDisplay, "Tahoma", 16, 0); // Main layout Composites and overall FillLayout Composite container = new Composite(parent, SWT.NO_RADIO_GROUP); Composite header = new Composite(container, SWT.NO_RADIO_GROUP); Composite mainContents = new Composite(container, SWT.NO_RADIO_GROUP);; Composite footer = new Composite(container, SWT.NO_RADIO_GROUP);; FillLayout containerLayout = new FillLayout(SWT.VERTICAL); container.setLayout(containerLayout); // Header Label headerLabel = new Label(header, SWT.LEFT); headerLabel.setText("Header"); headerLabel.setFont(headerFont); // Main contents Label contentsLabel = new Label(mainContents, SWT.CENTER); contentsLabel.setText("Main Content Here"); contentsLabel.setFont(mainFont); // Footer Label footerLabel = new Label(footer, SWT.CENTER); footerLabel.setText("Footer Here"); footerLabel.setFont(mainFont); return container; } public void dispose() { cleanUp(); } @Override protected void finalize() throws Throwable { cleanUp(); super.finalize(); } private void cleanUp() { if (headerFont != null) { headerFont.dispose(); } if (mainFont != null) { mainFont.dispose(); } if (white != null) { white.dispose(); } } } And this results in an empty window when I run it like this: public static void main(String[] args) { MyWindow myWindow = new MyWindow(); myWindow.setBlockOnOpen(true); myWindow.open(); Display.getCurrent().dispose(); } What am I doing wrong that I don't see three labels the way I'm trying to display them? The createContents code is definitely being called, I can step through it in Eclipse in debug mode.

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  • WinQual: Why would WER not accept code-signing certificates?

    - by Ian Boyd
    In 2005 i tried to establish a WinQual account with Microsoft, so i could pick up our (if any) crash dump files submitted automatically through Windows Error Reporting (WER). i was not allowed to have my crash dumps, because i don't have a Verisign certificate. Instead i have a cheaper one, generated by a Verisign subsidiary: Thawte. The method in which you join is: you digitally sign a sample exe they provide. This proves that you are the same signer that signed apps that they got crash dumps from in the wild. Cryptographically, the private key is needed to generate a digital signature on an executable. Only the holder of that private key can create a signature with for the matching public key. It doesn't matter who generated that private key. That includes certificates that are generated from: self-signing Wells Fargo DigiCert SecureTrust Trustware QuoVadis GoDaddy Entrust Cybertrust GeoTrust GlobalSign Comodo Thawte Verisign Yet Microsof's WinQual only accepts digital certificates generated by Verisign. Not even Verisign's subsidiaries are good enough (Thawte). Can anyone think of any technical, legal or ethical reason why Microsoft doesn't want to accept code-signing certificates? The WinQual site says: Why Is a Digital Certificate Required for Winqual Membership? A digital certificate helps protect your company from individuals who seek to impersonate members of your staff or who would otherwise commit acts of fraud against your company. Using a digital certificate enables proof of an identity for a user or an organization. Is somehow a Thawte digital certificate not secure? Two years later, i sent a reminder notice to WinQual that i've been waiting to be able to get at my crash dumps. The response from WinQual team was: Hello, Thanks for the reminder. We have notified the appropriate people that this is still a request. In 2008 i asked this question in a Microsoft support forum, and the response was: We are only setup to accept VeriSign Certificates at this point. We have not had an overwhelming demand to support other types of certificates. What can it possibly mean to not be "setup" to accept other kinds of certificates? If the thumbprint of the key that signed the WinQual.exe test app is the same as the thumbprint that signed the executable who's crash dump you got in the wild: it is proven - they are my crash dumps, give them to me. And it's not like there's a special API to check if a Verisign digital signature is valid, as opposed to all other digital signatures. A valid signature is valid no matter who generated the key. Microsoft is free to not trust the signer, but that's not the same as identity. So that is my question, can anyone think of any practical reason why WinQual isn't setup to support digital signatures? One person theorized that the answer is that they're just lazy: Not that I know but I would assume that the team running the winQual system is a live team and not a dev team - as in, personality and skillset geared towards maintenance of existing systems. I could be wrong though. They don't want to do work to change it. But can anyone think of anything that would need to be changed? It's the same logic no matter what generated the key: "does the thumbprint match". What am i missing?

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  • Performing dynamic sorts on EF4 data

    - by Jaxidian
    I'm attempting to perform dynamic sorting of data that I'm putting into grids into our MVC UI. Since MVC is abstracted from everything else via WCF, I've created a couple utility classes and extensions to help with this. The two most important things (slightly simplified) are as follows: public static IQueryable<T> ApplySortOptions<T, TModel, TProperty>(this IQueryable<T> collection, IEnumerable<ISortOption<TModel, TProperty>> sortOptions) where TModel : class { var sortedSortOptions = (from o in sortOptions orderby o.Priority ascending select o).ToList(); var results = collection; foreach (var option in sortedSortOptions) { var currentOption = option; var propertyName = currentOption.Property.MemberWithoutInstance(); var isAscending = currentOption.IsAscending; if (isAscending) { results = from r in results orderby propertyName ascending select r; } else { results = from r in results orderby propertyName descending select r; } } return results; } public interface ISortOption<TModel, TProperty> where TModel : class { Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> Property { get; set; } bool IsAscending { get; set; } int Priority { get; set; } } I've not given you the implementation for MemberWithoutInstance() but just trust me in that it returns the name of the property as a string. :-) Following is an example of how I would consume this (using a non-interesting, basic implementation of ISortOption<TModel, TProperty>): var query = from b in CurrentContext.Businesses select b; var sortOptions = new List<ISortOption<Business, object>> { new SortOption<Business, object> { Property = (x => x.Name), IsAscending = true, Priority = 0 } }; var results = query.ApplySortOptions(sortOptions); As I discovered with this question, the problem is specific to my orderby propertyName ascending and orderby propertyName descending lines (everything else works great as far as I can tell). How can I do this in a dynamic/generic way that works properly?

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  • Http Modules are called on every request when using mvc/routing module

    - by MartinF
    I am developing a http module that hooks into the FormsAuthentication Module through the Authenticate event. While debugging i noticed that the module (and all other modules registered) gets hit every single time the client requests a resource (also when it requests images, stylesheets, javascript files (etc.)). This happens both when running on a IIS 7 server in integrated pipeline mode, and debugging through the webdev server (in non- integrated pipeline mode) As i am developing a website with a lot images which usually wont be cached by the client browser it will hit the modules a lot of unnessecary times. I am using MVC and its routing mechanishm (System.Web.Routing.UrlRoutingModule). When creating a new website the runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute for the IIS 7 (system.webServer) section is per default set to true in the web.config, which as the name indicates make it call all modules for every single request. If i set the runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests attribute to false, no modules will get called. It seems that the reason for this is because of the routing module or mvc (dont know excactly why), which causes that the asp.net (aspx) handler never gets called and therefore the events and the modules never gets called (one time only like supposed). I tested this by trying to call "mydomain.com/Default.aspx" instead of just "mydomain.com/" and correctly it calls the modules only once like it is supposed. How do i fix this so it only calls the modules once when the page is requested and not also when all other resources are requested ? Is there some way i can register that all requests should fire the asp.net (aspx) handler, except requests for specific filetype extensions ? Of course that wont fix the problem if i choose to go with urls like /content/images/myimage123 for the images (without the extension). But i cant think of any other way to fix it. Is there a better way to solve this problem ? I have tried to set up an ignoreRoute like this routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); where the content folder contains all the images, javascripts and stylesheets in seperat subfolders, but it doesnt seem to change anything. I can see there a many different possibilites when setting up a handler but I cant seem to figure out how it should be possible to setup one that will make it possible to use the routing module and have urls like /blog/post123 and not call the modules when requesting images, javascripts and stylesheets (etc.). Hope anyone out there can help me ? Martin

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  • Complex error handling

    - by Caspin
    I've got a particularly ornery piece of network code. I'm using asio but that really doesn't matter for this question. I assume there is no way to unbind a socket other than closing it. The problem is that open(), bind(), and listen() can all throw a system_error. So I handled the code with a simple try/catch. The code as written in broken. using namespace boost::asio; class Thing { public: ip::tcp::endpoint m_address; ip::tcp::acceptor m_acceptor; /// connect should handle all of its exceptions internally. bool connect() { try { m_acceptor.open( m_address.protocol() ); m_acceptor.set_option( tcp::acceptor::reuse_address(true) ); m_acceptor.bind( m_address ); m_acceptor.listen(); m_acceptor.async_accept( /*stuff*/ ); } catch( const boost::system::system_error& error ) { assert(acceptor.is_open()); m_acceptor.close(); return false; } return true; } /// don't call disconnect unless connect previously succeeded. void disconnect() { // other stuff needed to disconnect is ommited m_acceptor.close(); } }; The error is if the socket fails to connect it will try to close it in the catch block and throw another system_error about closing an acceptor that has never been opened. One solution is to add an if( acceptor.is_open() ) in the catch block but that tastes wrong. Kinda like mixing C-style error checking with c++ exceptions. If I where to go that route, I may as well use the non-throwing version of open(). boost::system::error_code error; acceptor.open( address.protocol, error ); if( ! error ) { try { acceptor.set_option( tcp::acceptor::reuse_address(true) ); acceptor.bind( address ); acceptor.listen(); acceptor.async_accept( /*stuff*/ ); } catch( const boost::system::system_error& error ) { assert(acceptor.is_open()); acceptor.close(); return false; } } return !error; Is there an elegant way to handle these possible exceptions using RAII and try/catch blocks? Am I just wrong headed in trying to avoid if( error condition ) style error handling when using exceptions?

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  • Fixed point math in c#?

    - by x4000
    Hi there, I was wondering if anyone here knows of any good resources for fixed point math in c#? I've seen things like this (http://2ddev.72dpiarmy.com/viewtopic.php?id=156) and this (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/79677/whats-the-best-way-to-do-fixed-point-math), and a number of discussions about whether decimal is really fixed point or actually floating point (update: responders have confirmed that it's definitely floating point), but I haven't seen a solid C# library for things like calculating cosine and sine. My needs are simple -- I need the basic operators, plus cosine, sine, arctan2, PI... I think that's about it. Maybe sqrt. I'm programming a 2D RTS game, which I have largely working, but the unit movement when using floating-point math (doubles) has very small inaccuracies over time (10-30 minutes) across multiple machines, leading to desyncs. This is presently only between a 32 bit OS and a 64 bit OS, all the 32 bit machines seem to stay in sync without issue, which is what makes me think this is a floating point issue. I was aware from this as a possible issue from the outset, and so have limited my use of non-integer position math as much as possible, but for smooth diagonal movement at varying speeds I'm calculating the angle between points in radians, then getting the x and y components of movement with sin and cos. That's the main issue. I'm also doing some calculations for line segment intersections, line-circle intersections, circle-rect intersections, etc, that also probably need to move from floating-point to fixed-point to avoid cross-machine issues. If there's something open source in Java or VB or another comparable language, I could probably convert the code for my uses. The main priority for me is accuracy, although I'd like as little speed loss over present performance as possible. This whole fixed point math thing is very new to me, and I'm surprised by how little practical information on it there is on google -- most stuff seems to be either theory or dense C++ header files. Anything you could do to point me in the right direction is much appreciated; if I can get this working, I plan to open-source the math functions I put together so that there will be a resource for other C# programmers out there. UPDATE: I could definitely make a cosine/sine lookup table work for my purposes, but I don't think that would work for arctan2, since I'd need to generate a table with about 64,000x64,000 entries (yikes). If you know any programmatic explanations of efficient ways to calculate things like arctan2, that would be awesome. My math background is all right, but the advanced formulas and traditional math notation are very difficult for me to translate into code.

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  • trouble with utf-8 chars & apache2 rewrite rules

    - by tixrus
    I see the post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2565864/validating-utf-8-in-htaccess-rewrite-rule and I think that is great, but a more fundamental problem I am having first: I needed to expand to handle utf-8 chars for query string parameters, names of directories, files, and used in displays to users etc. I configured my Apache with DefaultCharset utf-8 and also my php if that matters. My original rewrite rule filtered everything except regular A-Za-z and underscore and hyphen. and it worked. Anything else would give you a 404 (which is what I want!) Now, however it seems that everything matches, including stuff I don't want, however, although it seems to match it doesn't go in the query string unless it is a regular A-Za-z_- character string. I find this confusing, because the rule says put whatever you matched into the query string: Here is the original rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/([A-Za-z_-]+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] and here is the revised rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/(\w+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] I made the change because somewhere I read that \w matches ALL the alpha chars where as A-Zetc. only matches the ones without accents and stuff. It doesn't seem to matter which of those rules I use: Here is what happens: In the application I have this: echo $_GET['g']; If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/USA it echoes out "USA" and works fine. If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/México it echoes nothing for that and warns me that index g is not defined and of course doesn't get resources for Mexico. if I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/fuzzle/buzzle/j.qle it does the same thing. This last case should be a 404! And it does this no matter which of the above rules I use. I configured a rewrite log RewriteLogLevel 5 RewriteLog /opt/local/apache2/logs/puzzles.httpd.rewrite but it is empty. Here is from the regular access log (it gives a status of 200) [26/May/2010:11:21:42 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M%C3%A9xico HTTP/1.1" 200 342 [26/May/2010:11:21:54 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M/l.foo HTTP/1.1" 200 342 What can I do to get these $%#$@(*#@!!! characters but not slash, dot or other non-alpha into my program, and once there, will it decode them correctly??? Would posix char classes work any better? Is there anything else I need to configure?

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  • ASP.NET MVC, Webform hybrid

    - by Greg Ogle
    We (me and my team) have a ASP.NET MVC application and we are integrating a page or two that are Web Forms. We are trying to reuse the Master Page from our MVC part of the app in the WebForms part. We have found a way of rendering an MVC partial view in web forms, which works great, until we try and do a postback, which is the reason for using a WebForm. The Error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. The Code to render the partial view from a WebForm (credited to "How to include a partial view inside a webform"): public static class WebFormMVCUtil { public static void RenderPartial(string partialName, object model) { //get a wrapper for the legacy WebForm context var httpCtx = new HttpContextWrapper(System.Web.HttpContext.Current); //create a mock route that points to the empty controller var rt = new RouteData(); rt.Values.Add("controller", "WebFormController"); //create a controller context for the route and http context var ctx = new ControllerContext( new RequestContext(httpCtx, rt), new WebFormController()); //find the partial view using the viewengine var view = ViewEngines.Engines.FindPartialView(ctx, partialName).View; //create a view context and assign the model var vctx = new ViewContext(ctx, view, new ViewDataDictionary { Model = model }, new TempDataDictionary()); //ERROR OCCURS ON THIS LINE view.Render(vctx, System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Output); } } My only experience with this error is in context of a web farm, which is not the case. Also, I understand that the machine key is used for decrypting the ViewState. Any information on how to diagnose this issue would be appreciated. A Work-around: So far the work-around is to move the header content to a PartialView, then use an AJAX call to call a page with just the Partial View from the WebForms, and then using the PartialView directly on the MVC Views. Also, we are still able to share non-tech-specific parts of the Master Page, i.e. anything that is not MVC specific. Still yet, this is not an ideal solution, a server-side solution is still desired. Also, this solutino has issues when working with controls that have more sophisticated controls, using JavaScript, particularly dynamically generated script as used by 3rd party controls.

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  • Can LINQ-to-SQL omit unspecified columns on insert so a database default value is used?

    - by Todd Ropog
    I have a non-nullable database column which has a default value set. When inserting a row, sometimes a value is specified for the column, sometimes one is not. This works fine in TSQL when the column is omitted. For example, given the following table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Table1]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [col1] [nvarchar](50) NOT NULL, [col2] [nvarchar](50) NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Table1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([id] ASC) ) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Table1] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_Table1_col1] DEFAULT ('DB default') FOR [col1] The following two statements will work: INSERT INTO Table1 (col1, col2) VALUES ('test value', '') INSERT INTO Table1 (col2) VALUES ('') In the second statement, the default value is used for col1. The problem I have is when using LINQ-to-SQL (L2S) with a table like this. I want to produce the same behavior, but I can't figure out how to make L2S do that. I want to be able to run the following code and have the first row get the value I specify and the second row get the default value from the database: var context = new DataClasses1DataContext(); var row1 = new Table1 { col1 = "test value", col2 = "" }; context.Table1s.InsertOnSubmit(row1); context.SubmitChanges(); var row2 = new Table1 { col2 = "" }; context.Table1s.InsertOnSubmit(row2); context.SubmitChanges(); If the Auto Generated Value property of col1 is False, the first row is created as desired, but the second row fails with a null error on col1. If Auto Generated Value is True, both rows are created with the default value from the database. I've tried various combinations of Auto Generated Value, Auto-Sync and Nullable, but nothing I've tried gives the behavior I want. L2S does not omit the column from the insert statement when no value is specified. Instead it does something like this: INSERT INTO Table1 (col1, col2) VALUES (null, '') ...which of course causes a null error on col1. Is there some way to get L2S to omit a column from the insert statement if no value is given? Or is there some other way to get the behavior I want? I need the default value at the database level because not all row inserts are done via L2S, and in some cases the default value is a little more complex than a hard coded value (e.g. creating the default based on another field) so I'd rather avoid duplicating that logic.

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