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• Setting iphone to vibrate and setting iphone back to sound via app.

  - by Cadu

  Folks, I need your knowledge here. Think about the following sittuation - my app need to set my iphone to vibrate mode on a certain time and get it back to playing sounds mode (for call receiving, sms, email, all common sound notifications) some minutes later. I've already googled that, and didn't find a good, apple accetable way of doing that: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/736047/possible-to-programmatically-open-settings-app-from-iphone http://stackoverflow.com/questions/702319/is-it-possible-to-dynamically-alter-an-iphone-apps-settings-page-in-the-settings http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1141391/display-iphone-application-settings-within-your-application http://stackoverflow.com/questions/335965/how-do-i-launch-my-settings-bundle-from-my-application [This one here is interesting, as fas I as find a way to know what is the key for the settings I'm interested in] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/335965/how-do-i-launch-my-settings-bundle-from-my-application [It mentions I can do that, but does not give an idea of how =(] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/702319/is-it-possible-to-dynamically-alter-an-iphone-apps-settings-page-in-the-settings [If this is true, I wouldn't be able to do what I want...] Does anyone there has an idea of how do I do that via app? Many thanks in advance.

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• getting nullpointer exception when click on button

  - by user1315187

  I am use a button and when u click this button a text field is automatic created and button status is automatic disable but if u click on disable button text field is automatic delete and button status is changed to enable.i going through this process. public class ConfigurationScreen extends MainScreen implements FieldChangeListener{ TextField tf_text; tf_text = new TextField(TextField.TYPE_PLAIN,img_text[1],img_text[0],TextField.FIELD_HCENTER); tf_text.setWidth(Display.getWidth()/2+20); ImageButton btn_en; btn_en = new ImageButton(imgs_tmintrvl1,"enable",ImageButton.FIELD_HCENTER); ImageButton btn_dis; btn_dis=new ImageButton(imgs_tmintrvl1,"Disable",ImageButton.FIELD_HCENTER); add(btn_en); btn_en.setChangeListener(this); public void fieldChanged(Field field, int context) { if( field==btn_en) { delete(btn_en); insert(btn_dis, 4); insert(tf_text, 5); System.out.println(ex); }else if (field == btn_dis){ delete(btn_dis); delete(tf_text); insert(btn_en, 4); System.out.println("Disable Button="+ex); } } But when i run this code i am getting null pointerr exception please help me where i am making mistake. Thanks in Advance

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• Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

  - by user193655

  I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

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• Why is only the first shown window focusable

  - by Miha Markic

  Imagine the code below. Only the first window appears on the top, all of subsequent windows won't nor can they be programatically focused for some reason (they appear in the background). Any idea how to workaround this? BTW, static methods/properties are not allowed nor is any global property. [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Thread t1 = new Thread(CreateForm); t1.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); t1 = new Thread(CreateForm); t1.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); } private static void CreateForm() { using (Form f = new Form()) { System.Windows.Forms.Timer t = new System.Windows.Forms.Timer { Enabled = true, Interval = 2000 }; t.Tick += (s, e) => { f.Close(); t.Enabled = false; }; f.TopMost = true; Application.Run(f); } }

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• Insert only adds upto 1000 records and ignoresall records after that.

  - by user560559

  i have a large database where the client stores personal messages and fire email notifications [if allowed by the users]. certain users have the option of sending messages to their entire network of friends. some users have over 5000 friends in their network so if they select the whole network they'll be sending messages to over 5000 friends and system will store all the messages into a table. the problem is this that it does not insert more than 1000 records and ignores all inserts after the first 1000. i have increased the packet size, bulk_insert_buffer_size but still no luck. since the system stores some of the info in another table for reports, every insert returns its new message id. due to this i can not use the "insert into table (column1,column2) values (value1,value2) , (value1,value2)....etc." table engine is innodb, mysql version is 5.1.3 and is hosted on amazon web services. all i want is to fix this issue of inserting more than 1000 records at a time. as mentioned earlier, it works fine but only up to 1000 records and simply ignores all the records after that. i'm using php foreach(){} to insert message for each friend and if email is available, send notification to the user. this foreach(){} also inserts the same record in another table [with only 3 columns] for generating reports.

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• What's the difference between the [OptionalField] and [NonSerialized]

  - by IbrarMumtaz

  I came across this question on transcender: What should you apply to a field if its value is not required during deserialization? Me = [NonSerialized], ANSWER = [OptionalField] My gut reaction was NonSerialised, I have no idea why but in the space of 5 seconds thats what I thought but to my surprise, Transcender says I am wrong. OK fair enough .... but why? looking more closely at the question I have a good idea what to look out for as far as the [Nonseralized] attribute is concerned but still I would really like this clearing up. As far as I can tell the former has relationship with versioning conflicts between newer and older versions of the same assembly. The later is more concerned with not serializing a field FULLSTOP. Is there anything else that might pick these two apart? MSDN does not really say much about this as they both are used on the BinaryFormatters and SoapFormatter with the XMLFormatter using the XMLIgnoreAttribute. My second question is can you mix and match either one of the two attributes ... I am yet to use them as I have not had an excuse to mess about with them. So my curiosity can only go so far. Just throwing this one out there, but does my answer have something to do with the way [OnDeserialized] and the IdeserilizationCallback interface is implemented???? Am guessing here .... Thanks In Advance UPDATE: I know that optional field attribute does not serialize the value held by a data member but NonSerialized will not even serialise the data member or its value. That sounds about a right???? That's all I got on these two attributes.

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• Link failure with either abnormal memory consumption or LNK1106 in Visual Studio 2005.

  - by Corvin

  Hello, I am trying to build a solution for windows XP in Visual Studio 2005. This solution contains 81 projects (static libs, exe's, dlls) and is being successfully used by our partners. I copied the solution bundle from their repository and tried setting it up on 3 similar machines of people in our group. I was successful on two machines and the solution failed to build on my machine. The build on my machine encountered two problems: During a simple build creation of the biggest static library (about 522Mb in debug mode) would fail with the message "13libd\ui1d.lib : fatal error LNK1106: invalid file or disk full: cannot seek to 0x20101879" Full solution rebuild creates this library, however when it comes to linking the library to main .exe file, devenv.exe spawns link.exe which consumes about 80Mb of physical memory and 250MB of virtual and spawns another link.exe, which does the same. This goes on until the system runs out of memory. On PCs of my colleagues where successful build could be performed, there is only one link.exe process which uses all the memory required for linking (about 500Mb physical). There is a plenty of hard drive space on my machine and the file system is NTFS. All three of our systems are similar - Core2Quad processors, 4Gb of RAM, Windows XP SP3. We are using Visual studio installed from the same source. I tried using a different RAM and CPU, using dedicated graphics adapter to eliminate possibility of video memory sharing influencing the build, putting solution files to different location, using different versions of VS 2005 (Professional, Standard and Team Suite), changing the amount of available virtual memory, running memtest86 and building the project from scratch (i.e. a clean bundle). I have read what MSDN says about LNK1106, none of the cases apply to me except for maybe "out of heap space", however I am not sure how I should fight this. The only idea that I have left is reinstalling the OS, however I am not sure that it would help and I am not sure that my situation wouldn't repeat itself on a different machine. Would anyone have any sort of advice for me? Thanks

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• Service behavior not being applied correctly

  - by Rubans

  I have a custom behavior for a service where I want to specify a receive timeout value, I have created a behavior and on the build service header. I use the declarative attribute to apply the behavior or as I thought. But the behavior seems to make no difference, i.e. the set timeout value is not being applied as expected. However when I have noticed the behavior is only being applied when the host is opened rather than when created. The same behavior when applied explicitly through does work. Any ideas? Behavior: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class)] public class BuildServiceBindingBehavior : Attribute, IServiceBehavior { public BuildServiceBindingBehavior( string p_receiveTime ) { ReceiveTimeout = TimeSpan.Parse( p_receiveTime ); } #region IServiceBehavior Members public void AddBindingParameters( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase, System.Collections.ObjectModel.Collection<ServiceEndpoint> endpoints, System.ServiceModel.Channels.BindingParameterCollection bindingParameters ) { } public void ApplyDispatchBehavior( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase ) { // add this behavior to each endpoint foreach ( var endPoint in serviceDescription.Endpoints ) { endPoint.Binding.ReceiveTimeout = ReceiveTimeout; } } public void Validate( ServiceDescription serviceDescription, ServiceHostBase serviceHostBase ) { } #endregion internal TimeSpan ReceiveTimeout { get; set; } } Service code: [ServiceBehavior(Name = "DotNetBuildsService", InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Single )] // Set receieve time out [BuildServiceBindingBehavior( "0:0:1" )] public class BuildService : IBuildTasksService { //implementation code }

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• Purpose of singletons in programming

  - by thecoshman

  This is admittedly a rather loose question. My current understanding of singletons is that they are a class that you set up in such a way that only one instance is ever created. This sounds a lot like a static class to me. The main differnce being that with a static class you don't / can't instance it, you just use it such as Math.pi(). With a singletong class, you would still need to do something like singleton mySingleton = new singleton(); mysingleton.set_name("foo"); singleton otherSingleton = new singleton(); // correct me if i am wrong, but mysingleton == othersingleton right now, yes? // this the following should happen? otherSingleston.set_name("bar"); mysingleton.report_name(); // will output "bar" won't it? Please note, I am asking this language independently, more about the concept. So I am not so worried about actually how to coed such a class, but more why you would wan't to and what thing you would need to consider.

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• Appended content using jQuery 'append' is not submitted?

  - by YourMomzThaBomb

  I'm new to jQuery so this may be a real simple answer. I have a ASP.NET project that I'm trying to dynamically add content to a span element by typing into a text box and clicking a button. Sounds simple right? Well, I can get the content to added, but when the form is submitted the span element is still empty? Why is the new data not submitted? What step am I missing? Please help. Here's some sample code: < span id="tagContainer" runat="server"< /span < input type="text" name="tag" id="tag" / < input type="button" name="AddTag" value="Add" class="button" onclick="addTag();" / function addTag() {    if ($("#tag").val() != "") {       $("#tagContainer").append('$("#tag").val()');       $("#tag").val("");    } }

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• TCP/IP Implementation General Questions

  - by user2971023

  I've implemented the concepts shown here; http://wiki.unity3d.com/index.php/Simple_TCP/IP_Client_-_Server outside of unity and it works. (though i had to create the TCPIPServerApp from scratch as i could not find the base project anywhere). I have some general questions on how to use tcp/ip properly however. I've done some research on tcp/ip itself but I'm still a little confused. It seems like using the method above doesn't guarantee that I'll see the message (res). It just checks on every update to see if there is a different message in res. What if multiple messages are sent and the program lags or something, will i miss the earlier packet(s)? Should i instead do an array so it stores the last X messages? How do i know the data was received? Do I need to add a message id and build in my own ack into the data? Should i check to see if the port is in use before setting up a connection? Sorry for all the questions. This is all new to me but I enjoy this very much! ... Below already answered By Anton, Thanks It sounds like tcp uses its own packet numbering to ensure the packets end up in the right order on the other side. What if a packet is missed, are the subsequent packets thrown away? Or is this numbering and packet ordering, only for handling data that is broken out into multiple packets? TCP will automatically break the data into multiple packets if necessary right?

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• MySQL Datefields: duplicate or calculate?

  - by Konerak

  We are using a table with a structure imposed upon us more than 10 years ago. We are allowed to add columns, but urged not to change existing columns. Certain columns are meant to represent dates, but are put in different format. Amongst others: * CHAR(6): YYMMDD * CHAR(6): DDMMYY * CHAR(8): YYYYMMDD * CHAR(8): DDMMYYYY * DATE * DATETIME Since we now would like to do some more complex queries, using advanced date functions, my manager proposed to d*uplicate those problem columns* to a proper FORMATTED_OLDCOLUMNNAME column using a DATE or DATETIME format. Is this the way to go? Couldn't we just use the STR_TO_DATE function each time we accessed the columns? To avoid every query having to copy-paste the function, I could still work with a view or a stored procedure, but duplicating data to avoid recalculation sounds wrong. Solutions I see (I guess I prefer 2.2.1) 1. Physically duplicate columns 1.1 In the same table 1.1.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.1.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 1.2 In a separate table 1.2.1 Added by each script that does a modification (INSERT/UPDATE/REPLACE/...) 1.2.2 Maintained by a trigger on each modification 2. On-demand transformation 2.1 Each query has to perform the transformation 2.1.1 Using copy-paste in the source code 2.1.2 Using a library 2.1.3 Using a STORED PROCEDURE 2.2 A view performs the transformation 2.2.1 A separate table replacing the entire table 2.2.2 A separate table just adding the date-fields for the primary keys Am I right to say it's better to recalculate than to store? And would a view be a good solution?

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• Windows "forms" authentication - <deny users="?"> redirecting to foreign page!

  - by Erik5388

  Like the title states - I have a web.config file that looks like, <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="login" protection="All" timeout="30" loginUrl="login" defaultUrl="~/"> <credentials passwordFormat="Clear"> <user name="admin" password="password" /> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </configuration> I want to do exactly what it says it should do... I want to deny all users who try to enter the site. It works however, it redirects to a "Account/Login?ReturnUrl=%2flogin" url I have never heard of... Is there a place I can change this?

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• Parallelizing L2S Entity Retrieval

  - by MarkB

  Assuming a typical domain entity approach with SQL Server and a dbml/L2S DAL with a logic layer on top of that: In situations where lazy loading is not an option, I have settled on a convention where getting a list of entities does not also get each item's child entities (no loading), but getting a single entity does (eager loading). Since getting a single entity also gets children, it causes a cascading effect in which each child then gets its children too. This sounds bad, but as long as the model is not too deep, I usually don't see performance problems that outweigh the benefits of the ease of use. So if I want to get a list in which each of the items is fully hydrated with children, I combine the GetList and GetItem methods. So I'll get a list and then loop through it getting each item with the full cascade. Even this is generally acceptable in many of the projects I've worked on - but I have recently encountered situations with larger models and/or more data in which it needs to be more efficient. I've found that partitioning the loop and executing it on multiple threads yields excellent results. In my first experiment with a list of 50 items from one particular project, I did 5 threads of 10 items each and got a 3X improvement in time. Of course, the mileage will vary depending on the project but all else being equal this is clearly a big opportunity. However, before I go further, I was wondering what others have done that have already been through this. What are some good approaches to parallelizing this type of thing?

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• MySQL problem reconnecting (mysqld.exe) keeps giving error...

  - by Ronedog

  Need some guidance figuring out what went wrong. I've been using mysql, phpmyadmin for just under a year on my home computer while I develop a webapp. 3 days ago I updated my windows vista with all the "wonderful" microsoft updates, security patches, etc...and now it's broke. I tried uninstalling all the upgrades, but there are 4 of them I can't unistall because microsoft says their "operating system" updates and can't be unistalled. My system is: windows vista, php 5+, mysql 5.1, Apache 2+. I can run my web app and it queries the database without any problems. However, when I run phpmyadmin to get into the database I get an error: "mysqld.exe has stopped working" and phpmyadmin crashes. I tried going to the command line for mysql to do a mysqldump to backup my database and it gives me an error "2013, could not connect to the server". If I restart the computer the webapp will work again. Basically, php can query the database, but if I try to get at the database through phpmyadmin, or the command prompt the mysqld.exe error occurs and blows mysql out. Any ideas what's going on here? Any ideas how to get around this to backup the db, so I can reinstall mysql?. I'm really lost where to start. I don't really know if the updates caused the problem, or if the 4 updates that can't be unistalled are really the problem. Any tips will be appreciated. thanks.

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• Committing to a different branch with commit -r

  - by Amarghosh

  Does CVS allow committing a file to a different branch than the one it was checked out from? The man page and some sites suggest that we can do a cvs ci -r branch-1 file.c but it gives the following error: cvs commit: Up-to-date check failed for `file.c' cvs [commit aborted]: correct above errors first! I did a cvs diff -r branch-1 file.c to make sure that contents of file.c in my BASE and branch-1 are indeed the same. I know that we can manually check out using cvs co -r branch-1, merge the main branch to it (and fix any merge issues) and then do a check in. The problem is that there are a number of branches and I would like to automate things using a script. This thread seems to suggest that -r has been removed. Can someone confirm that? If ci -r is not supported, I am thinking of doing something like: Make sure the branch versions and base version are the same with a cvs diff Check in to the current branch Keep a copy of the file in a temp file For each branch: Check out from branch with -r replace the file with the temp file Check in (it'll go the branch as -r is sticky) Delete the temp file The replacing part sounds like cheating to me - can you think of any potential issues that might occur? Anything I should be careful about? Is there any other way to automate this process?

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• How do software events work internally?

  - by Duddle

  Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

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• Counting a cell up per Objects

  - by Auro

  hey i got a problem once again :D a little info first: im trying to copy data from one table to an other table(structure is the same). now one cell needs to be incremented, beginns per group at 1 (just like a histroy). i have this table: create table My_Test/My_Test2 ( my_Id Number(8,0), my_Num Number(6,0), my_Data Varchar2(100)); (my_Id, my_Num is a nested PK) if i want to insert a new row, i need to check if the value in my_id already exists. if this is true then i need to use the next my_Num for this Id. i have this in my Table: My_Id My_Num My_Data 1 1 'test1' 1 2 'test2' 2 1 'test3' if i add now a row for my_Id 1, the row would look like this: i have this in my Table: My_Id My_Num My_Data 1 3 'test4' this sounds pretty easy ,now i need to make it in a SQL and on SQL Server i had the same problem and i used this: Insert Into My_Test (My_Id,My_Num,My_Data) SELECT my_Id, ( SELECT CASE ( CASE MAX(a.my_Num) WHEN NULL THEN 0 Else Max(A.My_Num) END) + b.My_Num WHEN NULL THEN 1 ELSE ( CASE MAX(a.My_Num) WHEN NULL THEN 0 Else Max(A.My_Num) END) + b.My_Num END From My_Test A where my_id = 1 ) ,My_Data From My_Test2 B where my_id = 1; this Select gives null back if no Rows are found in the subselect is there a way so i could use max in the case? and if it give null back it should use 0 or 1? greets Auro

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• Cannot implicitly convert type ...

  - by Newbie

  I have the following function public Dictionary<DateTime, object> GetAttributeList( EnumFactorType attributeType ,Thomson.Financial.Vestek.Util.DateRange dateRange) { DateTime startDate = dateRange.StartDate; DateTime endDate = dateRange.EndDate; return (( //Step 1: Iterate over the attribute list and filter the records by // the supplied attribute type from assetAttribute in AttributeCollection where assetAttribute.AttributeType.Equals(attributeType) //Step2:Assign the TimeSeriesData collection into a temporary variable let timeSeriesList = assetAttribute.TimeSeriesData //Step 3: Iterate over the TimeSeriesData list and filter the records by // the supplied date from timeSeries in timeSeriesList.ToList() where timeSeries.Key >= startDate && timeSeries.Key <= endDate //Finally build the needed collection select new AssetAttribute() { TimeSeriesData = PopulateTimeSeriesData(timeSeries.Key, timeSeries.Value) }).ToList<AssetAttribute>().Select(i => i.TimeSeriesData)); } private Dictionary<DateTime, object> PopulateTimeSeriesData(DateTime dateTime, object value) { Dictionary<DateTime, object> timeSeriesData = new Dictionary<DateTime, object>(); timeSeriesData.Add(dateTime, value); return timeSeriesData; } Error:Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable' to 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) Using C#3.0 Please help

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• Granting administrator privileges to an application launched at startup without UAC prompt?

  - by iKenndac

  Background I've written a small C#/.NET 4.0 application that syncs various settings from a game installed in Program Files to and from other copies of the same game on different machines (think Chrome bookmark sync, but for this game). The sync itself is a relatively simple affair, dealing with files stored inside the game's Program Files folder. On my machine, this works fine without having to elevate my application through UAC. Windows 7 makes the game use Program Files virtualisation and my application works fine with that. However, on a lot of tester's machines, I'm getting reports that the application either can't work with the files and in come cases can't even see the game's folder! Having the user right-click and "Run as Administrator" solves the problem in every case. So, we just set the application's manifest to require admin privileges, right? That's fine (although not ideal) for when the user manually invokes the application or the sync process because they'll be interacting with the application and ready to accept a UAC request. However, one of the features of my application is a "Sync Automatically" option, which allows the user to "set and forget" the application. With this set, the application puts itself into the registry at HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run to be run at startup and sits in the system tray syncing the settings in the background as needed. Obviously, I need to be smarter here. Presenting a UAC prompt as soon as the user logs in to their account or at random intervals afterwards isn't the way forwards. So, my question! What's the best way to approach a situation where I'd need to run an application at startup that needs administrator privileges? Is there a way to have the user authorise an installation that causes the system to automatically run the application with the correct privileges without a prompt at startup/login?

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• How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within W

  - by Greg

  Hi, QUESTION - How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within WinForms app? BACKGROUND: This follows on from the http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2489999/how-can-i-schedule-tasks-in-a-winforms-app thread REQUIREMENTS C# .NETv3.5 project using VS2008 There is an existing function which I want to run both (a) manually from within the WinForms application, and (b) scheduled via Windows Task. APPROACHES So what I'm trying to understand is what options are there to make this work eg Is it possible for a windows task to trigger a function to run within a running/existing WinForms application? (doesn't sound solid I guess) Split code out into two projects and duplicate for both console application that the task manager would run AND code that the winforms app would run Create a common library and re-use this for both the above-mentioned projects in the bullet above Create a service with an interface that both the task manager can access plus the winforms app can manage Actually each of these approaches sounds quite messy/complex - would be really nice to drop back to have the code only once within the one project in VS2008, the only reason I ask about this is I need to have a scheduling function and the suggestion has been to use http://taskscheduler.codeplex.com/ as the means to do this, which takes the scheduling out of my VS2008 project... thanks

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• C#: at design time, how can I reliably determine the type of a variable that is declared using var?

  - by Cheeso

  I'm working on a completion (intellisense) facility for C# in emacs. The idea is, if a user types a fragment, then asks for completion via a particular keystroke combination, the completion facility will use .NET reflection to determine the possible completions. Doing this requires that the type of the thing being completed, be known. If it's a string, it has a set of known methods; if it's an Int32, it has a separate set of methods, and so on. Using semantic, a code lexer/parser package available in emacs, I can locate the variable declarations, and their types. Given that, it's straightforward to use reflection to get the methods and properties on the type, and then present the list of options to the user. The problem arrives when the code uses var in the declaration. How can I reliably determine the actual type used, when the variable is declared with the var keyword? Just to be clear, I don't need to determine it at runtime. I want to determine it at "Design time". So far the best idea I have is: extract the declaration statement, eg var foo = "a string value"; concatenate a statement foo.GetType(); dynamically compile the resulting C# fragment it into a new assembly load the assembly into a new AppDomain, run the framgment and get the return type. unload and discard the assembly This sounds awfully heavyweight, for each completion request in the editor. Any better ideas out there?

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• XmlSerializer construction with same named extra types

  - by NoizWaves

  Hey, I am hitting trouble constructing an XmlSerializer where the extra types contains types with the same Name (but unique Fullname). Below is an example that illustrated my scenario. Type definitions in external assembly I cannot manipulate: public static class Wheel { public enum Status { Stopped, Spinning } } public static class Engine { public enum Status { Idle, Full } } Class I have written and have control over: public class Car { public Wheel.Status WheelStatus; public Engine.Status EngineStatus; public static string Serialize(Car car) { var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Car), new[] {typeof(Wheel.Status),typeof(Engine.Status)}); var output = new StringBuilder(); using (var sw = new StringWriter(output)) xs.Serialize(sw, car); return output.ToString(); } } The XmlSerializer constructor throws a System.InvalidOperationException with Message "There was an error reflecting type 'Engine.Status'" This exception has an InnerException of type System.InvalidOperationException and with Message "Types 'Wheel.Status' and 'Engine.Status' both use the XML type name, 'Status', from namespace ''. Use XML attributes to specify a unique XML name and/or namespace for the type." Given that I am unable to alter the enum types, how can I construct an XmlSerializer that will serialize Car successfully?

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• ThreadExceptionEventHandler and invoking delegates

  - by QmunkE

  If I assign a ThreadExceptionEventHandler to Application.ThreadException, why when I invoke a delegate method using a control on the main application thread are any exceptions thrown by that delegate not triggering the event handler? i.e. static void Main() { ... Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.Error.Write("A thread exception occurred!"); } ... private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread syncThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(this.ThrowException)); syncThread.Start(); } private void ThrowException() { button1.Invoke(new MethodInvoker(delegate { // Not handled by ThreadExceptionEventHandler? throw new Exception(); })); } The context on this is that I have a background thread started from a form which is throwing an unhandled exception which terminates the application. I know this thread is going to be unreliable since it is network connectivity reliant and so subject to being terminated at any point, but I'm just interested as to why this scenario doesn't play out as I expect?

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• Determining if object is visible and clickable

  - by Alan Mendelevich

  I'm looking for ways to effectively determine if a control is actually visible and clickable. I mean beyond checking Visibility property of the object. I can check RenderSize and that would be [0,0] if any of the parent elements is collapsed. So this is simple too. I can also traverse up the visual tree and see if Opacity of all elements is set to 1. What I don't know how to check nicely are these scenarios: The object is obstructed by some other object. Obviously it's possible to use FindElementsInHostCoordinates() and do computations to find out how much these objects obstruct but this could be an overkill. I can also make a "screenshot" of the object in question and "screenshot" of the whole page and check if pixels where my object should be match the actual object pixels. That sounds like an overkill too. The object is obstructed by a transparent object that still "swallows" clicks (taps). The workarounds for the first problem could still fail in this scenario. Any better ideas? Do I miss something? Thanks!

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