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  • Troubleshooting Multiple Endpoints Problem in WCF

    - by omatase
    I have been using WCF for a few years now and am fairly comfortable with it, however there is one simple WCF concept that I have yet to employ and am having difficulties with it. Following this article about WCF addressing as it specifically relates to multiple endpoints in IIS I see these two excerpts: "Suppose you have a file named calc.svc and you place it in a virtual directory that corresponds to (http://localhost:8080/calcservice). The base address for this service will be (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc)." and "Now, consider the endpoint configuration found in the virtual directory’s web.config file (in Figure 3). In this case, the address of the first endpoint becomes the same as the base address (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc) since I left the endpoint address empty. The address of the second endpoint becomes the combination of the base address appended with "secure", like this: (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc/secure)." Now in my application I'm trying to create two endpoints for the same service (shown below). The service name is MainService.svc. For endpoint one I have address="" and endpoint two has address="Soap11". Bringing the site up in IIS I can successfully hit this URL: (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc). This is the base address for the service according to all the documentation I can find. According to this article and others I have seen that confirm its information I should have the second endpoint at (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc/Soap11) but if I navigate to that URL I get a .Net exception indicating the resource is not found. Is there a tool I can use to see where my different endpoints will be available? Maybe some IIS or aspnet_isapi.dll logging I can turn on? My web.config section defining my endpoints follows. Thanks in advance for your help <service behaviorConfiguration="MyService.MainServiceBehavior" name="MyService.MainService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSBindingConfig" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="Soap11" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicBindingWithCredentials" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service>

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  • FormsAuthentication redirecting to login page when visiting root of website

    - by Ryan Lattimer
    I wanted to use FormsAuthentication to secure my static files as well on my site, so I followed the instructions located here http://learn.iis.net/page.aspx/244/how-to-take-advantage-of-the-iis7-integrated-pipeline/ under title "Enabling Forms Authentication for the Entire Application". Now though, when I try to visit the site by going directly to http://www.mysite.com I get redirected to http://www.mysite.com/Login.aspx?ReturnUrl=%2f instead of it using my DefaultDocument I have set. I can go to my default document by just visiting http://www.mysite.com/Home.aspx without any issues because it is set to allow anonymous access. Is there something I need to add into my web.config file to make iis7 allow anonymous access to the root? I tried adding with anonymous access but no such luck. Any help would be much appreciated. Both Home and the Login form allow anonymous. <location path="Home.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <location path="Login.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> Login form is set as the loginUrl <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms protection="All" loginUrl="Login.aspx"> </forms> </authentication> Default document is set as Home.aspx <defaultDocument> <files> <add value="Home.aspx" /> </files> </defaultDocument> I have not removed any of the iis7 default documents. However, Home.aspx is first in the priority.

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  • Need some help deciphering a line of assembler code, from .NET JITted code

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    In a C# constructor, that ends up with a call to this(...), the actual call gets translated to this: 0000003d call dword ptr ds:[199B88E8h] What is the DS register contents here? I know it's the data-segment, but is this call through a VMT-table or similar? I doubt it though, since this(...) wouldn't be a call to a virtual method, just another constructor. I ask because the value at that location seems to be bad in some way, if I hit F11, trace into (Visual Studio 2008), on that call-instruction, the program crashes with an access violation. The code is deep inside a 3rd party control library, where, though I have the source code, I don't have the assemblies compiled with enough debug information that I can trace it through C# code, only through the disassembler, and then I have to match that back to the actual code. The C# code in question is this: public AxisRangeData(AxisRange range) : this(range, range.Axis) { } Reflector shows me this IL code: .maxstack 8 L_0000: ldarg.0 L_0001: ldarg.1 L_0002: ldarg.1 L_0003: callvirt instance class DevExpress.XtraCharts.AxisBase DevExpress.XtraCharts.AxisRange::get_Axis() L_0008: call instance void DevExpress.XtraCharts.Native.AxisRangeData::.ctor(class DevExpress.XtraCharts.ChartElement, class DevExpress.XtraCharts.AxisBase) L_000d: ret It's that last call there, to the other constructor of the same class, that fails. The debugger never surfaces inside the other method, it just crashes. The disassembly for the method after JITting is this: 00000000 push ebp 00000001 mov ebp,esp 00000003 sub esp,14h 00000006 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],ecx 00000009 mov dword ptr [ebp-8],edx 0000000c cmp dword ptr ds:[18890E24h],0 00000013 je 0000001A 00000015 call 61843511 0000001a mov eax,dword ptr [ebp-4] 0000001d mov dword ptr [ebp-0Ch],eax 00000020 mov eax,dword ptr [ebp-8] 00000023 mov dword ptr [ebp-10h],eax 00000026 mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] 00000029 cmp dword ptr [ecx],ecx 0000002b call dword ptr ds:[1889D0DCh] // range.Axis 00000031 mov dword ptr [ebp-14h],eax 00000034 push dword ptr [ebp-14h] 00000037 mov edx,dword ptr [ebp-10h] 0000003a mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-0Ch] 0000003d call dword ptr ds:[199B88E8h] // this(range, range.Axis)? 00000043 nop 00000044 mov esp,ebp 00000046 pop ebp 00000047 ret Basically what I'm asking is this: What the purpose of the ds:[ADDR] indirection here? VMT-table is only for virtual isn't it? and this is constructor Could the constructor have yet to be JITted, which could mean that the call would actually call through a JIT shim? I'm afraid I'm in deep water here, so anything might and could help. Edit: Well, the problem just got worse, or better, or whatever. We are developing the .NET feature in a C# project in a Visual Studio 2008 solution, and debugging and developing through Visual Studio. However, in the end, this code will be loaded into a .NET runtime hosted by a Win32 Delphi application. In order to facilitate easy experimentation of such features, we can also configure the Visual Studio project/solution/debugger to copy the produced dll's to the Delphi app's directory, and then execute the Delphi app, through the Visual Studio debugger. Turns out, the problem goes away if I run the program outside of the debugger, but during debugging, it crops up, every time. Not sure that helps, but since the code isn't slated for production release for another 6 months or so, then it takes some of the pressure off of it for the test release that we have soon. I'll dive into the memory parts later, but probably not until over the weekend, and post a followup.

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  • WPF Application Slow Unresponsive when demonstrating using remote sharing software

    - by Kev
    After spending 14 hours on this I think its time to share my woes and see if anyone has experienced this issue before. Ill describe the issue and tests I have done to rule out certain things. Ok so I have a WPF application which loads in data from an SQL database. I am using DevExpress Components for datagrids, ribbons etc.. and FluentNhibernate to provide a session for database operations. I am also using log4net to log events to a textfile. Using the application on my laptop with SQL Express 2008 works fine.. the application starts up, retrieves 1000 records and I can tab through the controls on the ribbon. Now, I decided to demo the application to a third party and used remote login/sharing software online to share my desktop with the other person so as I could load the application on my laptop and they could view me using the application. Now, the application takes approx 45 seconds to load... 30 seconds with a blank database where as, when im not sharing out my screen using the online software the application loads in about 7-10 seconds. As well as that, even using the controls in the application during the demo were very sticky, slow and unresponsive. During the sharing session though however I was able to use other applications without any problems.. everything else worked fine. But I cannot understand how my application works ok under normal conditions , even browsing the net at the same time etc... BUT totally fails to perform correctly when I am sharing a session with another user... the CPU usage shot up to 100% too at times when the application was trying to start up... Please see below a list of 3rd party dlls I am using as references in my project. DevExpress dlls FluidKit PixelLab.WPF PixelLab.Common Galasoft WPF Kit FluentNHibernate NHibernate Nhibernate.ByteCode.Castle Skype4ComLib TXTEXTControl log4net LinqKit All of these DLLs are in the output folder with the application dlls created from the class assemblys in the project. So when installed via an installer on a machine the dlls will be in the same application folder as the application file itself. Many thanks

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  • ELMAH - Using custom error pages to collecting user feedback

    - by vdh_ant
    Hey guys I'm looking at using ELMAH for the first time but have a requirement that needs to be met that I'm not sure how to go about achieving... Basically, I am going to configure ELMAH to work under asp.net MVC and get it to log errors to the database when they occur. On top of this I be using customErrors to direct the user to a friendly message page when an error occurs. Fairly standard stuff... The requirement is that on this custom error page I have a form which enables to user to provide extra information if they wish. Now the problem arises due to the fact that at this point the error is already logged and I need to associate the loged error with the users feedback. Normally, if I was using my own custom implementation, after I log the error I would pass through the ID of the error to the custom error page so that an association can be made. But because of the way that ELMAH works, I don't think the same is quite possible. Hence I was wondering how people thought that one might go about doing this.... Cheers UPDATE: My solution to the problem is as follows: public class UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext : IUserCurrentConext { private const string _StoredExceptionName = "System.StoredException."; private const string _StoredExceptionIdName = "System.StoredExceptionId."; public virtual string UniqueAddress { get { return HttpContext.Current.Request.UserHostAddress; } } public Exception StoredException { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] as Exception; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } public string StoredExceptionId { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] as string; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } } Then when the error occurs, I have something like this in my Global.asax: public void ErrorLog_Logged(object sender, ErrorLoggedEventArgs args) { var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); item.StoredException = args.Entry.Error.Exception; item.StoredExceptionId = args.Entry.Id; } Then where ever you are later you can pull out the details by var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); var error = item.StoredException; var errorId = item.StoredExceptionId; item.StoredException = null; item.StoredExceptionId = null; Note this isn't 100% perfect as its possible for the same IP to have multiple requests to have errors at the same time. But the likely hood of that happening is remote. And this solution is independent of the session, which in our case is important, also some errors can cause sessions to be terminated, etc. Hence why this approach has worked nicely for us.

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  • WPF binding behaviour different when bound property is declared as interface vs class type?

    - by Jay
    This started with weird behaviour that I thought was tied to my implementation of ToString(), and I asked this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2916068/why-wont-wpf-databindings-show-text-when-tostring-has-a-collaborating-object It turns out to have nothing to do with collaborators and is reproducible. When I bind Label.Content to a property of the DataContext that is declared as an interface type, ToString() is called on the runtime object and the label displays the result. When I bind TextBlock.Text to the same property, ToString() is never called and nothing is displayed. But, if I change the declared property to a concrete implementation of the interface, it works as expected. Is this somehow by design? If so, any idea why? To reproduce: Create a new WPF Application (.NET 3.5 SP1) Add the following classes: public interface IFoo { string foo_part1 { get; set; } string foo_part2 { get; set; } } public class Foo : IFoo { public string foo_part1 { get; set; } public string foo_part2 { get; set; } public override string ToString() { return foo_part1 + " - " + foo_part2; } } public class Bar { public IFoo foo { get { return new Foo {foo_part1 = "first", foo_part2 = "second"}; } } } Set the XAML of Window1 to: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding foo, Mode=Default}"/> </StackPanel> </Window> in Window1.xaml.cs: public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new Bar(); } } When you run this application, you'll see the text only once (at the top, in the label). If you change the type of foo property on Bar class to Foo (instead of IFoo) and run the application again, you'll see the text in both controls.

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  • ServiceController.Stop() doesn't appear to be stopping anything

    - by peacedog
    My dev box is a Windows 7 (x64) machine. I've got some code (C#, .net 2.0) that in certain circumstances, checks to see if a service is running and then stops it. ServiceController matchedService = //My Service! //If statements and such matchedService.Stop(); matchedService.WaitForStatus(ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped); Now, I can verify MyService is in fact installed and running. I can tell you I am running Visual Studio 2008 as an administrator while debugging. I can also verify that after a couple of If statements, I wind up at the .Stop() and .WaitForStatus() portion of the programming. I do know that if step over the .Stop() call, the service itself just keeps running (looking at it in Services, though it occurs to me perhaps I should grab a better tool for this. I'm sure there's some sysinternals tool that might give me more information). As I step over the .WaitForStatus() call, I basically wind up waiting for the stopped status. . . forever. Well, I let it sit there for over 15 minutes yesterday (twice) and nothing happens. We never make it to the next line of code. It feels exactly like Bowie's Space Oddity (you know the part I am talking about). There's a lotta things about MyService you don't know anything about. Things you wouldn't understand. Things you couldn't. . . let me state this plainly. No services depend on MyService and MyService depends on no other services. Addendum MyOtherService and SonOfMyService both seem to behave correctly at this point in the code. All of these services share the same characteristics (they're our own services we hatched in a secret lab and have no dependencies). Is it possible there is something wrong with the MyService install or something? I do know that if I stop debugging at this point, MyService is still listed as running in Services (even after hitting refresh). If I try to restart it then (or run my application again and get to this point), I get a message about it not being able to accept control messages. After that, the service shows up as stopped and I can start it normally. Why isn't the service being stopped? Is this a quirk of win 7? A failing on my part to understand the ServiceController, or Win Services in general?

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  • Can I create a custom class that inherits from a strongly typed DataRow?

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I'm working on a huge, old project with a lot of brittle code, some of which has been around since the .NET 1.0 era, and it has been and will be worked on by other people... so I'd like to change as little as possible. I have one project in my solution that contains DataSet.xsd. This project compiles to a separate assembly (Data.dll). The database schema includes several tables arranged more or less hierarchically, but the only way the tables are actually linked together is through joins. I can get, e.g. DepartmentRow and EmployeeRow objects from the autogenerated code. EmployeeRow contains information from the employee's corresponding DepartmentRow through a join. I'm making a new report to view multiple departments and all their employees. If I use the existing data access scheme, all I will be able to get is a spreadsheet-like output where each employee is represented on one line, with department information repeated over and over in its appropriate columns. E.g.: Department1...Employee1... Department1...Employee2... Department2...Employee3... But what the customer would like is to have each department render like a heading, with a list of employees beneath each. E.g.: - Department1... Employee1... Employee2... + Department2... I'm trying to do this by inheriting hierarchical objects from the autogenerated Row objects. E.g.: public class Department : DataSet.DepartmentRow { public List<Employee> Employees; } That way I could nest the data in the report by using a collection of Department objects as the DataSource, each of which will put its list of Employees in a subreport. The problem is that this gives me a The type Data.DataSet.DepartmentRow has no constructors defined error. And when I try to make a constructor, e.g. public class Department : DataSet.DepartmentRow { private Department() { } public List<Employee> Employees; } I get a 'Data.DataSet.DepartmentRow(System.Data.DataRowBuilder)' is inaccessible due to its protection level. error in addition to the first one. Is there a way to accomplish what I'm trying to do? Or is there something else I should be trying entirely?

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  • Parallel.For maintain input list order on output list

    - by romeozor
    I'd like some input on keeping the order of a list during heavy-duty operations that I decided to try to do in a parallel manner to see if it boosts performance. (It did!) I came up with a solution, but since this was my first attempt at anything parallel, I'd need someone to slap my hands if I did something very stupid. There's a query that returns a list of card owners, sorted by name, then by date of birth. This needs to be rendered in a table on a web page (ASP.Net WebForms). The original coder decided he would construct the table cell-by-cell (TableCell), add them to rows (TableRow), then each row to the table. So no GridView, allegedly its performance is bad, but the performance was very poor regardless :). The database query returns in no time, the most time is spent on looping through the results and adding table cells etc. I made the following method to maintain the original order of the list: private TableRow[] ComposeRows(List<CardHolder> queryResult) { int queryElementsCount = queryResult.Count(); // array with the query's size var rowArray = new TableRow[queryElementsCount]; Parallel.For(0, queryElementsCount, i => { var row = new TableRow(); var cell = new TableCell(); // various operations, including simple ones such as: cell.Text = queryResult[i].Name; row.Cells.Add(cell); // here I'm adding the current item to it's original index // to maintain order in the output list rowArray[i] = row; }); return rowArray; } So as you can see, because I'm returning a very different type of data (List<CardHolder> -> TableRow[]), I can't just simply omit the ordering from the original query to do it after the operations. Also, I also thought it would be a good idea to Dispose() the objects at the end of each loop, because the query can return a huge list and letting cell and row objects pile up in the heap could impact performance.(?) How badly did I do? Does anyone have a better solution in case mine is flawed?

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  • The question about the basics of LINQ to SQL

    - by Alex
    I just started learning LINQ to SQL, and so far I'm impressed with the easy of use and good performance. I used to think that when doing LINQ queries like from Customer in DB.Customers where Customer.Age > 30 select Customer LINQ gets all customers from the database ("SELECT * FROM Customers"), moves them to the Customers array and then makes a search in that Array using .NET methods. This is very inefficient, what if there are hundreds of thousands of customers in the database? Making such big SELECT queries would kill the web application. Now after experiencing how actually fast LINQ to SQL is, I start to suspect that when doing that query I just wrote, LINQ somehow converts it to a SQL Query string SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE Age > 30 And only when necessary it will run the query. So my question is: am I right? And when is the query actually run? The reason why I'm asking is not only because I want to understand how it works in order to build good optimized applications, but because I came across the following problem. I have 2 tables, one of them is Books, the other has information on how many books were sold on certain days. My goal is to select books that had at least 50 sales/day in past 10 days. It's done with this simple query: from Book in DB.Books where (from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 && Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID).Contains(Book.ID) select Book The point is, I have to use the checking part in several queries and I decided to create an array with IDs of all popular books: var popularBooksIDs = from Sale in DB.Sales where Sale.SalesAmount >= 50 && Sale.DateOfSale >= DateTime.Now.AddDays(-10) select Sale.BookID; BUT when I try to do the query now: from Book in DB.Books where popularBooksIDs.Contains(Book.ID) select Book It doesn't work! That's why I think that we can't use thins kinds of shortcuts in LINQ to SQL queries, like we can't use them in real SQL. We have to create straightforward queries, am I right?

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  • How to add a chart created in code behind to the rendered html page?

    - by Ryan
    I'm trying to create a .net charting control completely in the code behind and insert that chart at a specific location on the web page. Here is my html page: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div id="chart"></div> </form> </body> </html> Here is the code behind: using System; using System.Drawing; using System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting; public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //SET UP THE DATA TO PLOT double[] yVal = { 80, 20 }; string[] xName = { "Pass", "Fail" }; //CREATE THE CHART Chart Chart1 = new Chart(); //BIND THE DATA TO THE CHART Chart1.Series.Add(new Series()); Chart1.Series[0].Points.DataBindXY(xName, yVal); //SET THE CHART TYPE TO BE PIE Chart1.Series[0].ChartType = System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.SeriesChartType.Pie; Chart1.Series[0]["PieLabelStyle"] = "Outside"; Chart1.Series[0]["PieStartAngle"] = "-90"; //SET THE COLOR PALETTE FOR THE CHART TO BE A PRESET OF NONE //DEFINE OUR OWN COLOR PALETTE FOR THE CHART Chart1.Palette = System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartColorPalette.None; Chart1.PaletteCustomColors = new Color[] { Color.Blue, Color.Red }; //SET THE IMAGE OUTPUT TYPE TO BE JPEG Chart1.ImageType = System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartImageType.Jpeg; //ADD A PLACE HOLDER CHART AREA TO THE CHART //SET THE CHART AREA TO BE 3D Chart1.ChartAreas.Add(new ChartArea()); Chart1.ChartAreas[0].Area3DStyle.Enable3D = true; //ADD A PLACE HOLDER LEGEND TO THE CHART //DISABLE THE LEGEND Chart1.Legends.Add(new Legend()); Chart1.Legends[0].Enabled = false; } } I want to render the charting control inside the div with id="chart" Thanks for the help!

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  • Parallel For Loop - Problems when adding to a List

    - by Kevin Crowell
    I am having some issues involving Parallel for loops and adding to a List. The problem is, the same code may generate different output at different times. I have set up some test code below. In this code, I create a List of 10,000 int values. 1/10th of the values will be 0, 1/10th of the values will be 1, all the way up to 1/10th of the values being 9. After setting up this List, I setup a Parallel for loop that iterates through the list. If the current number is 0, I add a value to a new List. After the Parallel for loop completes, I output the size of the list. The size should always be 1,000. Most of the time, the correct answer is given. However, I have seen 3 possible incorrect outcomes occur: The size of the list is less than 1,000 An IndexOutOfRangeException occurs @ doubleList.Add(0.0); An ArgumentException occurs @ doubleList.Add(0.0); The message for the ArgumentException given was: Destination array was not long enough. Check destIndex and length, and the array's lower bounds. What could be causing the errors? Is this a .Net bug? Is there something I can do to prevent this from happening? Please try the code for yourself. If you do not get an error, try it a few times. Please also note that you probably will not see any errors using a single-core machine. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace ParallelTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { List<int> intList = new List<int>(); List<double> doubleList = new List<double>(); for (int i = 0; i < 250; i++) { intList.Clear(); doubleList.Clear(); for (int j = 0; j < 10000; j++) { intList.Add(j % 10); } Parallel.For(0, intList.Count, j => { if (intList[j] == 0) { doubleList.Add(0.0); } }); if (doubleList.Count != 1000) { Console.WriteLine("On iteration " + i + ": List size = " + doubleList.Count); } } Console.WriteLine("\nPress any key to exit."); Console.ReadKey(); } } }

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  • Applying SoapIgnore attribute doesn't take any effect to serialization result

    - by the_V
    I'm trying to figure out .NET serialization stuff and experiencing a problem. I've made a simple program to test it and got stuck with using attributes. Here's the code: [Serializable] public class SampleClass { [SoapIgnore] public Guid InstanceId { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { SampleClass cl = new SampleClass { InstanceId = Guid.NewGuid() }; SoapFormatter fm = new SoapFormatter(); using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(string.Format("C:\\Temp\\{0}.inv", Guid.NewGuid().ToString().Replace("-", "")), FileMode.Create)) { fm.Serialize(stream, cl); } } } The problem is that InstanceId is not ignored while serialization is done. What I get in .inv file is something like this: <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:clr="http://schemas.microsoft.com/soap/encoding/clr/1.0" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <a1:SampleClass id="ref-1" xmlns:a1="http://schemas.microsoft.com/clr/nsassem/TestConsoleApp/TestConsoleApp%2C%20Version%3D1.0.0.0%2C%20Culture%3Dneutral%2C%20PublicKeyToken%3Dnull"> <_x003C_InstanceId_x003E_k__BackingField> <_a>769807168</_a> <_b>27055</_b> <_c>16408</_c> <_d>141</_d> <_e>210</_e> <_f>171</_f> <_g>30</_g> <_h>252</_h> <_i>196</_i> <_j>246</_j> <_k>159</_k> </_x003C_InstanceId_x003E_k__BackingField> </a1:SampleClass> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> As I can understand from documentation InstanceId property is not supposed to be serialized since SoapIgnore attribute is applied to it. Am I missing something?

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  • YASR - Yet another search and replace question

    - by petronius31
    Environment: asp.net c# openxml Ok, so I've been reading a ton of snippets and trying to recreate the wheel, but I'm hoping that somone can help me get to my desination faster. I have multiple documents that I need to merge together... check... I'm able to do that with openxml sdk. Birds are singing, sun is shining so far. Now that I have the document the way I want it, I need to search and replace text and/or content controls. I've tried using my own text - {replace this} but when I look at the xml (rename docx to zip and view the file), the { is nowhere near the text. So I either need to know how to protect that within the doucment so they don't diverge or I need to find another way to search and replace. I'm able to search/replace if it is an xml file, but then I'm back to not being able to combine the doucments easily. Code below... and as I mentioned... document merge works fine... just need to replace stuff. protected void exeProcessTheDoc(object sender, EventArgs e) { string doc1 = Server.MapPath("~/Templates/doc1.docx"); string doc2 = Server.MapPath("~/Templates/doc2.docx"); string final_doc = Server.MapPath("~/Templates/extFinal.docx"); File.Delete(final_doc); File.Copy(doc1, final_doc); using (WordprocessingDocument myDoc = WordprocessingDocument.Open(final_doc, true)) { string altChunkId = "AltChunkId2"; MainDocumentPart mainPart = myDoc.MainDocumentPart; AlternativeFormatImportPart chunk = mainPart.AddAlternativeFormatImportPart( AlternativeFormatImportPartType.WordprocessingML, altChunkId); using (FileStream fileStream = File.Open(doc2, FileMode.Open)) chunk.FeedData(fileStream); AltChunk altChunk = new AltChunk(); altChunk.Id = altChunkId; mainPart.Document.Body.InsertAfter(altChunk, mainPart.Document.Body.Elements<Paragraph>().Last()); mainPart.Document.Save(); } exeSearchReplace(final_doc); } protected void exeSearchReplace(string document) { using (WordprocessingDocument wordDoc = WordprocessingDocument.Open(document, true)) { string docText = null; using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(wordDoc.MainDocumentPart. GetStream())) { docText = sr.ReadToEnd(); } Regex regexText = new Regex("acvtClientName"); docText = regexText.Replace(docText, "Hi Everyone!"); using (StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(wordDoc.MainDocumentPart.GetStream(FileMode.Create))) { sw.Write(docText); } } } } }

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  • Dynamic Objects for ASPxGridview

    - by André Snede Hansen
    I have a dictionary that is populated with data from a table, we are doing this so we can hold multiple SQL tables inside this object. This approached cannot be discussed. The Dictionary is mapped as a , and contains SQL column name and the value, and each dictionary resembles one row entry in the Table. Now I need to display this on a editable gridview, preferably the ASPxGridView. I already figured out that I should use Dynamic Objects(C#), and everything worked perfectly, up to the part where I find out that the ASPxGridview is built in .NET 2.0 and not 4.0 where Dynamic objects where implemented, therefor I cannot use it... As you cannot, to my knowledge, add rows to the gridview programmatically, I am out of ideas, and seek your help guys! protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { UserValidationTableDataProvider uvtDataprovider = _DALFactory.getProvider<UserValidationTableDataProvider>(typeof(UserValidationTableEntry)); string[] tableNames = uvtDataprovider.TableNames; UserValidationTableEntry[] entries = uvtDataprovider.getAllrecordsFromTable(tableNames[0]); userValidtionTableGridView.Columns.Clear(); Dictionary<string, string> firstEntry = entries[0].Values; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> kvp in firstEntry) { userValidtionTableGridView.Columns.Add(new GridViewDataColumn(kvp.Key)); } var dynamicObjectList = new List<dynamic>(); foreach (UserValidationTableEntry uvt in entries) { //dynamic dynObject = new MyDynamicObject(uvt.Values); dynamicObjectList.Add(new MyDynamicObject(uvt.Values)); } } public class MyDynamicObject : DynamicObject { Dictionary<string, string> properties = new Dictionary<string, string>(); public MyDynamicObject(Dictionary<string, string> dictio) { properties = dictio; } // If you try to get a value of a property // not defined in the class, this method is called. public override bool TryGetMember(GetMemberBinder binder, out object result) { // Converting the property name to lowercase // so that property names become case-insensitive. string name = binder.Name.ToLower(); string RResult; // If the property name is found in a dictionary, // set the result parameter to the property value and return true. // Otherwise, return false. bool wasSuccesfull = properties.TryGetValue(name, out RResult); result = RResult; return wasSuccesfull; } // If you try to set a value of a property that is // not defined in the class, this method is called. public override bool TrySetMember(SetMemberBinder binder, object value) { // Converting the property name to lowercase // so that property names become case-insensitive. properties[binder.Name.ToLower()] = value.ToString(); // You can always add a value to a dictionary, // so this method always returns true. return true; } } Now, I am almost certain that his "Dynamic object" approach, is not the one I can go with from here on. I hope you guys can help me :)!

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  • How would a php or java client authenticate if I'm using WCF w/ forms auth?

    - by Toran Billups
    I have a generic proof of concept WCF service that is using forms authentication to secure access. All works great when my client is .NET (vb code below) Dim client As SupplierServiceClient = New SupplierServiceClient() client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "[email protected]" client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "password" Dim SupplierList As List(Of Supplier) = client.GetSuppliers() but as I want this to interop w/ anyone who can do SOAP 1.1/1.2 - how would a PHP or Java client connect? My WCF web.config is listed below (fyi) <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.SupplierService" behaviorConfiguration="NorthwindBehavior"> <endpoint address="" name="wsHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="wsHttp"/> <endpoint address="https://server/SampleApplicationWCF/SupplierService.svc/Basic" name="basicHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttp"/> <endpoint contract="IMetadataExchange" binding="mexHttpBinding" address="mex"/> </service> </services> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="wsHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="false" establishSecurityContext="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="NorthwindBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="MembershipProvider"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel>

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  • Data Access Layer - static list objects and caching

    - by Truegilly
    Hello, i am devloping a site using .net MVC i have a data access layer which basically consists of static list objects that are created from data within my database. The method that rebuilds this data first clears all the list objects. Once they are empty it then add the data. Here is an example of one of the lists im using. its a method which generates all the UK postcodes. there are about 50 methods similar to this in my application that return all sorts of information, such as towns, regions, members, emails etc. public static List<PostCode> AllPostCodes = new List<PostCode>(); when the rebuild method is called it first clears the list. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); next it re-bulilds the data, by calling the GetAllPostCodes() method /// <summary> /// static method that returns all the UK postcodes /// </summary> public static void GetAllPostCodes() { using (fab_dataContextDataContext db = new fab_dataContextDataContext()) { IQueryable AllPostcodeData = from data in db.PostCodeTables select data; IDbCommand cmd = db.GetCommand(AllPostcodeData); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = (SqlCommand)cmd; DataSet dataSet = new DataSet(); cmd.Connection.Open(); adapter.FillSchema(dataSet, SchemaType.Source); adapter.Fill(dataSet); cmd.Connection.Close(); // crete the objects foreach (DataRow row in dataSet.Tables[0].Rows) { PostCode postcode = new PostCode(); postcode.ID = Convert.ToInt32(row["PostcodeID"]); postcode.Outcode = row["OutCode"].ToString(); postcode.Latitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Latitude"]); postcode.Longitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Longitude"]); postcode.TownID = Convert.ToInt32(row["TownID"]); AllPostCodes.Add(postcode); postcode = null; } } } The rebuild occurs every 1 hour. this ensures that every 1 hour the site will have fresh set of cached data. the issue ive got is that occasionally if during a rebuild, the server will be hit by a request and an exception is thrown. The exception is "Index was outside the bounds of the array." it is due to when a list is being cleared. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); - // throws exception - although its not always in regard to this list. Once this exception is thrown application dies, All users are affected. I have to restart the server to fix it. i have 2 questions... If i utilise caching instead of static objects would this help ? Is there any way i can say "while the rebuild is taking place, wait for it to complete until accepting requests" any help is most appricaiated ;) truegilly

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  • Should we denormalize database to improve performance?

    - by Groo
    We have a requirement to store 500 measurements per second, coming from several devices. Each measurement consists of a timestamp, a quantity type, and several vector values. Right now there is 8 vector values per measurement, and we may consider this number to be constant for needs of our prototype project. We are using HNibernate. Tests are done in SQLite (disk file db, not in-memory), but production will probably be MsSQL. Our Measurement entity class is the one that holds a single measurement, and looks like this: public class Measurement { public virtual Guid Id { get; private set; } public virtual Device Device { get; private set; } public virtual Timestamp Timestamp { get; private set; } public virtual IList<VectorValue> Vectors { get; private set; } } Vector values are stored in a separate table, so that each of them references its parent measurement through a foreign key. We have done a couple of things to ensure that generated SQL is (reasonably) efficient: we are using Guid.Comb for generating IDs, we are flushing around 500 items in a single transaction, ADO.Net batch size is set to 100 (I think SQLIte does not support batch updates? But it might be useful later). The problem Right now we can insert 150-200 measurements per second (which is not fast enough, although this is SQLite we are talking about). Looking at the generated SQL, we can see that in a single transaction we insert (as expected): 1 timestamp 1 measurement 8 vector values which means that we are actually doing 10x more single table inserts: 1500-2000 per second. If we placed everything (all 8 vector values and the timestamp) into the measurement table (adding 9 dedicated columns), it seems that we could increase our insert speed up to 10 times. Switching to SQL server will improve performance, but we would like to know if there might be a way to avoid unnecessary performance costs related to the way database is organized right now. [Edit] With in-memory SQLite I get around 350 items/sec (3500 single table inserts), which I believe is about as good as it gets with NHibernate (taking this post for reference: http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2009/08/22/nhibernate-perf-tricks.aspx). But I might as well switch to SQL server and stop assuming things, right? I will update my post as soon as I test it.

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  • How to catch 'exceptions' for out of order execution in Workflow Foundation 4?

    - by Alex Key
    Hi, I am attempting to model a worklfow using a "WCF Workflow Service" in .net / vs 2010 that needs to handle out of order execution gracefully (but not allow it - if thath makes sense!?) For example I have 2 receive activities one called Initialize and the other called GetValue inside a FlowChart. In most cases Initialize should be called first and GetValue after (as modled in the flow chart). However if GetValue is executed before Initialize I do not want to return an "out of order" exception (although when I look at the WCF test client, I can't actually see an exception). But instead a custom exception saying something like "you must initialize first". In theory I could model this with lots of parallel activities and conditions to check if Initialized / Running / Terminated etc. But the business process I am modelling if very very similar to a state machine... except it must handle people executing things in the wrong order. Ideally I would like to catch the "out of order" exception (thought I don't think it's really an exception as such), check the 'exception' to see which function was attempted to run and then handle it. I have done some research around enabling AllowBufferedReceive. However I don't want to be able to execute out of order (I don't think), but instead give a detailed response if it does happen. I've looked at the new beta state machine template for WF 4 - but i'm not sure if it does what i'm after? I'm not sure if I have the wrong end of the stick, so any help would be greatly appreciated. [EDIT] To help clarify... Sorry it's a tricky one to explain. The standard I am trying to implement (the e-learning standard SCORM RTE) is structured like a state machine i.e. certain functions can only be executed in certain states. However the standard specifies that if the calling clients tries to execute a function that it is not meant to, then a warning should be issued... for example "you cannot use GetValue(), because you have not yet Initialized". Ideally I'd like to structure the workflow as the theoretical state machine and not need to have to use multiple if/else's to handle all the scenarios where something could be executed out-of-order. I'd like to catch a out-of-order exception (but I don't think there is such an exception - as it's not in the debugger) and rethrow it.

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  • JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

    - by Chris Halcrow
    I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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  • How to keep multiple connectionString passwords safe, separate, and easy to deploy?

    - by Funka
    I know there are plenty of questions here already about this topic (I've read through as many as I could find), but I haven't yet been able to figure out how best to satisfy my particular criteria. Here are the goals: The ASP.NET application will run on a few different web servers, including localhost workstations for development. This means encrypting web.config using a machine key is out. The application will decide which connection string to use based on the server name (using a switch statement). For example, "localhost" and "dev.example.com" will use the DevDatabaseConnectionString, "test.example.com" will use the TestDatabaseConnectionString, and "www.example.com" will use the ProdDatabaseConnectionString, for example. Ideally, the exact same executables and web.config should be able to run on any of these environments, without needing to tailor or configure each environment separately every time that we deploy (something that seems like it would be easy to forget/mess up one day during a deployment, which is why we moved away from having just one connectionstring that has to be changed on each target). Deployment is currently accomplished via FTP. We will not have command-line access to the production web server. This means using aspnet_regiis.exe is out. (I could run on localhost, however, if this would still work.) We would prefer to not have to recompile the application whenever a password changes, so using web.config (or db.config or whatever) seems to make the most sense. A developer should not be able to decrypt the production database password. If a developer checks the source code out onto their localhost laptop (which would determine that it should be using the DevDatabaseConnectionString, remember?) and the laptop gets lost or stolen, it should not be possible to get at the other connection strings. Thus, having a single RSA private key to un-encrypt all three passwords cannot be considered. (Contrary to #3 above, it does seem like we'd need to have three separate key files if we went this route; these could be installed once per machine, and should the wrong key file get deployed to the wrong server, the worst that should happen is that the app can't decrypt anything---and not allow the wrong host to access the wrong database!) I know this is probably a subjective question (asking for a "best" way to do something), but given the criteria I've mentioned, I'm hoping that a single best answer will indeed arise. Thank you!

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  • [Flex 4 and .Net] Retrieving tables from SQL database

    - by mG
    Hi everyone, As the title says, I want to retrieve tables of data from a SQL database, using Flex 4 and .Net WebService. I'm new to both Flex and DotNet. Please tell me a proper way to do it. This is what I've done so far: Retrieving an array of string: (this works) .Net: [WebMethod] public String[] getTestArray() { String[] arStr = { "AAA", "BBB", "CCC", "DDD" }; return arStr; } Flex 4: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var ac:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); protected function btn_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { ws.getTestArray(); } protected function ws_resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { ac = event.result as ArrayCollection; Alert.show(ac.toString()); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:WebService id="ws" wsdl="http://localhost:50582/Service1.asmx?WSDL" result="ws_resultHandler(event)"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button x="10" y="30" label="Button" id="btn" click="btn_clickHandler(event)"/> </s:Application> Retrieving a DataTable: (this does not work) DotNet: [WebMethod] public DataTable getUsers() { DataTable dt = new DataTable("Users"); SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection("server = 192.168.1.50; database = MyDatabase; user id = sa; password = 1234; integrated security = false"); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter("select vFName, vLName, vEmail from Users", conn); da.Fill(dt); return dt; } Flex 4: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="955" minHeight="600"> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; import mx.controls.Alert; import mx.rpc.events.ResultEvent; [Bindable] private var ac:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); protected function btn_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { ws.getUsers(); } protected function ws_resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { ac = event.result as ArrayCollection; Alert.show(ac.toString()); } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:WebService id="ws" wsdl="http://localhost:50582/Service1.asmx?WSDL" result="ws_resultHandler(event)"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Button x="10" y="30" label="Button" id="btn" click="btn_clickHandler(event)"/> </s:Application>

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  • CSS Collapsing/Hiding divs with no data in <span>

    - by Chance
    I am trying to display an address which includes the following information: Title, division, address1, address2, town/state/zip, and country (5 seperate lines worth of data). The problem is sometimes the company may only have the title, address1, and town/state/zip yet other times it may be all but address2. This is determined upon a db record request server side. Therefore how can I make my output look proper when some of my labels will be blank? I would like div's that contain an empty span to be essentially collapsed/removed. My only idea of how was to use jquery and a selector to find all divs with blank spans (since thats all an asp.net label really is) and then remove those divs however this seems like such bad form. Is there any way to do this with css? Possible Code would be something like: $('span:empty:only-child').parent('div').remove(); Picture Examples (Ignore spacing/indentation issues which I will fix) Missing Division, Address2, and Country All Possible Fields The Html <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddressHeader" CssClass="lblBillingAddressHeader" Text="Billing Address:" /> <div style="position:relative; top:150px; left: 113px;"> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingDivision" CssClass="lblBillingShippingDivisionFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress2" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress3" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> <div class="test"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID="lblBillingAddress4" CssClass="lblBillingShippingFont" /> </div> </div> The CSS .test { position: relative; top: 0px; left: 0px; height: 12px; width: 300px; } .lblBillingShippingDivisionFont { font-size: small; font-weight: bold; } .lblBillingShippingFont { font-size: 10.6px; }

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  • What is the best way get and hold property reference by name in c#

    - by Jeff Weber
    I want to know if there is a better way (than what I'm currently doing) to obtain and hold a reference to a property in another object using only the object and property string names. Particularly, is there a better way to do this with the new dynamic functionality of .Net 4.0? Here is what I have right now. I have a "PropertyReference<T>" object that takes an object name and property name in the constructor. An Initialize() method uses reflection to find the object and property and stores the property Getter as an Action<T> and the property Setter as an Func<T>. When I want to actually call the property I do something like this: int x = _propertyReference.Get(); or _propertyReference.Set(2); Here is my PropertyReference<T> code. Please dissect and make suggestions for improvement. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; using System.Xml; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public class PropertyReference<T> : IPropertyReference { public string ComponentName { get; set; } public string PropertyName { get; set; } public bool IsInitialized { get { return (_action != null && _func != null); } } Action<T> _action; Func<T> _func; public PropertyReference() { } public PropertyReference(string componentName, string propertyName) { ComponentName = componentName; PropertyName = propertyName; } public void Initialize(IEntity e) { Object component = e.GetByName(ComponentName); if (component == null) return; Type t = e.GetByName(ComponentName).GetType(); PropertyInfo pi = t.GetProperty(PropertyName); _action = (T a) => pi.SetValue(component, a, null); _func = () => (T)pi.GetValue(component, null); } public void Reset() { _action = null; _func = null; } public void Set(T value) { _action.Invoke(value); } public T Get() { return _func(); } } } Note: I can't use the "Emit" functionality as I need this code to work on the new Windows Phone 7 and that does not support Emit.

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  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

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